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Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 1026 Pathology Paper I 2022 May Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences Karnataka) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 1026 Pathology Paper I 2022 May Previous Question Paper | MBBS

This post was last modified on 20 February 2023

RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences)


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QP CODE : 1026

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

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MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 05-May-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1026

(QP contains two pages)

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Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. 32 year male sustained fracture of femur due to an accident. Two days later he developed sudden tachypnea, tachycardia and died on 7th day.
    1. What is the diagnosis?
    2. Pathogenesis of the lesion
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    4. How frozen sections would help in the diagnosis?
  2. 49 year old male presented with an ulcerated pigmented nodule on the foot with an inguinal mass.
    1. What is your probable diagnosis?
    2. Describe the mechanism of metastasis
    3. Discuss the routes of spread of tumor
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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

  1. Chemical mediators of acute inflammation.
  2. Define necrosis and write morphological features of various types of necrosis.
  3. Pathological calcification.
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  5. Transfusion reactions.
  6. Hereditary spherocytosis.
  7. Discuss phagocytosis.
  8. Peripheral blood and bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia.
  9. Factors affecting wound healing.
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SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Ghon's complex.
  2. Autophagy with examples.
  3. List three examples for type I hypersensitivity.
  4. Exfoliative cytology.
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  6. Rhinosporidosis.
  7. Urinary casts.
  8. Lardaceous spleen.
  9. Write three relevant laboratory investigations for sickle cell anemia.
  10. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
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  12. Packed cell volume.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

  1. Free radicals are all EXCEPT
    1. Superoxide
    2. Hydrogen peroxide
    3. Hydroxyl
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    5. Calcium

    Key Answer : D. Calcium

  2. All are pigments stainable by Prussian blue EXCEPT
    1. Hemosiderin
    2. Haematin
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    4. Ferritin
    5. Melanin

    Key Answer : D. Melanin

  3. In Alzheimer's disease cerebral plaque consists of
    1. ATTR protein
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    3. Aß2M protein
    4. Aß protein
    5. Prion protein

    Key Answer : C. Aß protein

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  5. Grave's disease is an example for
    1. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
    2. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
    3. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
    4. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

    Key Answer : B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction

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  6. Fungi can be identified by following stains EXCEPT
    1. Silver stain
    2. Giemsa stain
    3. Periodic acid Schiff stain
    4. Mucicarmine stain
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    Key Answer : B. Giemsa stain

  1. In iron deficiency anemia Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) is
    1. Low
    2. High
    3. Normal
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    5. Borderline

    Key Answer : B. High

  2. Aplastic anemia is generally characterized by
    1. Relative neutrophilia
    2. Relative Lymphocytosis
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    4. Reticulocytopenia
    5. Reticulocytosis

    Key Answer : C. Reticulocytopenia

  3. Hemophilia A shows
    1. Factor VIII deficiency
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    3. Factor VI deficiency
    4. Factor IX deficiency
    5. Factor X deficiency

    Key Answer : A. Factor VIII deficiency

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  5. Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) is elevated in
    1. AML
    2. CML
    3. Myeloid sarcoma
    4. Myeloid Leukemoid reaction

    Key Answer: D. Myeloid Leukemoid reaction

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  6. Specific marker for Hairy cell Leukemia is
    1. CD 22
    2. CD 103
    3. CD 5
    4. CD 8
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    Key Answer: B. CD 103



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