Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 1026 Pathology Paper I 2023 Feb Question Paper

QP CODE: 1026

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 04-Feb-2023

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1026

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 12 year boy presented with sudden onset of fever and vomiting with abdominal pain. On palpation there is tenderness at MC Burney's point
   1. What is the probable diagnosis?
   2. Define inflammation? Enumerate cellular events of inflammation
   3. Outcomes of acute inflammation

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2. A 20 year male patient presented with swelling of both knees and pain for the past one week. He gives history of similar episodes earlier. He also gives history of excessive bleeding after minor injuries. His maternal uncle has similar complaints and has been treated by repeated blood transfusions following excessive bleeding episodes
   1. What are the probable differential diagnosis?
   2. What are the laboratory investigations required for the diagnosis?
   3. What is the etiopathogenesis of these disorders?
   4. How will you make the final specific diagnosis?

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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. Opportunistic infections in AIDS
4. Define Amyloidosis? Write the physical and chemical nature of Amyloid and note on special stains
5. Describe the morphology of different types of infarcts with examples

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6. Peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia
7. Describe different types of cellular adaptations to stress with examples
8. Type III hypersensitivity reactions with examples
9. Define and classify anaemia according to aetiology
10. Describe the mechanism and modes of spread of malignant neoplasms

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SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Differences in CSF findings between pyogenic and Tuberculous meningitis
12. Gaucher's disease
13. Virchow's triad
14. Advantages of fine needle aspiration cytology

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15. Name three conditions with raised ESR
16. Primary wound healing
17. Bence-Jones proteins
18. Peripheral smear findings in accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia
19. Mandatory serological test in screening of blood donors

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20. Immediate complications of blood transfusion

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. Which of the following pigment's presence is a telltale sign of free radical injury
    1. Lipofuscin
    2. Melanin
    3. Bilirubin

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    4. Hematin
22. Diapedesis is
    1. Movement of leucocytes in the extra vascular compartment
    2. Immigration of the leucocytes through the vessel wall at the site of inflammation
    3. Aggregation of lymphocytes at the site of bleeding

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    4. Autodigestion of the cells
23. Which of the following organs are heart failure cells seen in
    1. Myocardium
    2. Lungs
    3. Liver

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    4. Spleen
24. White infarct is seen in all EXCEPT
    1. Lungs
    2. Spleen
    3. Kidney

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    4. Heart
25. Correct sequence of cell cycle is
    1. G-M-G2-S-G1
    2. G₀-G1-G2-S-M
    3. G₀-G1-S-G2-M

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    4. G₀-G1-S-M-G₂
26. All of the following are examples of tumour markers EXCEPT
    1. Human chorionic Gonadotropin
    2. Alpha Fetoprotein
    3. Prostate specific antigen

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    4. Cyclin D1
27. Antigen presenting cells present in skin are called
    1. Langerhans cells
    2. Kupffer cells
    3. Microglia

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    4. Melanocytes
28. Which of the following is not true about innate immunity
    1. It is present prior to antigenic exposure
    2. It is relatively non-specific
    3. Memory is seen

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    4. It is the first line of defence
29. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions
    1. Acute lymphoid leukemia
    2. Acute myeloid leukemia
    3. Chronic Myelogenous leukemia

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    4. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
30. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in
    1. Iron deficiency anaemia
    2. Megaloblastic anaemia
    3. Sickle cell anaemia

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    4. Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia

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