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Download KUHS MBBS 3rd Year 317001 Community Medicine Paper II Feb 2025 Question Paper

Download KUHS (Kerala University Of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 3rd Year 317001 Community Medicine Paper II Feb 2025 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 23 August 2026

2019 Scheme
Q.P. Code: 317001
Reg. no.: .....................
III Professional MBBS Part I Degree Regular/Supplementary Examinations
February 2025

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Community Medicine Paper II
Time: 3 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly ? Do not leave any blank pages between answers ? Indicate
the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

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Answer all parts of a single question together ? Leave sufficient space between answers
Draw table/diagrams/flow charts wherever necessary
1. Multiple Choice Questions
(20x1=20)
The MCQ questions (Q.No. i to Q.No. xx) shall be written in the space provided for answering MCQ

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questions at page No. 51 of the answer book (the inner portion of the back cover page (PART III)).
Responses for MCQs marked in any other part/page of the answer book will not be valued

Question numbers i-v are single response type questions
i. In a day care centre a child was having measles. In the centre the children between the ages of 9-12
months can be protected against measles with measles vaccine, provided that this is given with in

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a) 1 day of exposure
b) 3 days of exposure
c) 5 days of exposure
d) 7 days of exposure
ii. Supplementary Nutrition under ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services is given to all the following

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EXCEPT
a) Children below 6 years
c) Lactating Mother
b) Pregnant
d) Women (15-45 years)

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iii. After an epidemic of measles in a village near Taxilla, 2 children reported with history of weight loss and
blindness, from corneal scarring. The most likely cause of this complication is deficiency of:
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin A

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d) Vitamin C
iv. After finishing 28-pill packet of Oral Contraceptive Pills next packet should be started on:
a) Very next day
c) Day 5 of menstruation
b) Day 2 of menstruation

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d) Day 7 of menstruation
v. Classical triad of Congenital rubella syndrome includes all the following except
a) Deafness
b) Hydrocephalus
c) Cataract

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d) Congenital heart disease
Question numbers vi-x are case scenario-based questions
A forty year old security guard presented to emergency department with the complaint of dog bite on his left
leg. On examination there are multiple bite marks on the leg with bleeding
vi. What is the category of animal bite wound in this patient

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a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV
vii. Which of the following is not recommended

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a) Wash the wound thoroughly
b) Give the first dose of PEP with ARV (Anti rabies vaccine)
c) Infiltration of the wound with ARV (Anti rabies vaccine)
d) Start antibiotics
viii. Which of the following statement is not true regarding care of rabies wound

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a) Wash the wound with running tap water for at least 15 minutes
b) If the patient present late after exposure the wound has to be washed
c) Suturing of the wound should be avoided.
d) If suturing is needed in lacerated wounds thermal cauterization is to be done
ix. Which of the following is not an indication for post exposure prophylaxis of Rabies

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a) Unprovoked bite by a dog
c) Bite by cat
b) Bite by a vaccinated dog
d) Drinking milk from a rabies infected animal
x. Calculate the dose of ERIG for this patient if the weight of the individual is 55 Kg

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a) 2200 IU
b) 550 IU
c) 1100 IU
d) 1000 IU
Question numbers xi-xv consist of two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these

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questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.
xi. Assertion: Short course supplementation with zinc is recommended for every child suffering from diarrhea
Reason: As zinc supplementation significantly reduces the severity and duration of diarrhoea in children
less than 5 years of age.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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c) A is true, but R is false
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false, but R is true
(PTO)


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xii. Assertion: Nipah virus is an emerging infectious disease
Reason: Nipah virus can sometimes cause serious illness among humans.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

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d) A is false, but R is true
xiii. Assertion: ASHA workers is an Accredited Social Health Activist
Reason: ASHA workers needs to have a degree in medico social work s
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false

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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false, but R is true
xiv. Assertion: A country's surveillance system needs to be sensitive enough to detect at least one case of
AFP for every 100 000 children under 15 years even in the absence of polio
Reason: As one case of AFP per100 000 children under 15 years is the criteria for elimination of polio

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false, but R is true
xv. Assertion: The best time to give HPV vaccination is between 9-13 years

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Reason: For the HPV vaccine to work best, it is very important to get all doses before being exposed to
HPV.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

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d) A is false, but R is true
Question numbers xvi-xx are multiple response type questions. Read the statements and mark the
answers appropriately

xvi. National Mental health survey in India showed that
1) Nearly 150 million Indians aged 13 and above are likely to be suffering from one or more mental health

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problems.
2) Mental health problems are comparatively more prevalent in rural areas.
3) Less than 2% has severe mental illness like psychosis or bipolar disorder.
4) The economic impact of mental health disorders is huge.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
xvii. Which of the following are RIGHTLY matched?
1) Kalamazoo consensu

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s : Communication skill
s
2) Rule of halve
s
: Hypertensio

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n
3) Corpulence inde
x
: Fertility measur
e

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a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are corre
ct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correc

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t
xviii. What is the recommended timings to insert an IUCD (Intra Uterine Contraceptive Devise
)
1) Within seven days of the beginning of last menstrual period or anytime during the menstrual cycle
2) Immediatel

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y or within 48 hours after delivery
3) More than 6 weeks post partum
.
4) After one week post partum
.

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a) 1 and 2 are corre
ct
c) 1, 2 and
3 are correc
t

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b) 1
, 2 and 4 are corre
ct
d) 1, 3 an
d 4 are corr

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ect
xix. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission
.
1) For promoting institutional deliver
y

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2) Integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care
.
3) Women are provided with absolutely free and no expense delivery, including caesarean sectio
n
4) The Yojana has identified Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) as an effective link between the

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government and pregnant women.
a) 1 and 2 are corre
ct
c) 1, 2 and
3 are correc

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t
b) 1
, 2 and 4 are corre
ct
d) 1 and 4 are correc

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t
xx. A pregnant woma
n is tested positive HIV what is the recommendation as per PPTCT (prevention of
parent to child transmission
)

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1) The Woman should be initiated on a triple drug AR
T
2) The duration of Nevirapine prophylaxis to HIV exposed infant should be minimum of 4 weeks
3) Early cord clamping during labor is advise
d

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4) EBF (Exclusive Breast Feeding) for the first 6 months of life is recommende
d
a) 1 and 2 are corre
ct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correc

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t
b) 1 and 3 are corre
ct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correc
t

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(PTO
)


Essays:
(2x10=20)

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2. A 35-year-old male, municipality worker visited a camp with productive cough since a month with
intermittent fever. He reported evening rise of temperature on most days. His `spot sputum sample' was
collected, which on Ziehl-Neelsen stain showed reddish bacilli 2+. A portion of the sample was sent for
nucleic acid amplification testing which showed that the micro-organism is present and it is sensitive to
`Rif.'

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a) What is your diagnosis.
b) Write the management plan for this individual assuming his weight to be 55 kg.
c) What are the advices to be given to reduce further transmission of the disease.
d) He lives with 30-year-old wife and two sons aged 9 years and 4 years. How would you ensure that the
disease is not spread to these family members.

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e) Write about immuno-prophylaxis available against the disease.
(1+3+2+2+2)
3. Discuss in detail about the health problems of the elderly. What is healthy ageing. Add a note on voluntary
organizations working for the care of elderly.
(6+2+2)

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Short Essays:
(6x6=36)
4. A primigravid mother at 4 months of amenorrhea has Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL. How would you manage the
situation
5. Enumerate hazards of smoking, add a note on the provisions under COTPA (Cigarette and Other Tobacco

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Products Act)
6. A male trucker presents with history of urethral discharge, explain the syndromic management of Urethral
discharge
7. Write in brief about rule of halves in hypertension
8. Explain steps in health planning with the help of `planning cycle.'

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9. Write in brief about the disaster cycle, add a note on disaster mitigation
Short Answers:
(6x4=24)
10. Write briefly about the functions of WHO
11. Enumerate rickettsial disease and their vectors

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12. Write in brief about Cancer registries
13. The concept of fiduciary duty in medicine
14. What is Vaccine derived polio virus (VDPV), explain the types of VDPV
15. Write in brief about HIV sentinel surveillance
**********************

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