Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 1030 Microbiology Paper I 2022 Feb Question Paper

QP CODE: 1030

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Mar-2022

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

MICROBIOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1030

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 23 year old male patient from an endemic area came to the OPD with complaints of intermittent fever with chills and rigors, for the past 3 days. There was intense sweating following each fever episode. On examination he was febrile with temperature of 101°F and had mild Splenomegaly. Peripheral smear study shows the presence of parasites inside RBC's
   1. Name the causative agent and the vector
   2. Describe the life cycle of the causative agent
   3. Write the pathogenicity of the causative agent

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   4. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the causative agent
2. An adult patient was admitted in the hospital 5 days after a traumatic wound which was severely contaminated. The local muscles appeared to be crushed there was edema blackening and pain at the site. On examination, crepitus was felt at the site of injury
   1. What is the clinical diagnosis and the causative agent
   2. Name four spore bearing anaerobes
   3. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition

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   4. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a bacterial cell and write one function of each component
4. Mention the various disinfectants used in hospitals and their uses

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5. Define immunity. Describe active immunity in detail
6. Describe the principle, types and applications of ELISA
7. Laboratory diagnosis of bacillary dysentery
8. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever
9. Opportunistic infections in HIV patients

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10. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Modes of transmission of hepatitis B infection
12. Name three live vaccine and three killed vaccines
13. Draw a labelled diagram of immunoglobulin M (IgM)

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14. Name three bacteria causing infective endocarditis
15. Reynauld Braude phenomenon
16. Name three viruses causing gastroenteritis
17. Mention three extra intestinal manifestations of amoebiasis
18. Antibiotic associated diarrhoea

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19. List the suppurative and non suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes
20. Name viruses causing skin rashes

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. Who is considered as the father of antiseptic surgery?
    1. Louis pastuer
    2. Robert Koch

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    3. Edward Jenner
    4. Joseph Lister
22. The example of selective media
    1. Nutrient agar
    2. Blood agar

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    3. Thiosulphate citrate bile salt sucrose agar
    4. Chocolate agar
23. The following methods of diagnosis utilize labelled antibodies except
    1. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
    2. Radioimmunoassay

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    3. Haemagglutination inhibition test
    4. Immunofluorescence
24. All of these are major antigen presenting cells except
    1. T cells
    2. B cells

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    3. Dendritic cells
    4. Macrophages
25. A patient coming from Himachal Pradesh presents with multiple skin lesion. Microscopy reveals cigar shaped yeast cells and asteroid bodies. Microscopy of culture shows flower like pattern. Identify the agent
    1. Candida albicans
    2. Sporothrix schenkii

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    3. Epidermophyton
    4. Rhizopus species

22. Sclerotic bodies are seen in
    1. Mucormucosis
    2. Aspergillus

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    3. Rhinosporidiosis
    4. Chromoblastomycosis
23. Serological testing of a patient complaining of jaundice for 6 months revealed HbsAg (+ve) anti Hbs (-ve) anti HBcIgG (+ve) aHbeAg (+ve) and anti Hbe (-ve) The provisional diagnosis is
    1. Acute hepatitis with high infectivity
    2. Acute hepatitis with low infectivity

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    3. Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity
    4. Chronic hepatitis with low infectivity
24. Food poisoning within 4-6 hours of intake of food indicates presence of toxin of
    1. Staphyloccus aureus
    2. Clostridium perfringens

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    3. Salmonella typhimurium
    4. V. cholerae
25. Leishmania donovani can be cultivated in
    1. Blood agar
    2. NNN medium

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    3. Diamonds medium
    4. RPMI medium
26. The gene coding for core of HIV is
    1. Gag
    2. Env

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    3. Pol
    4. Tat

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