Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2020 MBS401 General Medicine I Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2019-20
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 03119401
General Medicine - I
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and
management of infective endocarditis. (8)
2.
Define anemia, etiology, clinical features & management of
iron deficiency anemia. (8)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a)
Approach to patient with haematemesis
b)
Wilson's disease
c)
Management of mitral stenosis
Part `C'
1.
Write down the aetiology, clinical features and
management of hypothyroidism. (8)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a)
Management of DKA ( Diabetic ketoacidosis)
b)
Management of malarial of pyrexia
c)
Management of thyroid storm
d)
Management of STEMI
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2019-20
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 03119401
General Medicine - I
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Area of mitral valve orifice in adult:
c)
Aortic valve
a)
1-4 cm2 b)
6-8 cm2
d)
Tricuspid Valve
c)
0.5-2cm2
d)
4-6cm2
Q.11
All symptoms favour Hypothyroidism except:
Q.2
All of the following causes microcytic
a)
Constipation
hypochromic anemia except:
b)
Cold intolerance
a)
Iron deficiency
c)
Headache
b)
Thalassemia
d)
Menstrual irregularity
c)
Fanconi anemia
d)
Lead poisoning
Q.12
Most common cause of adrenal insufficiency in
India:
Q.3
A chronic alcoholic develops palpitation suddenly
a)
Autoimmune
after binge . which of the following arrythmia is
b)
Surgery
most commonly associated with alcohol binge:
c)
Steroid withdrawl
a)
AF
b)
AFL
d)
Tuberculosis
c)
VF
d)
VPCs
P.T.O.
Q.4
Weight gain occur in all except:
Q.13
Which of the following is not included in John's
a)
Pheochromocytoma
Major criteria:
b)
Cushing's Syndrome
a)
Pancarditis.
c)
Hypothyroidism
b)
Chorea
d)
Insulin Secreting Tumor
c)
Subcutaneous Nodules
d)
High ESR
Q.5
Deficiency of the "intrinsic factor" causes:
a)
Microcytic anemia
Q.14
Drug of choice for CML:
b)
Pernicious anemia
a)
Imatinib
c)
Cooley's anemia
b)
Hydroxyuria
d)
Aplastic anemia
c)
Interferon-
d)
Infliximab
Q.6
Most common site of myocardial infarction:
a)
Anterior wall of left ventricle
Q.15
Foetal Haemoglobin (Hb.F) represents:
b)
Posterior wall of left ventricle
a)
22
b)
2
2
c)
Posterior wall of right ventricle
c)
22
d)
4
d)
Inferior wall of left ventricle
.
Q.16
Which of the following is not associated with
Q.7
Which is not seen in Iron deficiency anemia
peptic ulcer:
a)
Hypersegmented neutrophils
a)
Smoking
b)
Microcytic preceeds hypochromia
b)
Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
c)
MCHC <50%
c)
Cirrhosis
d)
Commonest cause of anemia in India
d)
Plummer Vinson Syndrome
Q.8
Which of the following condition associated with
Q.17
All of the following are features of Right sided
hypothyroidism:
heart failure EXCEPT:
a)
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
a)
Increased JVP
b)
Grave's Disease
b)
Pulsatile Liver
c)
Toxic multinodular goitre
c)
Positive HJR
d)
Struma ovary
d)
Increased PCWP
Q.9
Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk
Q.18
A 20 yr old male presents with mucus and
factor for hypertension:
repeated G.I. Bleeding. Pt. is positive for ANCA ,
a)
Gender/sex
most likely diagnosis is:
b)
High Salt diet
a)
Crohn's disease
c) Alcohol
b)
Radiation colitis
d)
Dietary pattern
c)
IBS
d)
Ulcerative colitis
Q.10
Most common heart valve involved in I/V drug
users:
Q.19
QT-interval is shortened in:
a)
Mitral valve
a)
Hypocalcaemia
b)
Pulmonary valve
b)
Hypokalaemia
Q.29
Drug of choice for managing hyperglycaemia in
c)
Hypercalcaemia
DKA is:
d)
Hyperkalaemia
a)
Regular insulin
b)
Lente Insulin
Q.20
Most common cause of Traveller's diarrhoea:
c)
Glyburide
a)
EnteroinvasiveE.coli
d)
70/30 insulin
b)
Enterotoxigenic E.coli
c)
Enteropathogenic E.coli
Q.30
Chevostek's sign is seen in a patient with:
d)
Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli
a)
Uraemia
b)
Hyperkalaemia
Q.21
Which of the following is most common cause of
c)
Hypocalcaemia
acute pancreatitis:
d)
Hypercalcaemia
a)
Alcohol
b)
Gall stones
c)
Drugs
d)
Hypertriglycedemia
Q.22
Most common genotype of Hepatitis B in India:
a)
Hepatitis A
b)
Hepatitis B
c)
Hepatitis C
d)
Hepatitis D
Q.23
"SAAG" stands for:
a)
Serum albumin to ascitic gradient
b)
Serum albumin to anion gradient
c)
Serum anion to albumin gradient
d)
Serum ascites to albumin gradient
Q.24
Careycoomb murmur is seen in:
a)
severe MS
b)
AR
c)
Acute rheumatic carditis
d)
MR
Q.25
Shilling's test is used to determine deficiency of:
a)
Vit. B12
b)
Vit. B6
c)
Folic Acid
d)
Vit.D
Q.26
MELD score includes all except:
a)
Bilirubin
b)
INR
c)
Sr.Creatinine
d)
Albumin
Q.27
Chronic liver disease is most commonly caused
by:
a)
Hep. A
b)
Hep. B
c)
Hep. C
d)
Hep. D
Q.28
Pulsus bisferens is seen in all except:
a)
AR + AS
b)
AR
c)
HOCM
d)
TOF
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022