Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2020 MBS401 General Medicine II Previous Question Paper
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination
2019-20
Course Code: MBS401 Paper ID: 03119402
General Medicine - II
Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 45
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Discuss etiology, types, clinical features and management
of Stroke. (8)
2.
Describe etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and
management of COPD (chronic obstructive Pulmonary
Disease). (8)
3.
Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
a)
Anti phospholipid antibody syndrome (APLA)
b)
DMARDs
c)
Alcohol withdrawl syndrome
Part `C'
1.
Discuss MDR TB and describe management of a patient of
HIV with sputum +ve pulmonary TB. (8)
2.
Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
a)
ARDS
b)
Beriberi disease
c)
Treatment of anemia in chronic kidney disease
d)
Differences between obstructive and restrictive lung
disease
MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2019-20
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code: MBS401
Paper ID: 03119402
General Medicine - II
Part `A'
Time: 30 Minutes
Max Marks: 15
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Drug of choice of GTCS in pregnancy:
a)
Lamotrigine
Q.11
A patient with nephrotic syndrome on
b)
Carbamazepine
longstanding corticosteroid therapy may develop
c)
Leviracetam
all of the following except:
d)
Valproate
a)
Hyperglycemia
b)
Hypertrophy of muscle
Q.2
Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by:
c)
Neuropsychiatric symptoms
a)
3 Hz spike & wave
d)
Suppression of pituitary adrenal axis
b)
1-2 Hz spike & wave
c)
Generalized poly spikes
Q.12
Most common cause of renal artery stenosis in
d)
Hypoarrthymia
young adults in India is:
Q.3
In Glasgow coma scale the maximum and
a)
Atherosclerosis
minimum scores are:
b)
Aorto-arteritis
a)
18 & 3
b)
18 & 0
c)
Fibro muscular dysplasia
c)
15 & 3
d)
15 & 0
d)
Neurofibromatosis
Q.13
Which of the following is not true in obstructive
Q.4
Which of the following is not an indication for
lung disease:
thrombolysis in stroke patients:
a)
Ischemic stroke of less than 3 hours
P.T.O.
b)
Patient age > 18 years
a)
FEV1 decreased
c)
Sustained BP > 185/110 mm Hg despite
b)
TLC decreased
treatment
c)
FVC decreased
d)
CT scan showing non-hemorrhage or
d)
Reduced timed vital capacity
edema in >1/3rd of MCA supply
Q.14
In type II respiratory failure there is:
Q.5
Anti ds-DNA is highly specific for:
a)
Low pO2 and low pCO2
a)
Systemic Sclerosis
b)
Low pO2 and high pCO2
b)
SLE
c)
Normal pO2 and high pCO2
c)
Polymyositis
d)
Low pO2 and normal pCO2
d)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Q.15
Which is the earliest symptom of Parkinsonism:
Q.6
Lupus pernio is a complication of:
a)
Tremors
a)
Sarcoidosis
b)
Rigidity.
b)
Skin TB
c)
Chorea
c)
SLE
d)
Bradykinesia
d)
Discoid Lupus erythematosus
Q.16
Increased ICT is related to:
Q.7
What is feature of temporal arteritis:
a)
Hypotension and tachycardia
a)
Granulomatous vasculitis
b)
Hypertension and tachycardia
b)
Necrotizing vasculitis
c)
Hypertension and bradycardia
c)
Leucocytoclasticvasculitis
d)
Hypotension and bradycardia
d)
Giant cell arteritis
Q.17
32-year-old HIV +ve female presented with
Q.8
Which part of spine is most commonly involved
headache and nuchal stiffness. On lumbar
in Rheumatoid arthritis:
puncture examination, clear CSF was obtained
a)
Lumbar
with leucocytes >100/cubic mm, India ink
b)
Cervical
staining was positive, most probable diagnosis is:
c)
Thoracic
a)
Candida meningitis
d)
Sacral
b)
Tubercular meningitis
c)
Cryptosporidium
Q.9
The most reliable investigation in amyloid
d)
Cryptococcus meningitis
disease is:
Q.18
Chronic alcoholic presenting with bleeding gums
a)
Rectal biopsy
and petechiae is more likely to have deficiency
b)
Immunoglobulin assay
of:
c) Ultrasound
a)
Vitamin B12
d)
Abdominal fat pad biopsy
b)
Thiamin
c)
Vitamin C
Q.10
Anuria is defined as urine output less than:
d)
Pyridoxine
a)
4ml/hr
b)
8 ml/hr
c)
12 ml/hr
d)
16 ml/hr
Q.19
Main clinical distinction between anorexia
Q.28
Calcium requirement of a growing school age
nervosa and bulimia nervosa:
child is about:
a)
Binge eating
a)
10 gm/d
b)
0.1 gm/d
b)
Self induced vomiting
c)
1.0 gm/d
d)
4.0 gm/d
c)
Electrolyte abnormality
Q.29
All joints are involved in acute gout except:
d)
Underweight
a)
MTP
b)
Gleno-humeral joint
Q.20
End stage renal disease is considered appropriate
c)
Ankle joint
when GFR falls to:
d)
Knee joint
a)
50% of normal
b)
30% of normal
Q.30
Type of sensation lost on same side in Brown
c)
15-30% of normal
Sequard syndrome is:
d)
< 15% of normal
a)
Pain
b) Temperature
Q.21
Metabolic complication in CRF include all of the
c)
Proprioception
following except:
d) Touch
a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Hypocalcemia
c)
Hyperphosphatemia
d)
Hypokalemia
Q.22
Emphysema presents with all except:
a)
Cyanosis
b)
Barrel shaped chest
c)
Associated with smoking
d)
Type I respiratory failure
Q.23
The characteristic clinical manifestation of
Schizophrenia is:
a)
Confusion
b)
Anxiety
c)
Auditory hallucinations
d)
Visual hallucinations
Q.24
The CFTR gene associated with Cystic Fibrosis
is located on chromosome:
a)
5
b)
7
c)
9
d)
12
Q.25
In India, psychiatric disorder in people above 60
year of age is mostly due to:
a)
Depression
b)
Hysteria
c)
Dementia
d)
Schizophrenia
Q.26
Patient diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis,
how to start ATT and Antiretroviral therapy
(ART):
a)
Start ATT first
b)
Start ART first
c)
Start both simultaneously
d)
Start ART only
Q.27
Scabies in children differs from that in adults, in
that it affects:
a)
Web-space
b)
Face
c)
Genitals
d)
Axilla
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022