Download KUHS MBBS Final Year 322001 General Medicine II Oct 2025 Question Paper

Q.P. Code: 322001
Reg. no.: .....................
Third Professional MBBS Part II Degree Supplementary Examinations
October 2025
General Medicine II

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(2019 Scheme)
Time: 3 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly ? Do not leave any blank pages between answers
Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin space

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Answer all parts of a single question together ? Leave sufficient space between answers
Draw table/diagrams/flow charts wherever necessary
1. Multiple Choice Questions
(20x1=20)
The MCQ questions (Q.No. i to Q.No. xx) shall be answered only in the OMR sheet provided at page

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No. 51 of the answer book (the inner portion of the back cover page (PART III)). Responses for MCQs
marked in any other part/page of the answer book will not be valued. For marking the correct responses
use X mark only
Question numbers i-v case scenario-based questions
A 30 year old woman develops rash over cheeks, nose and ears. She also has pain and swelling in her

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wrists as well as several small joints of hands. Medical evaluation reveals oral ulceration and 3+
proteinuria.
i. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis.
a) Reactive Arthritis
b) Rheumatoid Arthritis

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c) SLE
d) Gout
ii. Which of the following is the most sensitive test in the patient.
a) Joint fluid analysis
b) Serum uric acid

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c) Anti CCP
d) ANA
iii. What is the most likely cardiac manifestation of her disease.
a) Pericarditis
c) Aortic Regurgitation

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b) Myocarditis
d) Nonbacterial endocarditis
iv. Heberden's nodes are seen in
a) Gouty arthritis
c) Osteoarthritis

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b) Psoriatic arthritis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
v. Dumbbell-shaped or envelope crystals seen in urine microscopy are usually due to.
a) Uric acid
c) Triple phosphate

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b) Calcium phosphate
d) Calcium oxalate
Question numbers vi-x consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.
a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

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c) A is true but R is false
b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
d) A is false but R is true
vi. Assertion: All pregnant women should routinely be recommended for HIV testing at an early stage
in pregnancy

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Reason: ART has dramatically reduced the risk of mother to child transmission of HIV to less
than 1%
vii. Assertion: Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown aetiology
characterized by the presence of caseating granuloma
Reason: Oral glucocorticoids improve symptoms and chest x ray appearance of pulmonary

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sarcoidosis
viii. Assertion: Nucleic acid amplification test, such as CBNAAT is rapid, automated molecular
diagnostic test used to detect mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Reason: Blood samples has to be sent to nearby DOTS center for the CBNAAT.
ix. Assertion: The spine is the most common site for the bone tuberculosis ( Pott's spine)

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Reason: Corticosteroids are currently recommended along with anti-tubercular drugs to treat Pott's
spine
x. Assertion: Asymptomatic bacteriuria is more than 105 colony-forming units / ml in the urine of an
asymptomatic patient.
Reason: Pregnant women need not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria.

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Question numbers xi-xv are multiple-response type questions. Read the statements & mark the
answers appropriately.
xi. Which of the following tests are applicable for confirming brain death (select two)
1) Pupillary reflex
2) Plantar reflex

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3) Vestibulo-ocular reflex 4) Abdominal reflex
a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 3 & 4 are correct
d) 2 & 4 are correct
(PTO)

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xii. Which of the following are the characteristic presentation of osteomalacia in adults (select two)
1) Bowing of tibia 2) Pseudo fractures 3) Joint swellings 4) Proximal muscle weakness
a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 3 & 4 are correct
d) 2 & 4 are correct

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xiii. Which are correct about amoebic liver abscess
1) Most common site is right lobe
2) Usual presentation is with diarrhoea
3) Aspirated pus rarely contains organism
4) Drug of choice is chloroquine

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a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 3 & 4 are correct
d) 2 & 4 are correct
xiv. 1) Anti?TNF
-

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Infliximab
2) Anti?IL6
-
Adalimumab
3) Anti-B cell

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-
Rituximab
4) Anti?IL1
-
Tocilizumab

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a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 3 & 4 are correct
d) 2 & 4 are correct
xv. 1) Erythema multiforme
-

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Inflammatory bowel disease
2) Erythema nodosum
-
Pregnancy
3) Toxic epidermal necrolysis

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-
Sulfonamides
4) Drug induced lupus
-
Hydralazine

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a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 1 & 3 are correct
c) 3 & 4 are correct
d) 2 & 4 are correct
Question numbers xvi-xx are single-response type questions
xvi. Omalizumab, a monoclonal antibody is used in the treatment of which disease

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a) Pneumonia
c) Bronchial asthma
b) Bronchogenic carcinoma
d) Cystic fibrosis
xvii. All the following drugs used in prophylaxis of PCP pneumonia except.

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a) Trimethoprim / sulfamethoxazole
c) Clindamycin
b) Primaquine
d) Fluconazole
xviii. Bitot's spots in eyes are seen in the deficiency of

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a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
xix. Which of the following ways might hallucinations be experienced in schizophrenia

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a) Auditory
b) Olfactory
c) Gustatory
d) All of the above
xx. Which isotype of rheumatoid factor (RF) is the most common, in rheumatoid arthritis

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a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE
d) IgD
Long Essays:

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(2x10=20)
2. Write about etiology, clinical features, complications, investigations and treatment of pulmonary
embolism.
(2+2+2+2+2)
3. A 44 year old male patient has presented to the emergency with severe crushing type of precordial

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chest pain. He has significant history of smoking. His heart rate is 120/min, BP 180/100mmHg,
ECG shows ST segment elevation in anterior and lateral leads. Cardiac troponin-I is increased
a) What is the most likely diagnosis
b) What are the risk factors for this condition
c) What investigations will you do in this patient

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d) How will you manage this patient
e) What are the complications of this condition
(1+2+2+3+2)
Short Essays:
(6x6=36)

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4. Psoriasis
5. Falls in elderly
6. Dengue shock syndrome
7. Herpes Zoster
8. Sjogren's syndrome

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9. Fluorosis
Short Answers:
(6x4=24)
10. The ethical and medico legal issues involved in end of life care
11. Anorexia nervosa

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12. Paracetamol poisoning
13. Clinical features and management of cobra bite
14. Diagnosis and management of bronchiectasis
15. Obsessive compulsive disorder
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