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Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2017 MBS404 0314106 General Surgery I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2017 MBS404 0314106 General Surgery I Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022

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Part 'B'

  1. Classify ulcers of tongue. Describe management of carcinoma tongue. (8)

  2. Describe the diagnosis, staging & management of carcinoma of breast. (8)

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  3. Write short note on: (3x3=9)

    1. Glassgow coma score
    2. MEN syndrome
    3. Pleomorphicadenoma of salivary gand

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Part 'C'

  1. Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

    1. Tennis elbow
    2. Volkmann's ischemic contracture
    3. Ulnar paradox

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    4. Osteoginic sarcoma

  2. Describe the clinical features and management of fracture neck of femur. (8)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2016-17

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Roll No. Student's Name

Student's Signature Invigilator's Signature

Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Part 'A'

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Time: 30 Minutes Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.

2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.

3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

  1. Q.1 Commonest site of basal cell carcinoma is:

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    1. Upper face
    2. Lower face& neck
    3. Abdomen
    4. Lower limb

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  2. Q.2 Commonest complication associated with immunosuppression is:

    1. Graft rejection
    2. Infection
    3. Anaphylaxis
    4. None

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  3. Q.3 Treatment of Parathyroid Hyperplasia is:

    1. Removal of all four glands
    2. Removal of one enlarged gland
    3. I.V. Calcium

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    4. Preserving 50mg of one gland only removal of rest

  4. Q.4 Virchow's lymph node is located in:

    1. Axilla
    2. Left Supraclavicular region

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    3. Inguinal region
    4. Popliteal region

  5. Q.5 Characteristic Malignant is:

    1. Histocytes

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    2. Lymphocytes
    3. Reid Sternberg cell
    4. Reticular cell

  6. Q.6 Malignancy in a longstanding multinodular goitre is most often:

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    1. Anaplastic Carcinoma
    2. Follicular Carcinoma
    3. Medullary Carcinoma
    4. Papillary Carcinoma

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  7. Q.7 Most severe and aggressive form of Malignant Melanoma is:

    1. Superficial spreading
    2. Acral Lentiginous
    3. Lentigo maligna
    4. Nodular infiltrating

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  1. Q.8 Grossly contaminated wound presenting after 12 hours should be managed by:

    1. Cleaning & primary repair
    2. Thorough cleaning, debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary repair

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    3. Primary closure with a drain
    4. Immediate skin grafting

  2. Q.9 Eye signs are more common in:

    1. Primary thyrotoxicosis

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    2. Secondary thyrotoxicosis
    3. Euthyroid goitre
    4. None of the above

  3. Q.10 A stove in chest is not:

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    1. Caused by a direct injury
    2. Associated with a paradoxical movement
    3. A burn from a heating appliance
    4. Ever reduced by positive pressure ventilation

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  4. Q.11 A breast lump is safely left alone after aspiration if:

    1. Cytology shows atypical cells
    2. It is solid and not cystic
    3. There is blood staining of aspirate
    4. It is a cyst which does not refill subsequently

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  5. Q.12 Cleft lip and palate affects all of the following except:

    1. Facial growth
    2. Vision of both eyes
    3. Dental development

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    4. Speech and hearing

  6. Q.13 During Parotidectomy nerve at risk of injury is:

    1. IX th cranial nerve
    2. Xth cranial nerve

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    3. VIth cranial nerve
    4. VII cranial nerve

  7. Q.14 Treatment of duct papilloma of breast is:

    1. Wait & watch

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    2. Subcutaneous mastectomy
    3. Microdochectomy
    4. Modified radical mastectomy

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  1. Q.15 Neck abscesses commonly demand emergency treatment due to the:

    1. Risk of airway obstruction
    2. Resistant bacteria that are usually involved.
    3. Progressive dysphagia dehydration
    4. Pain

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  2. Q.16 Which of the following bursa produces symptoms in shoulder impingement syndrome:

    1. Subacromial bursa
    2. Subdeltoid bursa
    3. Bursa in relation of subscapularis tendon

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    4. Bursa in relation to latissimus dorsi

  3. Q.17 What is the commonest complication of supracondylar fracture of humerus:

    1. Malunion
    2. Myositis ossificans

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    3. Stiffness of elbow
    4. Volkmann's contracture

  4. Q.18 A collar and cuff bandage will be most suitable treatment for which of the following injury:

    1. Midshaft fracture of humerus

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    2. Undisplaced fracture of neck of humerus
    3. Monteggia fracture
    4. Dislocation of elbow

  5. Q.19 Regarding fracture of clavicle which of the following statement is incorrect:

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    1. Fracture is commonest in medial third
    2. Non union is rare
    3. Most cases can be treated conservatively
    4. Fracture is common in middle third

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  6. Q.20 A patient develops compartment syndrome (swelling, pain and numbness) following manipulation and plaster for fracture of both bones of leg. What is the best treatment:

    1. Elevate the leg
    2. Infusion of low molecular weight dextran
    3. Elevate the leg after splitting the plaster
    4. Do operative decompression of facial compartment

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  7. Q.21 MalunitedColles' fracture produces which of the following deformity:

    1. Garden spade deformity
    2. Dinner fork deformity
    3. Madelung deformity

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    4. Swan neck deformity

  8. Q.22 In ankle sprain, the commonest ligament torn is:

    1. Tibio-talar ligament
    2. Posterior talo-fibular ligament.

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    3. Calcaneo fibular ligament
    4. Anterior talo-fibular ligament

  9. Q.23 Which of the following injury is called "Aviator's fracture':

    1. Pott's fracture

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    2. Fracture neck of metatarsal
    3. Subtalar dislocation
    4. Fracture of neck of talus

  10. Q.24 Best treatment for a sixty five yea year old patient with four week old intracapsular femoral neck fracture is:

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    1. Internal fixation
    2. Internal fixation with muscle pedicle graft
    3. Mc Murray osteotomy
    4. Hemireplacement arthroplasty

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  11. Q.25 Which of the following fracture-eponym combinations is NOT correct:

    1. Tillaux fracture - avulsion fracture of tibia at inferior tibiofibular joint
    2. Essex-Lopresti - fractured radial head and dislocated distal radioulnar joint
    3. Hume fracture fractured distal radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
    4. Bennet fracture - fracture dislocation at the base of the 1st metacarpal

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  12. Q.26 Regarding Compartment Syndrome which bone fracture is MOST commonly implicated:

    1. Femur
    2. Radius
    3. Tibia

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    4. Humerus

  13. Q.27 Which is NOT a principle of compound fracture treatment:

    1. No tendon repair
    2. Aggressive Antibiotic cover

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    3. Wound debridement
    4. Immediate Wound closure

  14. Q.28 In transverse fracture of the patella, the treatment is:

    1. Excision of small fragment

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    2. Wire fixation
    3. Plaster cylinder
    4. Patellectomy

  15. Q.29 Comonest type of dislocation of the hip is:

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    1. Anterior
    2. Posterior
    3. Central
    4. Dislocation with fracture of the shaft

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  16. Q.30 Myositisossificans is commonly seen at which joint:

    1. Hip
    2. Knee
    3. Elbow
    4. Shoulder

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This post was last modified on 17 February 2022