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DUET 2019 MSc Zoology Previous Queston Papers

Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2019 MSc Zoology Previous Queston Papers

This post was last modified on 19 June 2020

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DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

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DU MSc Zoology

Topic:- DU_J19_MSC_ZOO

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Which of the following statements regarding Simple Tagged Sequences (STS) is FALSE? [Question ID = 1291]
1. Two or more clones containing the same STS must overlap and the overlap must include the STS [Option ID = 5163]
2. Short region of DNA about 20-30 bases long whose exact sequence is found nowhere else in the genome [Option ID = 5162]
3. An STS marker can be used as a hybridization probe [Option ID = 5164]
4. The concept of sequence-tagged sites was developed by Olson et al. [Option ID = 5161]
Correct Answer :-
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• The concept of sequence-tagged sites was developed by Olson et al. [Option ID = 5161]
Which of the following vitamins is essential for proper blood coagulation? [Question ID = 1301]
1. Vit E [Option ID = 5203]
2. Vit A [Option ID = 5201]
3. Vit B [Option ID = 5202]
4. Vit K [Option ID = 5204]
Correct Answer :-

• Vit A [Option ID = 5201]
Which of the following electrophoresis techniques does use isoelectric focussing? [Question ID = 1284]
1. PFGE [Option ID = 5135]
2. 2D-PAGE [Option ID = 5136]
3. AGE [Option ID = 5133]
4. SDS-PAGE [Option ID = 5134]
Correct Answer :-

• AGE [Option ID = 5133]
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a hormone ? [Question ID = 1300]
1. Produced and secreted by exocrine glands [Option ID = 5198]
2. Found in low concentration in blood [Option ID = 5200]
3. Carried in the blood to target tissues [Option ID = 5197]
4. React with specific receptor molecules [Option ID = 5199]
Correct Answer :-

• Carried in the blood to target tissues [Option ID = 5197]
Which of the following groups of proteins has the highest solubility? [Question ID = 1225]
1. Structural proteins with transmembrane domain [Option ID = 4898]
2. Globular proteins [Option ID = 4897]
3. Proteins with more tryptophan [Option ID = 4899]
4. Prenylated proteins [Option ID = 4900]
Correct Answer :-

• Globular proteins [Option ID = 4897]

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Which of the following is balancing organ? [Question ID = 1249]
1. Eardrum [Option ID = 4996]
2. Vestibular region [Option ID = 4995]
3. Cochlea [Option ID = 4994]
4. Organ of corti [Option ID = 4993]
Correct Answer :-
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• Organ of corti [Option ID = 4993]
Which of the following is not required while doing PCR? [Question ID = 1293]
1. ddNTPs [Option ID = 5172]
2. Taq Polymerase [Option ID = 5170]
3. dNTPs [Option ID = 5171]
4. Buffer [Option ID = 5169]
Correct Answer :-

• Buffer [Option ID = 5169]
Which of the following is the most appropriate physiological reason of restriction endonuclease existence? [Question ID = 1285]
1. To assist in molecular diagnosis by techniques like RFLP [Option ID = 5139]
2. To manipulate genes on DNA molecule [Option ID = 5137]
3. For gene cloning and construct restriction maps [Option ID = 5138]
4. To prevent entry of foreign genetic material [Option ID = 5140]
Correct Answer :-

• To manipulate genes on DNA molecule [Option ID = 5137]
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Which types of cells have MHC class II molecules that present processed antigens to bacterial pathogens? [Question ID = 1292]
1. Helper T cells [Option ID = 5167]
2. Macrophages [Option ID = 5168]
3. Cytotoxic T cells [Option ID = 5166]
4. B cells [Option ID = 5165]
Correct Answer :-

• B cells [Option ID = 5165]
Which of these principles is NOT central to the laws and guidelines governing the use of animals in research? [Question ID = 1279]
1. Animal should be kept in its natural habitat [Option ID = 5115]
2. Use of that animal in experiment must be proven necessary [Option ID = 5116]
3. Proper anesthetization [Option ID = 5113]
4. Killing of animal as soon as experiment is over [Option ID = 5114]
Correct Answer :-

• Proper anesthetization [Option ID = 5113]

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Which one of the following features does maximally contribute to the fidelity to DNA polymerases? [Question ID = 1288]
1. Processivity [Option ID = 5150]
2. Polymerase activity 5' - 3' [Option ID = 5149]
3. Nucleotide supply [Option ID = 5151]
4. Proofreading activity 3'- 5' [Option ID = 5152]
Correct Answer :-
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• Polymerase activity 5' - 3' [Option ID = 5149]
Deamination of bases is a common chemical event that produces spontaneous mutation. Which of the following bases will be formed by deamination of 5-methylcytocine? [Question ID = 1299]
1. Cytosine [Option ID = 5195]
2. Thymine [Option ID = 5194]
3. Uracil [Option ID = 5193]
4. Guanine [Option ID = 5196]
Correct Answer :-

• Uracil [Option ID = 5193]
Insulin receptors are [Question ID = 1247]
1. G protein [Option ID = 4987]
2. Trimeric protein [Option ID = 4988]
3. Tetrameric protein [Option ID = 4986]
4. Extrinsic protein [Option ID = 4985]
Correct Answer :-

Extrinsic protein [Option ID = 4985]
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Insulin promotes [Question ID = 1256]
1. Glycogenesis [Option ID = 5022]
2. Glycogenolysis [Option ID = 5023]
3. Gluconeogenesis [Option ID = 5024]
4. Glucosuria [Option ID = 5021]
Correct Answer :-

• Glucosuria [Option ID = 5021]
Rho factor which is responsible for termination of transcription DOES NOT have the following characteristic? [Question ID = 1278]
1. Induces a confirmation change in polymerase [Option ID = 5112]
2. Is hexamer and ring shaped [Option ID = 5109]
3. Pulls RNA out of the polymerase [Option ID = 5111]
4. Is ATP-independent [Option ID = 5110]
Correct Answer :-

• Is hexamer and ring shaped [Option ID = 5109]

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Male to male transmission is a key feature of which of the following patterns of inheritance? [Question ID = 1217]
1. X-linked dominant [Option ID = 4867]
2. X-linked recessive [Option ID = 4868]
3. Autosomal recessive [Option ID = 4866]
4. Autosomal dominant [Option ID = 4865]
Correct Answer :-
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• Autosomal dominant [Option ID = 4865]
Contractile unit of muscle is the portion of myofibril between [Question ID = 1316]
1. 'A' and 'H' band [Option ID = 5261]
2. Two adjacent Z-lines [Option ID = 5263]
3. Z-line and A-band [Option ID = 5262]
4. A-band and I-band [Option ID = 5264]
Correct Answer :-

• 'A' and 'H' band [Option ID = 5261]
Fatty acid synthesis and degradation are [Question ID = 1229]
1. Both are different pathways [Option ID = 4935]
2. Both produce malonyl CoA [Option ID = 4936]
3. Forward and reverse direction of the same pathway [Option ID = 4933]
4. Both produce long fatty acids [Option ID = 4934]
Correct Answer :-

• Forward and reverse direction of the same pathway [Option ID = 4933]
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At isoelectric pH the charge on protein is [Question ID = 1228]
1. Negative charge [Option ID = 4911]
2. No charge [Option ID = 4909]
3. Positive charge [Option ID = 4910]
4. Zero as net charge [Option ID = 4912]
Correct Answer :-

• No charge [Option ID = 4909]
What is the role of a transport protein in facilitated diffusion? [Question ID = 1305]
1. They provide a site for ATP hydrolysis to facilitate movement [Option ID = 5220]
2. They provide the energy for diffusion of solute [Option ID = 5217]
3. They provide low-resistance channels for water molecules to cross [Option ID = 5219]
4. They provide a hydrophilic route to cross the membrane [Option ID = 5218]
Correct Answer :-

• They provide the energy for diffusion of solute [Option ID = 5217]

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The part of nephron which is virtually impermeable to water is [Question ID = 1307]
1. Distal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 5228]
2. Proximal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 5225]
3. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle [Option ID = 5227]
4. Descending limb of the loop of Henle [Option ID = 5226]
Correct Answer :-
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• Proximal convoluted tubule [Option ID = 5225]
The hormone testosterone is produced by [Question ID = 1220]
1. Melanocyte [Option ID = 4879]
2. Leydig cells [Option ID = 4877]
3. Pancreas [Option ID = 4880]
4. Spermatocyte [Option ID = 4878]
Correct Answer :-

• Leydig cells [Option ID = 4877]
Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by mutation in [Question ID = 1221]
1. Haemoglobin A [Option ID = 4881]
2. Haemoglobin F [Option ID = 4884]
3. Haemoglobin S [Option ID = 4883]
4. Haemoglobin B [Option ID = 4882]
Correct Answer :-

• Haemoglobin A [Option ID = 4881]
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A differentiated cell normally remains arrested at what stage of the cell cycle? [Question ID = 1304]
1. G1 [Option ID = 5214]
2. S [Option ID = 5216]
3. G0 [Option ID = 5213]
4. G2 [Option ID = 5215]
Correct Answer :-

• GO [Option ID = 5213]
During synthesis of ATP in mitochondria, phosphate group is provided by [Question ID = 1226]
1. Kinases which play major role of protein phosphorylation in cell [Option ID = 4903]
2. ATP, ADP and kinases in order of preference [Option ID = 4904]
3. Another ATP in which phosphate group is very reactive [Option ID = 4901]
4. Inorganic phosphate [Option ID = 4902]
Correct Answer :-

• Another ATP in which phosphate group is very reactive [Option ID = 4901]

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The predominant antibody isotype released during primary immune response is [Question ID = 1261]
1. IgG [Option ID = 5042]
2. IgT [Option ID = 5043]
3. IgM [Option ID = 5041]
4. IgA [Option ID = 5044]
Correct Answer :-
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• IgM [Option ID = 5041]
In a logistic growth curve, the exponential growth is a phase in which the population [Question ID = 1277]
1. Growth begins to slow down [Option ID = 5107]
2. Growth stops [Option ID = 5108]
3. Grows quickly and few animals are dying [Option ID = 5106]
4. Reaches carrying capacity [Option ID = 5105]
Correct Answer :-

• Reaches carrying capacity [Option ID = 5105]
In a diagnostic laboratory a technician prepared plastic assay plates for ELISA by coating a solution of the antigen, gp120 (a glycoprotein derived from the human immunodeficiency virus, the etiologic agent of AIDS), to the plastic surface. Several samples of serum from suspected infected individuals were tested for the presence of antibodies to gp120. When the assay was performed, all the test samples were positive, including control samples that were known not to contain anti-gp120 antibodies. What explanation best fits the facts? [Question ID = 1297]
1. Labeled anti-immunoglobulin was not added [Option ID = 5187]
2. The technician put too much antigen on the plates [Option ID = 5186]
3. The technician forgot to "block" the plates with a control protein [Option ID = 5185]
4. The fluorescent labeling compound got dissociated from the labeled antibody [Option ID = 5188]
Correct Answer :-

• The technician forgot to "block" the plates with a control protein [Option ID = 5185]
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In a randomly arranged DNA sequence, the probability of restriction digestion by BamHI with 6bp recognition sequence will be [Question ID = 1286]
1. Approx. every 16bp [Option ID = 5143]
2. Approx. every 256bp [Option ID = 5142]
3. Approx. every 436bp [Option ID = 5144]
4. Approx. every 4096bp [Option ID = 5141]
Correct Answer :-

• Approx. every 4096bp [Option ID = 5141]
In a highly outbred populations, such as humans, point mutations are NOT considered to be SNPs only if - [Question ID = 1290]
1. the least abundant allele has a frequency of less than 1% [Option ID = 5160]
2. the least abundant allele has a frequency of 1% or more [Option ID = 5159]
3. the least abundant allele has a frequency of 40% or more [Option ID = 5157]
4. the least abundant allele has a frequency of 10% or more [Option ID = 5158]
Correct Answer :-

• the least abundant allele has a frequency of 40% or more [Option ID = 5157]

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Antiporters are cotransporters that transport [Question ID = 1270]
1. Cations and anions in the opposite direction. [Option ID = 5078]
2. Glucose against its concentration gradient. [Option ID = 5080]
3. Small molecules and gases in the same direction. [Option ID = 5077]
4. Na+ ions and glucose against the concentration gradient. [Option ID = 5079]
Correct Answer:-
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• Small molecules and gases in the same direction. [Option ID = 5077]
How do you isolate mitochondria? [Question ID = 1245]
1. Size fractionation [Option ID = 4978]
2. Isothermal PCR [Option ID = 4980]
3. Affinity Chromatography [Option ID = 4979]
4. Differential density centrifugation [Option ID = 4977]
Correct Answer :-

• Differential density centrifugation [Option ID = 4977]
'Pearl mother layer'(strong, resilient, and iridescent) in mollusk is [Question ID = 1258]
1. Prismatic layer [Option ID = 5029]
2. Nacre [Option ID = 5032]
3. Mantle [Option ID = 5031]
4. Periostracum [Option ID = 5030]
Correct Answer :-

• Prismatic layer [Option ID = 5029]
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The process of finding relative location of genes on a chromosome is called [Question ID = 1265]
1. Genome mapping [Option ID = 5058]
2. Genome walking [Option ID = 5059]
3. Chromosome walking [Option ID = 5060]
4. Gene tracing [Option ID = 5057]
Correct Answer :-

• Gene tracing [Option ID = 5057]
The protection against smallpox afforded by prior infection with cowpox represents [Question ID = 1266]
1. Passive protection [Option ID = 5064]
2. Innate immunity [Option ID = 5063]
3. Antigenic cross-reactivity [Option ID = 5062]
4. Antigenic specificity [Option ID = 5061]
Correct Answer :-

• Antigenic specificity [Option ID = 5061]

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If cardiolipin biosynthesis decreases in eukaryotic cells [Question ID = 1273]
1. The potential would remain at 140 mV [Option ID = 5091]
2. ADP would be imported into the matrix [Option ID = 5092]
3. ATP synthesis would be unaffected [Option ID = 5089]
4. The function of the ETC would be affected adversely [Option ID = 5090]
Correct Answer :-
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• ATP synthesis would be unaffected [Option ID = 5089]
During electrophoresis of DNA fragments of same sizes, which types of bases, will migrate faster? [Question ID = 1283]
1. Nicked circular DNA [Option ID = 5130]
2. Single stranded DNA [Option ID = 5131]
3. Double stranded DNA [Option ID = 5132]
4. Supercoiled circular DNA [Option ID = 5129]
Correct Answer :-

• Supercoiled circular DNA [Option ID = 5129]
Lowry's method is used to measure [Question ID = 1244]
1. Protein [Option ID = 4975]
2. DNA [Option ID = 4973]
3. Lipids [Option ID = 4976]
4. RNA [Option ID = 4974]
Correct Answer :-

• DNA [Option ID = 4973]
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The ability of the immune system to recognize self antigens versus non-self antigen is an example of [Question ID = 1237]
1. Tolerance [Option ID = 4946]
2. Specific immunity [Option ID = 4945]
3. Humoral immunity [Option ID = 4948]
4. Cell mediated immunity [Option ID = 4947]
Correct Answer :-

• Specific immunity [Option ID = 4945]
Disulfide bond can be broken by [Question ID = 1231]
1. Adding dithiothreitol [Option ID = 4923]
2. Adding hydrogen peroxide [Option ID = 4924]
3. Heating the protein at 50 degree C [Option ID = 4921]
4. Adding NaCl to the protein solution [Option ID = 4922]
Correct Answer :-

• Heating the protein at 50 degree C [Option ID = 4921]

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Antigenic determinants of an antigen that are recognized by antibody are [Question ID = 1254]
1. Isotopes [Option ID = 5015]
2. Paratopes [Option ID = 5013]
3. Non-determinants [Option ID = 5016]
4. Epitopes [Option ID = 5014]
Correct Answer :-
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• Paratopes [Option ID = 5013]
In which of the following animals, the heart does not have the left and right auricles? [Question ID = 1309]
1. Lizards and Snakes [Option ID = 5247]
2. Cartilaginous and bony fishes [Option ID = 5245]
3. Frogs and Toads [Option ID = 5246]
4. Crocodiles and alligators [Option ID = 5248]
Correct Answer :-

• Cartilaginous and bony fishes [Option ID = 5245]
MHC class I molecules are important for which of the following? [Question ID = 1296]
1. Binding to CD8 molecules on T cells [Option ID = 5181]
2. Binding to CD4 molecules on T cells [Option ID = 5184]
3. Presenting viral protein to antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages [Option ID = 5183]
4. Presenting exogenous antigen (e.g., bacterial protein) to B cells [Option ID = 5182]
Correct Answer :-

• Binding to CD8 molecules on T cells [Option ID = 5181]
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Epiboly occurs in the [Question ID = 1282]
1. Macromeres only [Option ID = 5126]
2. Bottle cells [Option ID = 5128]
3. Micromeres only [Option ID = 5125]
4. Micromeres and macromeres both [Option ID = 5127]
Correct Answer :-

• Micromeres only [Option ID = 5125]
Cholesterol is a complex lipid and vital precursor of the following EXCEPT [Question ID = 1255]
1. bile salts [Option ID = 5019]
2. insulin [Option ID = 5020]
3. vitamin D [Option ID = 5018]
4. sex hormones [Option ID = 5017]
Correct Answer :-

• sex hormones [Option ID = 5017]

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The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus nonself-antigen is an example of: [Question ID = 1308]
1. Specific immunity [Option ID = 5229]
2. Tolerance [Option ID = 5230]
3. Humoral immunity [Option ID = 5232]
4. Cell mediated immunity [Option ID = 5231]
Correct Answer :-
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• Specific immunity [Option ID = 5229]
The storage carbohydrate in an animal cell is: [Question ID = 1222]
1. Glycogen [Option ID = 4887]
2. Glucose [Option ID = 4888]
3. Cellulose [Option ID = 4886]
4. Starch [Option ID = 4885]
Correct Answer :-

• Starch [Option ID = 4885]
Name the animal phylum which has NO representatives in freshwater habitats [Question ID = 1260]
1. Coelenterata [Option ID = 5037]
2. Mollusca [Option ID = 5040]
3. Porifera [Option ID = 5038]
4. Echinodermata [Option ID = 5039]
Correct Answer :-

• Coelenterata [Option ID = 5037]
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Name the mosquito-borne disease caused by a viral pathogen [Question ID = 1253]
1. Leishmaniasis [Option ID = 5012]
2. Japanese encephalitis [Option ID = 5011]
3. Filariasis [Option ID = 5009]
4. Epidemic Typhus [Option ID = 5010]
Correct Answer :-

• Filariasis [Option ID = 5009]
In metabolic pathways, methyl group is donated by [Question ID = 1230]
1. Methane [Option ID = 4919]
2. Methylated fatty acid [Option ID = 4920]
3. S-adenosyl methionine [Option ID = 4917]
4. Methionine [Option ID = 4918]
Correct Answer :-

• S-adenosyl methionine [Option ID = 4917]

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What is the function of GLUT4? [Question ID = 1248]
1. Glycogen transport [Option ID = 4990]
2. Insulin transport [Option ID = 4991]
3. Glucagon transport [Option ID = 4992]
4. Glucose transport [Option ID = 4989]
Correct Answer :-
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• Glucose transport [Option ID = 4989]
Eustachian tube is present between [Question ID = 1257]
1. Inner ear and larynx [Option ID = 5028]
2. Middle ear and larynx [Option ID = 5025]
3. Outer ear and pharynx [Option ID = 5026].
4. Middle ear and pharynx [Option ID = 5027]
Correct Answer :-
• Middle ear and larynx [Option ID = 5025]
Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called [Question ID = 1264]
1. Sequential design [Option ID = 5054]
2. Procedure [Option ID = 5055]
3. Algorithm [Option ID = 5056]
4. Flowchart [Option ID = 5053]
Correct Answer :-

• Flowchart [Option ID = 5053]
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A nonsense mutation involves [Question ID = 1224]
1. An AG splice acceptor site [Option ID = 4894]
2. The creation of a stop codon [Option ID = 4896]
3. The creation of a different amino acid [Option ID = 4895]
4. A regulatory sequence [Option ID = 4893]
Correct Answer :-

• A regulatory sequence [Option ID = 4893]
Schizocoelic phyla are [Question ID = 1313]
1. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca [Option ID = 5251]
2. Arthropoda, Mollusca and Echinodermata [Option ID = 5252]
3. Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes and Annelida [Option ID = 5250]
4. Protozoa, Porifera, Cnidarians, and Platyhelminthes [Option ID = 5249]
Correct Answer :-

• Protozoa, Porifera, Cnidarians, and Platyhelminthes [Option ID = 5249]

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Identify the statement that is TRUE for Coenzyme Q [Question ID = 1272]
1. It is not a protein bound prosthetic group [Option ID = 5088]
2. Contains Fe bonded to inorganic S atoms and S atoms on cysteine residues of proteins [Option ID = 5086]
3. Accepts and releases electrons one at a time [Option ID = 5087]
4. It is a prosthetic groups of succinate-coenzyme Q reductase complex [Option ID = 5085]
Correct Answer :-
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• It is a prosthetic groups of succinate-coenzyme Q reductase complex [Option ID = 5085]
An enzyme that can cleave and join DNA molecule [Question ID = 1241]
1. Gyrase [Option ID = 4961]
2. DNA polymerase [Option ID = 4963]
3. Primase [Option ID = 4964]
4. DNA ligase [Option ID = 4962]
Correct Answer :-

• Gyrase [Option ID = 4961]
Amino acids are transferred by tRNA for protein synthesis and each amino acid has [Question ID = 1233]
1. tRNA not involved for each amino acid [Option ID = 4931]
2. Multiple tRNA for most amino acids [Option ID = 4932]
3. Same tRNA that carries all amino acids [Option ID = 4930]
4. Only one tRNA for each amino acid [Option ID = 4929]
Correct Answer :-

• Only one tRNA for each amino acid [Option ID = 4929]
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During an equilibrium density gradient centrifugation when the density of liquid equals to the density of sedimenting particle, the particle will [Question ID = 1311]
1. Move randomly in the tube [Option ID = 5244]
2. Start moving towards top of the centrifuge tube [Option ID = 5243]
3. Continue moving towards the bottom of the centrifuge tube [Option ID = 5242]
4. Not move at all [Option ID = 5241]
Correct Answer :-

• Not move at all [Option ID = 5241]
During assembly of intermediate filaments the polarity is lost when [Question ID = 1268]
1. Dimers form tetramers [Option ID = 5070]
2. Dimers are formed [Option ID = 5072]
3. Tetramers form protofilaments [Option ID = 5069]
4. Protofibrils are assembled [Option ID = 5071]
Correct Answer :-

• Tetramers form protofilaments [Option ID = 5069]

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Frog oocytes do not swell in hypotonic solutions. The most plausible explanation for this is the absence of [Question ID = 1271]
1. Na+ channels [Option ID = 5083]
2. Na+ K+ ATPase [Option ID = 5081]
3. Aquaporins [Option ID = 5082]
4. K+ channels [Option ID = 5084]
Correct Answer :-
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• Na+ K+ ATPase [Option ID = 5081]
Choose the INCORRECT statement [Question ID = 1235]
1. An ecosystems's energy budget depends on primary productivity [Option ID = 4939]
2. Red data book compiles data on extinct species [Option ID = 4940]
3. This a narrow vertical zone of rapid temperature change is called thermocline [Option ID = 4938]
4. Coral reefs constitute the most diverse and productive biomes on earth [Option ID = 4937]
Correct Answer :-

• Coral reefs constitute the most diverse and productive biomes on earth [Option ID = 4937]
In a Robertsonian translocation, fusion occurs at the [Question ID = 1218]
1. Ends of the long arms [Option ID = 4872]
2. Histones [Option ID = 4871]
3. Telomeres [Option ID = 4869]
4. Centromeres [Option ID = 4870]
Correct Answer :-

• Telomeres [Option ID = 4869]
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This post was last modified on 19 June 2020