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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – II Degree Examination - JULY 2015
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
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Pathology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1081
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
- What is Neoplasia? Classify different Carcinogenic agents with examples. Add a note on Viral Carcinogenesis. (2+4+4= 10 marks)
- A five year old boy presented with Pallor, Jaundice and Failure to Thrive. His Hb was 5gm%, peripheral smear showed Microcytic Hypochromic RBCs and many target cells and Reticulocyte count 8%.
- What is your most probable diagnosis and why?
- What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
- Add a note on laboratory investigations in this case. (2+4+4= 10 marks)
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SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks
- Apoptosis
- Factors affecting Wound Healing
- Obesity
- Microscopic examination of Urine
- Laboratory findings in CML
- Turner syndrome
- Leukemoid reaction
- Von Willebrand disease
- Type III Hypersensitivity reaction
- Pathogenesis of Septic Shock
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SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
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- Give three examples for Metaplasia.
- Name six causes for Eosinophilia.
- Enumerate six causes for Thrombocytopenia.
- Four differences between Transudate and Exudate
- Name the investigations included in Liver Function test.
- CSF Cytology in Tuberculous Meningitis
- Microscopic features of Lepromatous Leprosy
- Functional defect in Neutrophils
- Microalbuminuria
- Causes for Massive Splenomegaly
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