Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2018 MBS404 General Surgery I Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2017-18
Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106
General Surgery - I
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Enumerate the causes of acute pancreatitis. Describe the
pathogenesis, clinical features and management of acute
gallstone pancreatitis. (8)
2.
Describe TNM staging for carcinoma Breast. How you will
manage a case of carcinoma breast stage II (T2N1M0). (8)
3.
Write short note on: (3x3=9)
a)
ATLS
b)
Classification of wounds
c)
Rodent ulcer
Part `C'
1.
Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)
a)
Perthes hip
b)
Osteoclastoma
c)
Pesplanus (flat foot)
d)
Claw hand
2.
Describe supracondylar fracture of humerus in children and
its management. (8)
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2017-18
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS404
Paper ID: 0314106
General Surgery - I
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
During an upper abdominal CT scan, 3-cm mass in the
Q.10
For a symptomatic partial duodenal obstruction
adrenal gland is noted. The appropriate next step in
secondary to an annular pancreas, the operative
analysis and management of this finding would be:
treatment of choice is:
a)
Observation
a)
A Whipple procedure
b)
CT-guided needle biopsy
b)
Gastro-jejunostomy
c)
Excision of the mass
c)
Partial resection of the annular pancreas
d)
Measurement of urine catecholamine
d)
Duodeno-jejunostomy
excretion
Q.11
Truncal vagotomy causes:
Q.2
The most likely diagnosis in a patient with
a)
Increase in bicarbonate secretion and decrease
hypertension, hypokalemia, and a 7-cm suprarenal
in chloride secretion
mass is:
b)
Increase in bicarbonate and chloride secretion
a)
Hypernephroma
c)
Decrease in bicarbonate and chloride
b)
Cushing's disease
secretion
c)
Adrenocortical carcinoma
d)
Decrease in bicarbonate and fluid secretion
d)
Pheochromocytoma
Q.12
According to Courvoisier's law, a pancreatic cancer
Q.3
Which of the following statements regarding direct
located in the head of the pancreas would
inguinal hernias is true:
characteristically produce:
a)
They are the most common inguinal hernias in
a)
Migratory thrombophlebitis
women
b)
Obstructive jaundice and a palpable
b)
They protrude medially to the Inferior
gallbladder
epigastric vessels
c)
Obstructive jaundice and a non-palpable
c)
They should be opened and ligated at the
gallbladder
internal ring
d)
Steatorrhea and a tender gallbladder
d)
They incarcerate more commonly than
indirect hernias
P.T.O.
Q.13
True about sliding esophageal hernia in all cases:
Q.4
Most common content in `hernia en glissade' is:
a)
Esophagus always short
a)
Omentum
b)
Urinary bladder
b)
Cardia goes through hiatus
c)
Caecum
d)
Sigmoid colon
c)
Cardia and fundus goes through hiatus
d)
Peritoneal sac goes with para-esophageal
Q.5
A patient operated for inguinal hernia developed
hernia
anesthesia at root of penis and adjacent part of the
scrotum, the nerve likely to be injured is:
Q.14
All of the following statements about Zenker's
a)
Genital branch of Genito-femoral nerve
diverticulum are true except:
b)
Femoral branch of genitor-femoral
a)
Acquired diverticulum
c)
Ilio-hypogastric nerve
b)
Lateral X-ray on Barium swallow often
d)
Ilio-inguinal nerve
diagnostic
c)
False diverticulum
Q.6
During repair of deep ring, the surgeon takes care not
d)
Out pouching of the anterior pharyngeal wall,
to damage one of the following structures:
just above the cricopharyngeus muscle
a)
Peritoneum
b)
Vas deferens
Q.15
Conduit of choice after transhiatal resection of
c)
Inferior epigastric artery
esophagus in a case of carcinoma is:
d)
Interfoveolar ligament
a)
Stomach
b)
Transverse colon.
Q.7
Regarding desmoids tumor which is NOT correct:
c)
Descending colon
a)
Often seen below umbilicus
d)
Jejunum
b)
More common in females
c)
Metastasis does not occur
Q.16
Which is the strongest ligament:
d)
Radio-resistant
a)
Ilio-femoral ligament
b)
Ischio-femoral ligament
Q.8
Burst abdomen occurs mostly on the:
c)
Pubo-femoral ligament
a)
2nd day
b)
3rd day
d)
Transverse acetabular ligament
c)
4th day
d)
7th day
Q.17
Which part of quadriceps muscle is most frequently
Q.9
Pain due to gallstones can be perceived in all areas
fibrosed in post injection quadriceps contracture:
except:
a)
Rectus femoris
a)
Right shoulder
b)
Vastus medialis
b)
Right hypochondrium
c)
Vastus intermedius
c)
Right iliac fossa
d)
Vastus lateralis
d)
Epigastrium
Q.18
Radionucleide bone scanning is most useful in:
a)
Avascular necrosis
Q.27
Which of the following fracture does not usually need
b)
Malignancy
open reduction and internal fixation:
c)
Rheumatoid arthritis
a)
Mid shaft fracture of femur
d)
Stress fractures
b)
Pathological fractures
e)
Acute osteomyelitis
c)
Trochanteric fracture in elderly
d)
Displaced intra-articular fractures
Q.19
Commonest cause of failure of arthrography is:
e)
Displaced fracture of both bones of forearm in
a)
Extra-articular injection of contrast
adults
b)
Bubbling of air in the joint
c)
False positive interpretation
Q.28
Commonest cause of failure of internal fixation is:
d)
False negative interpretation
a)
Infection
e)
Allergic reaction
b)
Corrosion
c)
Metal reaction
Q.20
Myelography is necessary in following conditions:
d)
Immune deficient patient
a)
Suspicion of an intraspinal tumour
b)
Conflicting clinical findings and C.T. scan
Q.29
Death 3 days after pelvic fracture is most likely to be
c)
Evaluation of previously operated spine
due to:
d)
All of above
a)
Haemorrhage
b)
Pulmonary embolism
Q.21
Most serious complication of arthroscopy is:
c)
Fat embolism
a)
Haemorrhage in the joint
d)
Respiratory distress
b)
Damage to articular cartilage
e)
Infection
c)
Compartment syndrome
d)
S no vial fistula
Q.30
Internal fixation of fracture is contraindicated in
e)
Breakage of instrument
which situation:
a)
Active infection
Q.22
What are contraindications of arthroscopy:
b)
When bone gap is present
a)
Partial or complete ankylosis of joint
c)
In epiphyseal injuries
b)
Risk of introducing sepsis from a nearby skin
d)
In compound fracture
lesion.
e)
In pathological fractur
c)
Major collateral ligamentous and capsular
disruptions
d)
All of above
Q.23
What is the earliest indication of Volkmann's
ischaemia:
a)
Pain
b)
Pallor and poor capillary filling
c)
Paraesthesia in median nerve area
d)
Contracture of fingers
e)
Gangrene of tips of fingers
Q.24
Which of the following is incorrect about dislocation of
sternoclavicular joint:
a)
Anterior dislocation occurs due to indirect
injury and is common type of dislocation
b)
Posterior dislocation is rare and occurs due to
direct injury over medial end of clavicle
c)
Sternoclavicular dislocation is common
compared to acromioclavicular dislocation
d)
Trachea can be compressed in posterior
dislocation
Q.25
Which of the following is the earliest laboratory
finding in a case of fat embolism:
a)
Increased serum cholestrol
b)
Increased serum lipase
c)
Increased serum fatty acids
d)
Lipuria
Q.26
First treatment priority in patient with multiple injuries
is:
a)
Airway maintenance
b)
Bleeding control
c)
Circulatory volume restoration
d)
Splinting of fractures
e)
Reduction of dislocation
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022