Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2017 MBS401 General Medicine I Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2016-17
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 0314101
General Medicine - I
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Define Hypertension. Write down the mechanisms, clinical
features and treatment of Hypertension. (8)
2.
Write down the pathophysiology, clinical features, and
management of peptic ulcer. (8)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a) Stages and treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
b) Clinical features and treatment of iron deficiency anemia
c) Complications of acute pancreatitis
Part `C'
1.
Discuss the etiology, clinical features and management of
hypothyroidism. (8)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a) Clinical features and treatment of enteric fever
b) Post exposure Prophylaxis of rabies
c) Treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis
d) Newer insulins
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2016-17
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 0314101
General Medicine - I
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Pulsus bisferiens is seen in all except:
Q.7
Wide split S2 is heard in
a)
AS with AR
a)
mitral regurgitation
b)
Severe AR
b)
mitral stenosis
c)
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c)
ASD
d)
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
d)
Coarctation of aorta
Q.2
All of the following are contraindications to
Q.8
Which is not a acute coronary syndrome:
fibrinolysis in MI except:
a)
unstable angina
a)
history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage
b)
STEMI
b)
marked hypertension
c)
NSTEMI
c)
menstruation
d)
stable angina
d)
internal bleeding
Q.9
All of the following are causes of acute
Q.3
All are risk factors for atherosclerosis except:
pancreatitis except:
a)
increased waist hip ratio
a)
gall stone
b)
hyperhomocystenemia
b)
alcohol
c)
decreased fibrinogen levels
c) hemochromatosis
d)
decreased HDL levels
d)
hypercalcemia
Q.4
Which of the following is not used in
Q.10 Skip granulomatous lesion are seen in:
hypertensive crisis:
a)
ulcerative colitis
a)
indapamide
b)
crohn's disease
b)
nitroglycerine
c)
whipples disease
c)
esmolol
d)
reiter's disease
d)
nitroprusside
Q.11 Which is not a feature of irritable bowel
Q.5
Loud S1 can be heard in:
syndrome:
a)
mitral stenosis
a)
abdominal pain
b)
mitral regurgitation
b)
constipation
c)
aortic stenosis
c)
rectal bleeding
d)
all of the above
d)
bloating
Q.6
Austin flint murmur is a:
Q.12 Barret' esophagus can lead to:
a)
pansystolic murmur
a)
achalasia
b)
mid diastolic murmur
b)
reflux esophagitis
c)
mid systolic murmur
c)
peptic ulcer
d)
continuous murmur
d)
none of the above
P.T.O.
Q.13 Peptic ulcer is associated with all except:
c)
amyloidosis
a)
cirrhosis.
d)
wegener's granulomatosis
b)
zollinger Ellison syndrome
c)
primary hyperparathyroidism
Q.22 Which of the following is not a feature of
d)
pernicious anemia
addision's disease:
a)
asthenia
Q.14 Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency may be caused by
b)
hyperpigmentation
all except:
c)
hypertension
a)
primaquin
b)
dapsone
d)
abdominal pain
c)
nitrofurantoin d)
pyrimethamine
Q.23 Which is not a short acting insulin:
Q.15 All of the following are seen in sickle cell anemia
a)
aspart
b)
regular
except:
c)
glargine
d)
lispro
a)
acute chest syndrome
Q.24 The most common cause of cushing's syndrome
b)
hand foot syndrome
is:
c)
salmonella osteomyelitis
a)
pitutary adenoma
d)
none of the above
b)
adrenal adenoma
c)
ectopic ACTH
Q.16 Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen
d)
iatrogenic steroids
in:
a)
acquired aplastic anemia
Q.25 Tinea versicolor is caused by:
b)
myelodysplasia
a)
candida
c)
fanconi's anemia
b)
crytococcus
d)
dyskeratosis congenital
c)
malassezia
d)
microsporum
Q.17 H pylori is known to cause all of the following
except:
Q.26 Hepatitis virus most commonly associated with
a)
gastric ulcer
chronicity is:
b)
duodenal ulcer
a)
hepatitis A
c)
gastric lymphoma
b)
hepatitis B
d)
fundal atrophic gastritis
c)
hepatitis C
d)
hepatitis D
Q.18 Which one of the following findings is not
typically seen with the acute nephritic syndrome:
Q.27 The hepatitis virus which is not transmitted
a)
Red blood cell casts in the urine
parenterally is:
b)
Hypertension
a)
hepatitis B
c)
Polyuria due to a defect in renal
b)
hepatitis C
concentrating ability
c)
hepatitis D
d)
edema
d)
hepatitis E
Q.19 All are true of nephritic syndrome except:
Q.28 Which of the following drug is not used in
a)
RBC casts in urine
treatment of chronic hepatitis B:
b)
hypoproteinemia
a)
entecavir
c)
edema
b)
ribavarin
d)
hyperlipidemia
c)
adefovir
d)
lamivudine
Q.20 A patient presents with hemoptysis and hematuria
few weeks after a respiratory tract infection.
Q.29 A vaccine is available for all EXCEPT:
ANCA is positive. What is most likely diagnosis:
a)
hepatitis A
a)
IgA nephropathy
b)
hepatitis B
b)
goodpasture's syndrome
c)
hepatitis C
c)
nephritic syndrome
d)
none of the above
d)
post streptococcal GN
Q.30 Which is not a criteria for child pugh score:
Q.21 Most common cause of nephrotic range
a)
seum bilirubin
proteinuria in an adult is:
b)
serum albumin
a)
diabetes
c)
SGPT
b)
hypertension
d)
ascitis
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022