Download KUHS MBBS 2nd Year 216001 Microbiology Paper II March 2025 Question Paper

2019 Scheme
Q.P. Code: 216001
Reg. no.: .....................
Second Professional MBBS Degree Supplementary (SAY) Examinations
March 2025

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Microbiology Paper II
Time: 3 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly ? Do not leave any blank pages between answers
Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

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Answer all parts of a single question together ? Leave sufficient space between answers
Draw table/diagrams/flow charts wherever necessary
1. Multiple Choice Questions
(20x1=20)
The MCQ questions (Q.No. i to Q.No. xx) shall be written in the space provided for answering MCQ

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questions at page No. 51 of the answer book (the inner portion of the back cover page (PART III)).
Responses for MCQs marked in any other part/page of the answer book will not be valued

Read the following clinical history and select the most appropriate response for questions i - v
A 25 year old male presented to the emergency department with history of fever and intense

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headache for the past 4 days and vomiting since two days. On examination patient has signs of
meningitis. Grams stain on the CSF demonstrated gram positive lanceolate displococci
i. What is the probable causative agent for meningitis in this patient
a) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Staphylococcus aureus

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b) Haemophilus influenzae
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
ii. An important virulence factor in this bacterium is
a) Fimbria
b) Endotoxin

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c) Capsule
d) Flagellum
iii. This bacterium escapes immune destruction due to
a) Inhibition of phagocystosis
c) Bile solubility

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b) Production of cyclic AMP
d) Autolysis
iv. The available vaccines are
a) Live attenuated
b) Killed vaccine

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c) Cellular component d) Toxoid
v. Drug of choice for treatment in this patient is
a) Cefuroxime
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Ceftazidime

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d) Cefoxitin
Question numbers vi - x are multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark
the answers appropriately.
vi. Features of paragonimus westermanni infection
1) Consumption of metacercaria 2) Affects the lung 3) A trematode 4) Penetration of skin

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a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
c) 2, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
d) 1, 3 are correct
vii. Pathogens causing loose stools with blood and mucus are

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1) Shigella species
2) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
3) Entamoeba histolytica
4) Balanditium coli
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct

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c) 1, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 2, 4 are correct
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
viii. Autoinfection is noted in
1) Trichruis trichuria

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2) Stronglyloides steroralis
3) Enterobious vermicularis
4) Taenia solium
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
c) 2, 3, 4 are correct

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b) 1, 2, 3 are correct
d) 2, 4 are correct
ix. Opportunistic fungal infections include
1) Invasive aspergillosis
2) Cutaneous dermatophytosis

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3) Rhino-cerebral mucormycosis
4) Cryptococcus meningitis
a) 1, 2, 4 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
b) 1, 3, 4 are correct

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d) 3, 4 are correct
x. Pseudomembranous colitis characteristics are
1) Associated with antibiotic use
2) Toxins of clostridioides difficle
3) Treated with intravenous vancomycin 4) Fecal microbiota transplant is a treatment option

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a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
c) 1, 2 are correct
b) 1, 2, 4 are correct
d) 1, 4 are correct
(PTO)

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---

Question numbers xi ? x
v are single response types
xi. An example for bile stained eggs in the wet mount of stool specime
n

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a) Enterobius vermiculari
s b) Hook wor
m c) Ascaris lumbricoides d) H
Hymenolepis.
xii

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. Residents from a slum, develop fever on and off followed by jaundice after recent floods. The
most probable zoonotic infection i
s
a) Enteric fever
c) Enterically transmitted hepatiti

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s
b) Leptospirosi
s
d) Yellow feve
r

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xiii
. Most common cause for vaccine preventable, vector borne encephalitis among children in Asi
a
a) Herpes simplex encephaliti

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s
c) Rabies encephalitis
b) Dengue encephaliti
s
d) Japanese B encephaliti

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s
xiv. A 32 year old was admitted with features of severe dehydration following loose stools, rice
water in nature, for the past two days. Hanging drop examination of the stool was positive for
darting motility. Name the enrichment medium used to transport the stool sampl
e

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a) Thioglycollate brot
h
c) Alkaline peptone water
b) Selenite F broth
d) Amies mediu

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m
xv. The viral causative agent of gastroenteritis, for which an effective vaccine is available is
a) Noroviru
s
b) Adenoviru

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s
c) Rotaviru
s
d
) Astroviru

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s
Question numbers xvi ? xx consists of two Statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below
.
xvi. A: Naegleria fowleri causes secondary amoebic

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meningo encephalitis
R: The free living amoeba enters the central nervous system through the nose and
cribriform
plate.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of

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A
c) A is true but R is fals
e
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of
A

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d) A is false but R is tru
e
xvii
. A: Beta lactam antibiotics do not act against Chlamydiae pneumonia
e

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R: Chlamydiae pneumonia lacks a cell wal
l
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
c) A is true but R is fals

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e
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of
A
d) A is false but R is tru
e

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xviii
. A: Bacterial meningitis due to Haemophilus influenza, among children is preventabl
e
R: A live attenuated vaccine is invluded in the National immunization schedul
e

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
c) A is true but R is fals
e
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of

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A
d) A is false but R is tru
e
xix. A: Acute rheumati
c fever is one of the sequelae of sore throat caused by Streptococcus

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pyogene
s
R: The patient will require prophylaxis with penicillin to prevent rheumatic heart disea
se
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of

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A
c) A is true but R is fals
e
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true

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xx. A: Influenza viruses are responsible for pandemics over the years
R: Antigenic shift is common is these viruses
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

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d) A is false but R is true
Essays

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(2x10=20)
2. A 40-year-old previously healthy adult, presented to the medicine outpatient department with
malaise, fatigue, low grade fever, nausea and aversion to food. She complains of itching all over

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the body. She provides history of multiple blood transfusions following a road traffic accident
eight months ago. The anti HBc IgM was positive. AST and ALT (Liver enzymes) were elevated
a) What is the probable clinical diagnosis
b) What is the source of infection in this patient. Name other modes of transmission of this
infectious agent.

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c) Enumerate the serological markers in different phases of this infection, support with
appropriate diagrams.
d) Write on a note on prevention of this infection
(1+3+3+3)
(PTO)

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3. 35-year-old male came to the surgery out-patient department with vague abdominal discomfort
and intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past four months. On examination, there
is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and hepatomegaly. Ultrasound examination of the
abdomen revealed a large, well defined cystic lesion in the right lobe of the liver. The patient has

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no significant history in the past. He has a fondness for stray dogs in his neighborhood.
a) What is the probable diagnosis.
b) Describe the life cycle of the etiological agent and name the intermediate host in the life
cycle
c) Name two organs other than liver where these cysts can occur

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d) Describe the treatment options for this patient
e) Add a note on prevention of this infection
(1+4+1+2+2)

Short Essays (6x6=36)

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4. A 25 year old presented to the emergency with breathlessness, cough and fever since five days.
The CT of the chest revealed bilateral ground glass opacities. A working diagnosis of viral
pneumonia was made and samples were sent for confirmation of the etiological agent.
a) What are the samples to be collected and tests performed for confirming the diagnosis of
COVID-19

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(1+2)
b) What are the precautions to be taken for sample collection. Add a note on transmission based
precautions in the community.
(1+2)
5. Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera.

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(1+5)
6. A 35 year male presented with cough, fever since the past three weeks and weight loss. Blood
counts were normal with raised ESR. Chest x-ray showed right upper lobe consolidation.
a) What is the clinical diagnosis and probable causative agent.
b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis with special emphasis on rapid diagnostic methods.

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(2+4)
7. List four parasites causing lesions in the brain. Describe the life cycle of any one of them.
(2+4)
8. List four bacterial zoonotic infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them (2+4)
9. A biopsy was taken from a patient, clinically diagnosed with acid peptic disease, during

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endoscopy.
a) Name the site from where the biopsy most likely was taken.
b) Name the etiological agent and list two mechanisms by which the agent can produce this
condition.
c) Describe a rapid test done on the biopsy material for the above etiological agent. (1+3+2)

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Short Answers (6x4=24)
10. Prevention of transmission of HIV from mother to child.
11. Rabies vaccines.
12. A CSF sample did not reach the laboratory. Discuss the impact on patient care and how this can
be prevented.

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13. Name the most common yeast causing meningitis in a HIV positive patient. Name a special stain
used for its detection in CSF sample. Draw a neat labelled diagram of its appearance under the
microscope using the special stain. Name one rapid test to identify this yeast in the CSF sample.
(1+1+1+1)
14. Hepatitis C virus- modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis.

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(2+2)
15. Nipah virus ? modes of transmission and outbreak prevention.
(1+3)
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