Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2019 MBS401 General Medicine II Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2018-19
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 03118402
General Medicine - II
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
A man of 45 year admitted to casualty with weakness of
both lower limbs of sudden onset, write the D/D of case &
management of one condition. (8)
2.
Write Aetiology Pathogenesis, clinical features and
management of Ankylosins Spondities. (8)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a)
Anxity Neurosis
b)
Lichen Planus
c)
Primary Sypilis
Part `C'
1.
Write Aetiology Pathogenesis clinical features and
management of Nephrotic Syndrome. (8)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a)
Hydropneumothx
b)
Complications of Pulmonary Tubeculosis
c)
Management of acute kidney Injury
d)
Role of Vitamins & minerals in diet
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2018-19
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 03118402
General Medicine - II
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Which of the following is X-linked recessive:
c)
Dopamine
d)
Ach
a)
Friedrich's ataxia
b)
Huntington's chorea
Q.11
Cysticercosis in human is characterized by except:
c)
Peroneal muscular dystrophy
a)
Commonly presents with epilepsy
d)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b)
May cause hydrocephalus
c)
Producers an eosinophilic pleocyosis in
Q.2
Most diagnostic test of polymyostits is:
the CSF
a)
Myogobin in urine
d)
Should not be treated with steroids
b)
Increased CPK
c)
EMG
Q.12
The best single laboratory aid in diagnosis of
d)
Muscle biopsy
tuberculosis:
a)
Skin test
Q.3
Myoclonus is characterized by:
b)
Chest X- Ray
a)
Shock like contractions
c)
Sputum examination
b)
Slow writhing irregular movements
d)
CT chest
c)
Quasi purposive non repetitive
P.T.O.
movements
Q.13
Tuberculosis pleural effusion is characterized by
d)
Alternating movements
all the following except:
a)
Hemorrhagic
Q.4
The characteristic feature of parkinson's
b)
LDH more than 60%
syndrome consist of:
c)
Protein is increased
a)
Tremor, rigidity, hyperkinesias
d)
lymphocytes
b)
Tremor, rigidity, hypokinesia
c)
Rigidity, hypokinesia, chorea
Q.14
If the creatinine clearance is < 30 ml/min, which
d)
Chorea, athetosis, hypokinesia
of the following drug does not need dose
reduction:
Q.5
Which type of parkinsonism is most common:
a)
INH
a)
Paralysis agitans
b)
Ethambutol
b)
Post atherosclerotic
c)
Streptomycin
c)
Post encephalitic
d)
Kanamycin
d)
Phenothiazine induced
Q.15
In hemoptysis, blood usually comes from:
a)
Bronchial veins
Q.6
Choreiform movements, dementia in adult life and
b)
Pulmonary vein.
similar symptoms in family members males the
c)
Bronchial arteries
diagnosis of:
d)
Pulmonary arteries
a)
Acute chorea
b)
Habit spasm
Q.16
The best investigation in pulmonary embolism is:
c)
Huntington's chorea
a)
D-dimer levels
d)
Dystonia musculorum deformans
b)
CT Angiography
c)
Color Doppler USG
Q.7
Hemiballismus is caused by lesions of the:
d)
Cathether-based pulmonary angiography
a)
Caudate nucleus
b)
Contralateral sub thalamic nuclei
Q.17
Pulmonary hypertension is caused by all except:
c)
Putamin
a)
Hyperventilation
d)
Substantia nigra
b)
Morbid obesity
c)
Fenfluramine
Q.8
Wernick's encephalopathy is due to deficiency of
d)
High attitude
vitamin:
a)
B1
b)
B2
Q.18
Radio femoral delay is observed in:
c)
B6
d)
B12
a)
Coarctation of aorta
b)
Aortic regurgitation
Q.9
Korsakoff's psychosis is most often due to:
c)
Aortic stenosis
a)
Drugs
d)
Mitral stenosis
b)
Head injury
c) Alcoholism
Q.19
Transverse fissure is present in:
d)
Brain tumor
a)
Rt lung
Q.10
In alzheimer's disease which of the following
b)
Lt lung
neurotransmitter is mainly involved:
c)
Both lungs
a)
GABA
b)
5-HT
d)
None
a)
Barbiturate poisoning
Q.20
Which of the following is feature of salicylate
b)
Methanol poisoning
poisoning:
c)
Salicylate toxicity
a)
Lactic acidosis
d)
Digoxin toxicity
b)
Respiratory acidosis
c)
Metabolic alkalosis
Q.30
Feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
d)
Respiratory alkalosis
include all except:
a)
Rapid recovery
Q.21
PH=7.49, pCO2=40, HCO3 =35:
b) Crescent formation
a)
Respiratory alkalosis
c)
Normal BP
b)
Pregnancy
d) Non selective proteinuria
c)
Simple metabolic alkalosis
d)
Respiratory acidosis
Q.22
PH=7.56, pCO2=15, HCO3 = 13, Ag =15:
a)
Acute respiratory alkalosis
b)
Chronic respiratory alkalosis
c)
Respiratory alkalosis & metabolic
alkalosis
d)
Respiratory alkalosis & metabolic
acidosis
Q.23
Focal glomerulonephritis is caused by all except:
a)
IgA nephropathy
b)
Post streptococcal
c)
Infective endocarditis
d)
Diabetes
Q.24
The most sensitive & reliable indication of
rejection following renal transplant is:
a)
Blood urea
b)
Creatinine clearance
c)
Urine Na+ levels
d)
Urine hydroxyl proline
Q.25
Safest antibiotic in renal failure:
a)
Clindamycin
b)
Vancomycin
c)
Tobramycin
d)
Ceftazidime
Q.26
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by
kidney:
a)
Urea
b)
Glucose
c)
Potassium
d)
Creatinine
Q.27
Which of the following is a cause of heavy
proteinuria:
a)
Orthostatic proteinuria
b)
Acute pyelonephritis
c)
Renal amyloidosis
d)
Chronic GN
Q.28
Uremia occurs when GFR is reduced by:
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
60%
d)
80%
Q.29
Hemodialysis is useful in all except:
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022