Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2016 MBBS404B General Surgery II Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2016 MBBS404B General Surgery II Previous Question Paper

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination

2015-16

Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314107

General Surgery - II

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

Describe etiopathogenesis of gall stones, clinical features of
acute cholecystitis and its management. (8)

2.

Describe clinical features, investigations and management
of carcinoma lower third rectum. (8)

3.

Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a)

Gastric outlet obstruction

b)

Vitello intestinal duct

c)

Pseudopancreatic cyst

Part `C'

1.

Describe the clinical features , investigations and
management of benign prostatic hypertrophy. (8)

2.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

a)

Skin grafts

b)

Cervical lymphadenopathy

c)

Flail chest

d)

Complications of spinal anaesthesia

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code: MBS404



Paper ID: 0314107

General Surgery - II

Part `A'



Time: 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1

Keloid is:

d)

Both b & c

a)

Hvpertrophy of the scar

b)

Malignant tumor of skin

Q.11

Paget's disease of breast is:

c)

Melanoma of skin

a)

Premalignent

d)

Granulomatous lesion

b)

Eczema



c)

Carcinoma in situ

Q.2

Primary Closure of incised wounds must be done

d)

Stage I carcinoma

within:
a)

2 hrs

b)

4hrs

Q.12

Cancerous lesions in the anterior two-third of the

c)

6hrs

d)

12hrs

tongue:
a)

Drain into the deep cervical nodes

Q.3

Gram negative septic shock is characterized by all

b)

Drain into the internal maxillary node

except:

chain

a)

Hypotension

c)

Drain into the sub-maxillary and sub

b)

Oliguria

mental nodes

c)

Raised intracranial pressure

d)

None of the above

d)

Adult respiratory distress syndrome

P.T.O.
Q.13

In direct hernia, sac in relation to inferior

Q.4

The anti-coagulant solution commonly used to

epigastric artery is:

store blood is:



a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

a)

Heparin

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

b)

EDTA

c)

Na-citrate

Q.14

Painless haematuria occurs in:

d)

Acid citrate dextrose

a)

Bladder perforation

b)

Tuberculosis of bladder

Q.5

Abscess should be treated by:

c)

Carcinoma of bladder

a)

Antibiotics

d)

Vesical stone

b)

Fomentation

c)

Incision and drainage

Q.15

Lucid interval is seen in:



d)

Wait and watch policy

a)

Sagital sinus thrombosis

b)

Middle meningeal haemorrhage

Q.6

Pott`s puffy tumour is due to:

c)

Cerebral vein thrombosis

a)

Brain tumour

d)

Subrachnoid haemorrhage

b)

Arterio-venous fistula

c)

Infected ulcerated sebaceous cyst

Q.16

Commonest site of branchial cyst:

d)

Brain abscess

a)

Thyroid

b)

Junction of upper and middle third of

Q.7

Flail chest is associated with:

sternocleidomastoid

a)

Fracture of one or two ribs

c)

Junction of middle and lower third of

b)

Fracture of 3 or more successive ribs

sternocleidomastoid

c)

Diaphragmatic Hernia

d)

Superior mediastinum



d)

Peripheral pulmonary cancer

Q.17

Electrolyte disturbance in chronic pyloric stenosis

Q.8

Collar stud abscess occurs in:

with vomiting tends to be:

a)

Cervical tuberculosis lymphadenitis

a)

Hypochloraemic acidosis

b)

Pyogenic cervical lymphadenitis

b)

Hypochloraemic alkalosis

c)

Retropharyngeal abscess

c)

Hyperchloraemic acidosis

d)

Peritonsiller abscess

d)

Hyperchloraemic alkalosis



Q.9

Desmoid tumor occurs in the:

Q.18

Most commonly affected peripheral nerve in

a)

Brain

leprosy is:

b)

Retroperitoneal space

a)

Ulnar

c) Abdominal wall

b)

Radial

d)

Mediastinum

c)

Median

d)

Lateral popliteal

Q.10

The cervical rib syndrome commonly produces:
a)

Dysphagia

Q.19

Massive blood transfusion can cause:

b)

Vascular manifestations

a)

Hepatic coma

c)

Neurological manifestation

b)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Submandibular

c)

Hyperkalaemia

d)

Leucopenia

Q.29

Prognosis of the Ca-rectum is best assessed by:
a)

Size of tumour

Q.20

Features of hypovolemic shock are all except:

b)

Histological grading

a)

Oliguria

c)

Duration of symptoms

b)

Bradycardia

d)

Site of the tumour

c)

LowB.P.



d)

Cold extremities

Q.30

True about ulcerative colitis:
a)

Involves full thickness of the wall of

Q.21

Which of the following graft is known as wolf's

intestine

graft:

b)

Fissure and fistula are common

a)

Split thickness graft

c)

Continuous lesions

b)

Full thickness graft

d)

Lymph nodes are red and velvety

c)

Partial thickness graft

d)

Myocutaneous graft

Q.22

Commonest appropriate site for biopsy in an ulcer
is:
a)

Base of the ulcer

b)

Mid position of margin

c)

Margin adjoining normal tissue

d)

Central part

Q.23

Tetanus is due to:
a)

Endotoxin

b)

Circulating exotoxin

c)

Release of antibodies to the toxin

d)

Exotoxin bound to motor end plate

Q.24

All of the following symptoms and signs are
indicative of tension pneumothorax except:
a)

Chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Absent breath sounds unilaterally

d)

Shifting of trachea towards pneumothorax

Q.25

Raised level of CEA is seen in:
a)

Ca-ovary

b)

Ca-stomach

c)

Ca-colon

d)

Ca-breast

Q.26

Most common cause of acute pancreatitis:
a)

Biliary tract disease

b)

Alcoholism

c)

Post traumatic

d)

Idiopathic

Q.27

Complications of Meckel's diverticulum includes:
a)

Haemorrhage

b)

Intussusception

c)

Strangulation

d)

All are correct

Q.28

Virchows lymph nodes are:
a)

Left supraclavicular

b)

Right supraclavicular

c)

Axillary