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MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16
Course Code: MBS404
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Paper ID: 0314107
General Surgery - II
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support your answer.
Part 'B'
- Describe etiopathogenesis of gall stones, clinical features of acute cholecystitis and its management. (8)
- Describe clinical features, investigations and management of carcinoma lower third rectum. (8)
- Write short note on: (3x3=9)
- Gastric outlet obstruction
- Vitello intestinal duct
- Pseudopancreatic cyst
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Part 'C'
- Describe the clinical features investigations and management of benign prostatic hypertrophy. (8)
- Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)
- Skin grafts
- Cervical lymphadenopathy
- Flail chest
- Complications of spinal anaesthesia
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Roll No.
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16
Course Code: MBS404
General Surgery - II
Part 'A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Student's Name
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Paper ID: 0314107
Max Marks: 15
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
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2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
- FirstRanker.edonds must be done within. a) 2hrs b) 4hrs c) 6hrs d) 12hrs
- Q.3 Gram negative septic shock is characterized by all except: a) Hypotension b) Oliguria c) Raised intracranial pressure d) Adult respiratory distress syndrome
- Q.4 The anti-coagulant solution commonly used to store blood is: a) Heparin b) EDTA c) Na-citrate d) Acid citrate dextrose
- Q.5 Abscess should be treated by: a) Antibiotics b) Fomentation c) Incision and drainage d) Wait and watch policy
- Q.6 Pott's puffy tumour is due to: a) Sagittal sinus thrombosis b) Arterio-venous fistula c) Infected ulcerated sebaceous cyst d) Brain abscess
- Q.7 Flail chest is associated with: a) Fracture of one or two ribs b) Fracture of 3 or more successive ribs c) Diaphragmatic Hernia d) Peripheral pulmonary cancer
- Q.8 Collar stud abscess occurs in: a) Cervical tuberculosis lymphadenitis b) Pyogenic cervical lymphadenitis c) Retropharyngeal abscess d) Peritonsillar abscess
- Q.9 Desmoid tumor occurs in the: a) Brain b) Retroperitoneal space c) Abdominal wall d) Mediastinum
- Q.10 The cervical rib syndrome commonly produces: a) Dysphagia b) Vascular manifestations c) Neurological manifestation d) Submandibular
- Q.12 Cancerous lesions in the anterior two-third of the
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a) Drain into the deep cervical nodes b) Drain into the internal maxillary node chain c) Drain into the sub-maxillary and sub mental nodes d) None of the above - Q.13 In direct hernia, sac in relation to inferior epigastric artery is: a) Medial b) Lateral c) Anterior d) Posterior
- Q.14 Painless haematuria occurs in: a) Bladder perforation b) Tuberculosis of bladder c) Carcinoma of bladder d) Vesical stone
- Q.15 Lucid interval is seen in: a) Brain tumour b) Middle meningeal haemorrhage c) Cerebral vein thrombosis d) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
- Q.16 Commonest site of branchial cyst: a) Thyroid b) Junction of upper and middle third of sternocleidomastoid c) Junction of middle and lower third of sternocleidomastoid d) Superior mediastinum
- Q.17 Electrolyte disturbance in chronic pyloric stenosis with vomiting tends to be: a) Hypochloraemic acidosis b) Hypochloraemic alkalosis c) Hyperchloraemic acidosis d) Hyperchloraemic alkalosis
- Q.18 Most commonly affected peripheral nerve in leprosy is: a) Ulnar b) Radial c) Median d) Lateral popliteal
- Q.19 Massive blood transfusion can cause: a) Hepatic coma b) Hypercalcemia c) Hyperkalaemia d) Leucopenia
- Q.20 Features of hypovolemic shock are all except: a) Oliguria b) Bradycardia c) Low B.P. d) Cold extremities
- Q.21 Which of the following graft is known as wolf's graft: a) Split thickness graft b) Full thickness graft c) Partial thickness graft d) Myocutaneous graft
- Q.22 Commonest appropriate site for biopsy in an ulcer is: a) Base of the ulcer b) Mid position of margin c) Margin adjoining normal tissue d) Central part
- Q.23 Tetanus is due to: a) Endotoxin b) Circulating exotoxin c) Release of antibodies to the toxin d) Exotoxin bound to motor end plate
- Q.24 All of the following symptoms and signs indicative of tension pneumothorax except: a) Chest pain b) Shortness of breath c) Absent breath sounds unilaterally d) Shifting of trachea towards pneumothorax
- Q.25 Raised level of CEA is seen in a) Ca-ovary b) Ca-stomach c) Ca-colon d) Ca-breast
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- Q.26 Most common cause of acute pancreatitis: a) Biliary tract disease b) Alcoholism c) Post traumatic d) Idiopathic
- Q.27 Complications of Meckel's diverticulum includes: a) Haemorrhage b) Intussusception c) Strangulation d) All are correct
- Q.28 Virchows lymph nodes are a) Left supraclavicular b) Right supraclavicular c) Axillary d) Stage I carcinoma
- Q.29 Prognosis of the Ca-rectum is best assessed by: a) Size of tumour b) Histological grading c) Duration of symptoms d) Site of the tumour
- Q.30 True about ulcerative colitis: a) Involves full thickness of the wall of intestine b) Fissure and fistula are common c) Continuous lesions d) Lymph nodes are red and velvety
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