Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2015 MBBS404A General Surgery I Question Paper

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Course Code: MBS404 Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

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Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

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your answer.

Part `B'

1.

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What are the various types of shock? How will you manage
of 60% burn case. (4+4)

2.

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Classify benign breast disorder. Describe the borders of
axilla and classify axillary lymph nodes. (3+2+3)

3.

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Write short note on: (3x3=9)

a)

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Rule of nine in burn{for estimation of BSA}

b)

Stages of wound healing.

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c)

Diagnostic approach for solitary thyroid nodule

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Part `C'

1.

Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)

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a)

Non Union

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b)

Sequestrum

c)

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Osteochondroma

d)

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Colles' Fracture

2.

Classify fracture Neck Femur and Outline the principles of

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Management. (8)

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2014-15

Roll No.

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Student's Name

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Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature

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Course Code: MBS404

Paper ID: 0314106

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General Surgery - I

Part `A'

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Time: 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 15

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Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1

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Which of the following is NOT included in deep

Q.10

Which of the following is/are complication of

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vein thrombosis prophylaxis:

thyroid surgery:

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a)

Early mobilization

a)

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Hypoparathyroidism

b)

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LMWH

b)

RLN injury

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c)

I.V ergotamine

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c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

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Pneumatic compression device

d)

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All of the above

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Q.2

Which of the following laboratory investigation is a

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Q.11

Most common hernias in female:

marker for nutritional status of an individual:

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a)

Inguinal hernia

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a)

Serum Albumin level

b)

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Lumbar hernia

b)

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Serum LDH

c)

Obturator hernia

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c)

Serum Alk phosphatase

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d)

Femoral hernia

d)

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Serum Globulin

Q.12

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A familial form of medullary thyroid carcinoma

Q.3

Which of the following is the goal for anaesthesia:

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(MTC) should be suspected whenever:

a)

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Amnesia and analgesia

a)

The tumor is multifocal

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b)

Unconsciousness

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b)

The tumor is bilateral (foci of tumor are

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c)

Muscle relaxation

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present in both thyroid lobes)

d)

All of the above

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c)

Pathologic examination of the resected
thyroid gland reveals the presence of C-cell

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Q.4

Which of the following is not a complication of

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hyperplasia in areas of the gland adjacent to

blood transfusion:

foci of MTC

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a)

Febrile hemolytic reaction

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d)

All of the above

b)

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Volume overload

c)

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Allergic reaction

P.T.O.

d)

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Dehydration

Q.13

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Which of the following statements describes an ideal
tumor marker:

Q.5

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Which of the following is not a feature of early stage

a)

The ideal tumor marker should be tumor

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in wound healing:

specific; that is, in the normal population or

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a)

Establishment of hemostasis

patients with benign diseases, false-positive

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b)

Inflammatory phase

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test results are rare

c)

Fibroblast migration

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b)

The ideal marker must have a low false-

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d)

Wound contraction

negative rate; that means that all patients

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with a particular type of cancer should test

Q.6

Most common site for venous ulcer:

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positive

a)

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Lateral side of thigh

c)

The circulating level of an ideal tumor

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b)

Medial side of leg

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marker should correlate directly with the

c)

Tip of the toe

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amount of viable tumor and be a measure of

d)

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None of the above

the response to therapy

d)

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All of the above

Q.7

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The estimated crystalloid requirement for the first 24
hrs after burn injury is calculated on the basis of:

Q.14

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The most useful circulating marker for patients with

a)

Patient body weight

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hepatocellular carcinoma is:

b)

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Age of the patient

a)

CA 50

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c)

Weight and body surface area burn

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b)

Levels of vitamin B 12

percentage

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c)

CEA

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d)

Degree of burn

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d)

AFP

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Q.8

Most common neoplasm of parotid gland:

Q.15

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Patients that have acquired immunodeficiency

a)

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Monomorphic adenoma

syndrome are at increased risk for which of the

b)

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Pleomorphic adenoma

following neoplasms:

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c)

Oncocytic adenoma

a)

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Colorectal cancer

d)

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Adenocystic carcinoma

b)

Meningioma.

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c)

Kaposi's sarcoma

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Q.9

Which of the following thyroid malignancy is

d)

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Hepatocellular carcinoma

radiation induced:
a)

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Papillary carcinoma

Q.16

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The commonest deformity seen in CTEV is:

b)

Medullary carcinoma

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a)

Forefoot equines

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c)

Follicular carcinoma

b)

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Equino Varus of Forefoot and Hindfoot

d)

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Anaplastic carcinoma

c)

Calcaneo Valgus of hind foot

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d)

Subluxation of calcaneo cuboid joint

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b)

Remodeling

Q.17

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Histologically tumour osteoid is found in:

c)

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Callus formation

a)

Ewing's Sarcoma

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d)

Consolidation

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b)

Chondrosarcoma

c)

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Osteosarcoma

Q.28

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Dinner fork deformity is a complication of which

d)

Osteiod Osteoma

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fracture:
a)

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Supracondylar fracture humerus

Q.18

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Cubitus varus deformity is due to following

b)

Fracture both bone forearm

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displacement of the distal fragment:

c)

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Scaphoid fracture

a)

Medial displacement and lateral rotation

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d)

Colle's fracture

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b)

Medial displacement and medial rotation

c)

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Posterior displacement and medial tilt

Q.29

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Limb attitude in posterior dislocation hip is:

d)

Posterior displacement and lateral tilt

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a)

Flexion+adduction+internal rotation

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b)

Flexion +abduction+internal rotation

Q.19

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Garden's grading is for the classification of:

c)

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Extension+adduction +internal rotation

a)

Trochanteric fracture

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d)

Extension+abduction +external rotation

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b)

Fracture Calcaneum

c)

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Intra articular fracture of upper end tibia

Q.30

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Most common osteoporotic fracture:

d)

Fracture neck of femur

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a)

Distal radius

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b)

Vertebrae

c)

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Neck of femur d)

Calcaneum

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Q.20

Disc prolapsed at L4 / L5 usually compresses the
nerve root of:
a)

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L 3

b)

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L 4

c)

S 1

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d)

L 5

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Q.21

Pseudo flexion deformity of the hip is caused by:
a)

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Tubercular Arthritis of the hip

b)

Synovitis of the hip

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c)

Iliopsoas abscess

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d)

Trochanteric Bursitis

Q.22

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Most common site of bone and joint tuberculosis is:
a)

Hip

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b)

Knee.

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c)

Spine

d)

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Carpals

Q.23

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Dislocation of the head of the Radius with fracture
of the upper third of the Ulna is known as:
a)

Monteggia fracture dislocation

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b)

Galliazi fracture dislocation

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c)

Garden's Fracture dislocation

d)

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Pott's fracture dislocation


Q.24

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Commonest malignant tumour of the skeletal system
is:
a)

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Osteosarcoma

b)

Ewing's sarcoma

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c)

Secondaries d)

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Chondrosarcoma

Q.25

Volkmann's ischemia is a known complication in:

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a)

Supracondylar fracture of the humerus

b)

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Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus

c)

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Thoracic Outlet syndrome

d)

Raynaud's syndrome

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Q.26

Complete Clawhand is due to paralysis of:
a)

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Ulnar and Medial nerve

b)

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Ulnar and Radial Nerve

c)

Median and Radial Nerve

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d)

Median, Ulnar and Radial Nerve

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Q.27

Last step in the fracture healing is:
a)

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Hematoma formation