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Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2016 MBBS401A General Medicine I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2016 MBBS401A General Medicine I Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022

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MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Course Code: MBS401

Paper ID: 0314101

General Medicine - I

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Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support your answer.


Part 'B'

  1. What are the causes of haematemesis? Discuss the management of a patient with gastrointestinal bleeding. (8)
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  3. Describe clinical features, diagnosis and management of CHF. (8)
  4. Write short notes on: (3x3=9)
    1. Zollinger ellison syndrome
    2. Dumping syndrome
    3. Haematopoetic stem cell
  5. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---


Part 'C'

  1. Mention the hormones secreted by adrenal gland and their function. (8)
  2. Write short notes on: (3x4=12)
    1. Hypercalcemia
    2. Classify dengue
    3. Fatty liver
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    5. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Roll No.

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Student's Signature

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Course Code: MBS401

General Medicine - I

Part 'A'

Time: 30 Minutes

Student's Name

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Invigilator's Signature

Paper ID: 0314101

Max Marks: 15

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.

2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.

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3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.


  1. Stress ulcer seen in burns are:
    1. Curling's ulcer
    2. Cushing's ulcer
    3. Meleney's ulcer
    4. Rodent ulcer
    5. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  2. Helicobactor pylori is not associated with:
    1. Gastrointestinal lymphoma
    2. Gastric cancer
    3. Gastric leiomyoma
    4. Peptic ulcer
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

  3. In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer the patient the site of obstruction is most likely to be:
    1. Antrum
    2. Pylorus
    3. Duodenum
    4. Pyloric canal
    5. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  4. Schatazki's ring is:
    1. Mucosal ring at squamous columnar junction
    2. Muscular ring
    3. Dysphagia is the presenting symptom
    4. Inflammatory stricture
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  5. Barret's oesophagus is diagnosed by:
    1. Squamous metaplasia
    2. Columnar metaplasia
    3. Squamous dysplasia
    4. Columnar dysplasia
    5. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  6. Pulsusbisferiens is best felt in
    1. Carotid artery
    2. Brachial artery
    3. Radial artery
    4. Femoral artery
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  7. In the JVP, "a" waves are absent in:
    1. Atrial fibrillation
    2. Mitral stenosis
    3. Tricuspid atresia
    4. Sick sinus syndrome
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  8. Pulse pressure is:
    1. 1/3 diastolic +1/2 systolic B.P
    2. ½ diastolic + 1/3 systolic B.P
    3. Systolic - diastolic B.P
    4. Diastolic+ ½ systolic B.P
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  9. All of the following are true about s1 except:
    1. Lower frequency than S2
    2. Anterior wall of left ventricle
    3. Posterior wall of left ventricle
    4. Inferior wall of left ventricle
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  10. Troponin-T is a marker of:
    1. Renal disease
    2. Muscular disease
    3. Cirrhosis of liver
    4. Myocardial infarction
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  11. Which of the following condition is associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia:
    1. Sickle cell anemia.
    2. Thalassemia
    3. Fanconi's anemia
    4. Hereditary spherocytosis
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  12. Marasmus condition seen in:
    1. Malnutrition
    2. Infection
    3. Starvation
    4. Tuberculosis
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  13. Which is not a fat soluble vitamin:
    1. Vit. A
    2. Vit. C
    3. Vit. E
    4. Vit. K
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  14. Leukoplakia is a disorder of:
    1. Tongue
    2. Kidney
    3. Liver
    4. Stomach
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  15. Which is a symptom of diabetes:
    1. Polyuria
    2. Weight gain
    3. Diarrhea
    4. Pain
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  16. Amoebiasis is caused by:
    1. Plasmodium
    2. Trypanosoma
    3. E. histolytica
    4. Hepatitis-A virus
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  17. Megaloblastic anemia may be caused by all the following except:
    1. Phenytoin
    2. Methotrexate
    3. Pyrimethamine
    4. Amoxycilline
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  18. All are the features of hemolytic anemia except:
    1. Thrombocytopenia
    2. Hemosiderinuria
    3. Decreased haptoglobin
    4. Raised indirect bilirubin
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  19. Primaquine may cause hemolysis in:
    1. G-6-PD deficiency
    2. NADP deficiency
    3. Methemoglobinreductase deficiency
    4. Crabb's disease
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  20. True about aplastic anemia is all except:
    1. Splenomegaly
    2. Reticulocytopenia
    3. Thrombocytopenia
    4. Neutropenia
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  21. 5-nucleotidase activity is increased in:
    1. Bone disease
    2. Prostate cancer
    3. Chronic renal failure
    4. Cholestatic disorder
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  22. The first virological marker following acute infection with HBV is:
    1. HBsAg
    2. Anti HBsAg
    3. IgMantiHBcAg
    4. AntiHBe Ag
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  23. Chronic liver disease is the most commonly caused by:
    1. Hepatitis B
    2. Hepatitis C
    3. Hepatitis A
    4. Hepatitis E
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  24. Features of alcoholic hepatitis includes all of the following except:
    1. Elevated bilirubin
    2. Prolonged prothrombin time
    3. Elevated serum albumin
    4. Anemia
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  25. In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction with portal system is in the:
    1. Hepatic vein
    2. Post sinusoidal
    3. Extra-hepatic portal system
    4. Sinusoids
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  26. Which of the following autosomal dominant:
    1. Achondroplasia
    2. Hemochromatosis
    3. Wilson's disease
    4. Cystic fibrosis
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  27. Memory impairment is most commonly to occurred in:
    1. Down syndrome
    2. Alkaptonuria
    3. Attention deficit disorder
    4. Conduct disorder
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  28. Most common trisomy among following is:

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