Reg. no.: .....................
Third Professional MBBS Part II Degree Supplementary Examinations
October 2025
General Surgery Paper II
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(2019 Scheme)Time: 3 Hours
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Total Marks: 100
Answer all questions to the point neatly and legibly ? Do not leave any blank pages between answers
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Indicate the question number correctly for the answer in the margin spaceAnswer all parts of a single question together ? Leave sufficient space between answers
Draw table/diagrams/flow charts wherever necessary
Write section A (52 pages) and section B (32 pages) in separate answer books. Do not mix up questions form
section A and section B
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Q.P. Code: 324001--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Max. Mark: 70
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Section A ? General Surgery including Anaesthesiology, Radio diagnosis1. Multiple Choice Questions
(20x1=20)
The MCQ questions (Q.No. i to Q.No. xx) shall be answered only in the OMR sheet provided at page
No. 51 of the answer book (the inner portion of the back cover page (PART III)). Responses for MCQs
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marked in any other part/page of the answer book will not be valued. For marking the correct responsesuse X mark only
Question numbers i-v are case scenario-based questions
A 55-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with complaints of difficulty in urination,
increased frequency, and nocturia for the past 6 months. He reports straining during urination and a
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weak urinary stream. There is no hematuria or pain. On digital rectal examination (DRE), the prostate isenlarged, firm, and non-tender. His serum PSA is 3.5 ng/mL.
i. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient
a) Prostate cancer
c) Chronic prostatitis
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b) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)d) Urethral stricture
ii. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of BPH
a) Hesitancy
b) Nocturia
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c) Intermittencyd) Hematuria
iii. Which investigation is most useful in assessing the severity of bladder outflow obstruction in BPH
a) Post-void residual urine (PVR)
c) Urinalysis
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b) Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)d) Uroflowmetry
iv. Which is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for symptomatic BPH
a) Finasteride
b) Tamsulosin
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c) Oxybutynind) Tolterodine
v. Which of the following is a possible complication of untreated BPH
a) Hydronephrosis
b) Testicular torsion
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c) Peyronie's diseased) Bladder rupture
Question numbers vi-x consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate options given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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c) A is true but R is falseb) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
vi. Assertion (A): The classic presenting symptoms of dysphagia, regurgitation and weight loss are
often absent until primary tumor has become advanced in carcinoma esophagus
Reason (R): With Longitudinal spread is mainly via the submuscular lymphatic channels of
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esophagusvii. Assertion (A): A patient with sudden severe chest pain following vomiting is suspected to have
Boerhaave's syndrome. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial.
Reason (R): Esophageal perforation can lead to mediastinitis and rapid hemodynamic deterioration.
viii. Assertion (A): Pain in acute appendicitis typically starts in the periumbilical region and later shifts to
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right iliac fossaReason (R): The visceral peritoneum is initially involved, followed by parietal peritoneal irritation
ix. Assertion (A): Direct inguinal hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring
Reason (R): The deep inguinal ring is a defect In transversalis fascia
x. Assertion (A): Left sided colon cancers usually present with iron deficiency anaemia only
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Reason (R): Right sided colon cancers often present with anaemia due to occult bleeding (PTO)Question numbers xi-xv are multiple response type questions. Read the statements and mark
the most appropriate answer
xi. Which of the following are recognized complications of peptic ulcer disease
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1) Perforation2) Hemorrhage
3) Pancreatitis
4) Gastric outlet obstruction
a) 1, 2, and 3
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b) 1, 2 and 4c) 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
xii. Dumping syndrome is seen in
1) Bill roth 2 anastomosis
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2) Roux ? en -Y GJ3) Truncal Vagotomy
4) Highly selective Vagotomy
a) 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4
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c) 2 and 3d) 1, 2 and 3
xiii. Which of the following is true regarding capsule endoscopy
1) It consists of an optical dome, lens, 2 LEDs, battery, Transmitter and antenna
2) Battery life is upto 8 hours
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3) It compares favourably with gold standard techniques for ocalisation of cryptic and occult GIBleeding
4) It is indicated in patients with small bowel obstruction
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3
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c) 4 onlyd) 1, 2 and 3
xiv. Which of the following is seen with bladder extrophy
1) Shortened penis due to diastasis of pubic symphysis
2) Incompetent bladder neck continence mechanism
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3) Waddling gait4) Lengthened perineum and posteriorly displaced anus
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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d) 4 onlyxv. Which of the following are TRUE regarding Tracheo Oesophageal fistula
1) An abnormal fistulous connection between esophagus and trachea
2) More commonly seen in female children
3) Can occur alone or in combination with esophageal atresia
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4) In 10 percent patients, there is association of anomalies referred to as VATERLa) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
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Question numbers xvi-xx are single response type questionsxvi. A 35 year old man came with complaints of dark coloured stools to OPD. After undergoing
endoscopy, the patient was diagnosed with an upper GI Bleed. Which of the following structures is
used as a demarcation point to differentiate it from lower GI Bleed
a) Ampulla of Vater
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c) Superior duodenal flexureb) Ligament of treitz
d) Ileocaecal junction
xvii. Goodsall's Rule is applicable for
a) Pilonidal sinus
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b) Fistula in anoc) Perianal Abscess
d) Fissure in ano
xviii. All of the following are TRUE regarding anatomy of kidney EXCEPT
a) Right renal vein is longer than left renal vein
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b) Perinephric fat is whiter than colonic fatc) At Renal hilum, first structure encountered is renal vein and last is renal pelvis
d) Right gonadal vein opens directly into inferior vena cava
xix. Which of the following is TRUE about GB Polyp as a risk factor for CA GB EXCEPT
a) Polyp size more than 1 cm
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c) Polyp of any size with Gall bladder stoneb) Sessile polyp with fibrovascular core
d) Cholesterol Polyp is also risk factor
xx. Which of the following is FALSE about liver hemangioma
a) Most common benign tumor of liver
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b) Incidence has increased with widespread use of ultrasoundc) CT scan shows hypoattenuating lesion with early contrast enhancement
d) All are true
(PTO)
Long Essays:
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(2x10=20)2. A 45-year-old obese female presents to the outpatient department with complaints of intermittent
right upper quadrant abdominal pain for the past 6 months. The pain is colicky in nature, usually
occurs after fatty meals, and lasts for 1?2 hours. She also reports occasional nausea but denies
vomiting, fever, or jaundice. No history of prior abdominal surgeries. Ultrasound shows Gallbladder
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is distended with multiple echogenic foci casting posterior acoustic shadows, consistent withgallstones.
a) Classify gall stones
b) Discuss etiopathogenesis of Acute calculous cholecystitis
c) Enumerate management of Acute calculous cholecystitis (3+3+4)
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3. A forty five year old male is brought to the casualty with the complaint of sudden onset of severeabdominal pain and vomiting. He had taken a few analgesics tablet for musculoskeletal pain
earlier. On examination he is dehydrated. Pulse rate ? 102 bpm, his abdomen is rigid and liver
dullness is obliterated
a) Discuss the probable etiology
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b) How will you evaluate the patientc) What are the treatment options for his condition
(3+3+4)
Short Essays:
(3x6=18)
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4. Gastric outlet obstruction5. Cleft Lip
6. Pheochromocytoma
Short Answers:
(3x4=12)
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7. Imagine you are Dr. Veer (a male doctor). A 17 year old girl has come to with history of bleedingPR How do you carry out ethically acceptable clinical examination
8. Regional Anaesthesia
9. Imperforate anus
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Q.P. Code: 325001--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Max. Marks: 30
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Section B ? Orthopaedics Including Physical Medicine and RehabilitationShort Essays:
(3x6=18)
1. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, principles of management and
complications of fracture neck of femur in an adult over 60 years age.
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2. Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinicoradiological manifestations and complications of chronicosteomyelitis.
3. Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and principles of management of
congenital dislocation of hip joint in a 3 year old child
Short answers:
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(3x4=12)4. Axillary crutches
5. Monteggia fracture
6. Crush syndrome
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