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Download KUHS MBBS 2nd Year 215001 Microbiology Paper I March 2025 Question Paper

Download KUHS (Kerala University Of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year 215001 Microbiology Paper I March 2025 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 23 August 2026

2019 Scheme
Q.P. Code: 215001
Reg. no.: .....................
Second Professional MBBS Degree Supplementary (SAY) Examinations
March 2025

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Microbiology Paper I
Time: 3 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly ? Do not leave any blank pages between answers
Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

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Answer all parts of a single question together ? Leave sufficient space between answers
Draw table/diagrams/flow charts wherever necessary
1. Multiple Choice Questions
(20x1=20)
The MCQ questions (Q.No. i to Q.No. xx) shall be written in the space provided for answering MCQ

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questions at page No. 51 of the answer book (the inner portion of the back cover page (PART III)).
Responses for MCQs marked in any other part/page of the answer book will not be valued
Read the following clinical history and select the most appropriate response for questions (i) -(v)

A 65 year old male with valvular heart disease, presented to the medicine OPD with history of fever, chills,
myalgia and lethargy for last two weeks. He gave a history of under going a dental procedure two weeks ago.

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On examination, he was febrile and tachypneic. On auscultation there was a new onset murmur.
Transesophageal ultrasound showed vegetations on the mitral valve
i. What is the most probable diagnosis
a) infective endocarditis
c) Congestive cardiac failure

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b) Rheumatic heart disease
d) Hemolytic anemia
ii. Which of the following is important for diagnosis
a) Same pathogen isolated from 3 blood culture samples
c) Antibodies to Rheumatoid factor

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b) Antibodies to Antistreptolysin O
d) High levels of troponin
iii. Criteria to be fulfilled for diagnosis of above condition
a) Modified Bence Jones criteria
c) Modified SOFA score

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b) Modified Dukes criteria
d) Amsel's criteria
iv. A fastidious bacteria of zoonotic origin associated with above condition
a) Coxiella burnetti
b) Escherichia coli c) Proteus mirabilis

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d) Candida albicans
v. Commonest agent causing above condition
a) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

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d) Viridans Streptococci
Question numbers (vi)-(x) are multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark the
answers appropriately.

vi. Regarding the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection
1) P24 antigen detection in window period

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2) NACO strategy III is used in blood banks
3) RNA detection by PCR is a confirmatory test
4) Western blot detects antibodies
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct

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vii. Regarding chicken pox,
1) Caused by Herpes simplex virus
2) Rashes are vesicular in nature
3) Air borne transmission present
4) Prevention by vaccination

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a) 2, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 2, 4 are correct c) 1, 2, 3 are correct d) 2 and 4 are correct
viii. Visceral leishmaniasis
1) Transmitted by sand fly
2) Affects the reticuloendothelial system

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3) Diagnostic form is promastigote 4) Effective vaccine is available for humans
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 are correct c) 1, 2, 3 are correct d) 1, 3, are correct
ix. Fungal infection of a nail (Onychomycosis) is caused by
1) Candida species 2) Microsporum species 3) Trichophyton species 4) Epidermophydon species

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a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 1, 4 are correct
d) 2, 4 are correct
x. Characteristics of innate immunity include
1) First line of defense

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2) Active role of T lymphocytes
3) Memory cells are present
4) Compliment system is involved
a) 1, 3 are correct
b) 1, 2 are correct c) 1, 4 are correct

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d) 2, 4 are correct
Question numbers (xi) ? (xv) are single response types
xi. Patient presents with a painless indurated ulcer on the external genitalia for three months, probable
causative agent
a) Treponema pallidum

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c) Molluscum contagiosum
b) Herpes simplex virus
d) Haemophilus ducreyi
xii. Mechanism of resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicim in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is acquired to
a) Plasmid

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b) Mutation
c) Transposon
d) Transduction
(PTO)

xiii. Gas gangrene is commonly caused by

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a) Clostridium perfringens b) Clostridium Tetany c) Clostridium Difficile d) Clostridium botulinum
xiv. Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis has the following criteria
a) Greenish vaginal discharge
b) pH < 4.5
c) Clue cells are seen

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d) Pain and etching
xv. Hand foot mouth disease is by
a) Herpes simplex
b) Coxsackie
c) Rubella

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d) Varicella zoster
Question numbers (xvi) ? (xx) consists of two Statements-Assertion (A) and reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.

xvi. A: Endoscopes are sterilized by autoclave
R: Endoscopes are heat Labine

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a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true
xvii. A: Used syringe is discarded in red liner, infected plastic waste

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R: Waste in red liners are insinerated
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true

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xviii. A: In botulism, the patient presents with blurring of vision and difficulty to sallow
R: The botulinum toxin affects the Parasympathetic nerves
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A

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d) A is false but R is true
xix. A: Hook worm causes iron deficiency anemia
R: Anemia is due to chronic blood loss
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false

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b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true
xx. A: Lymphogranuloma venerum is sexually transmitted infection
R: Lymphogranuloma venerum is transmitted by vectors
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true
Essays

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(2x10=20)
2. A 25 year old pregnant lady attended the out patient department with complaints of fever and pain on
micturition . Urine microscopy revealed plenty of pus cells and bacteria.
a) List the bacterial agents causing urinary tract infections.
b) Write a note on asymptomatic bacteriuria and its significance.

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c)
What are the methods of sample collection in a suspected case of urinary tract infection.
d)
Describe the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection.
e) Name two antibiotics which can be prescribed for this patient

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(1+3+1+2+3)
3. a) Describe the concept of one health with regards to antimicrobial stewarship
b)
List three classes of antibiotics with one example for each class
c) Name three mechanisms of antibiotic resistance in bacteria with one exam

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p l
e f
o r
e
a

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c
h
d) Briefly discuss national action plan for prevention of antimicrobi al resistance
(2+3+3+2)
Short Essays

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(6X6=36)
4. Type III hypersensitivity
5. List four h
o
s

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p i t
a l
a
c
q

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ui
r
e
d
i

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n f
e
c t i
o
n

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s .
D
e
s
cr i

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b
e
ca r
e
b

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u
n
d l
e
p r

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e
v
e
n t i
o

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n

f
o r
a

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n
y
o
n
e of them

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(2+4)
6. Classify immunity. Des
cribe acquired immunity with examples
(2+4)

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7. Enumerate four common etiological agents for viral hemorrhagic fever. Describe the labor at
ory diagnosis
for any one of them.
8. Name the causative agents of enteric fever. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis
(2+4)

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9. A gardner noticed a series of small red ulcerated nodules of 1 cm diameter on the right forearm. She
provides history of having repeated thorn pricks at on the arm. Microscopic e
xaminati on of bi opsy
revealed cigar shaped yeast forms.
a) What is the most likely causative agent of these lesions

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b) Mention the source and risk fa
ctor for this infection
c) Add a note on laboratory diagnosis
(1+1+4)
Short Answers

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(6x4=24)
10. List the two common viral infections transmitted via needlestick injuries. Explain how these injuries can be
prevented
(1+3)

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11. Mycotoxins of medical importance
12. Trichomanas vaginalis
13. What is informed refusal. Describe the importance of appropriate documentation of refusal
(2+2)
14. Human papilloma virus and the role of vaccines

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15. Describe the life cycle of plasmodium falciparum
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