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Download Calicut University MBBS 2003 March Pediatrics Previous Question Paper

Download CU (Calicut University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2003 March Pediatrics Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 25 March 2022

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C 24422


(Pages: 4)


Name:.....................................

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Reg. No:.....................................


FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MARCH 2003


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Part II


PAEDIATRICS INCLUDING NEONATOLOGY


Time: Two Hours

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Maximum: 40 Marks


Answer all the questions.


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Draw diagrams wherever necessary.


MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided.


Section A

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I. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type 8 (separate sheet attached). (8×1/2 = 4 marks)


II. Match the following. Single response type 8 (separate sheet attached). (8 x 1/2 = 4 marks)


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III. Draw and label:


  1. Bitots spots.
  2. Murmur of aortic regurgitation.

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(2x1/2 marks)


IV. Short answer questions:


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  1. Significance of Moro reflex.
  2. Primary dentition.
  3. Hills sign.
  4. Constant features of Kwashiorkor.

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(4 x 1/4 marks)


V. Write short notes on:


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  1. Oral polio vaccine.
  2. CSF findings in Tuberculous meningitis.
  3. Salbutamol.


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(3 x 2 = 6 marks)


Section B


VI. Read this paragraph and answer the following questions :-

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1 year old child is brought with pyoderma, fever and cough. On examination he is cyanosed, respiratory rate is 62/minute, grunting and chest retractions are present.


  1. What is the diagnosis ?
  2. What treatment will you advise ?
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  4. What investigations will you order?
  5. What complication will you expect?
  6. What is the duration of antibiotic therapy?


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(2+4+2+1+1=10 marks)


Turn over


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VII. Short answer questions:


  1. Preservation of BCG vaccine.
  2. Complications of atrial septal defect.
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  4. Drug therapy in hypothyroidism.
  5. ABCs of resuscitation.


(4 x 1 = 4 marks)

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VIII. Write short notes on:


  1. Apgar score.
  2. Cyanotic spells.
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  4. Management of hookworm infestation.


(3x2=6 marks)

C 24422

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PAEDIATRICS INCLUDING NEONATOLOGY


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I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


Note.-(1) Do not write anything on the question paper.


(2) Write your register number in the answer-sheet provided.

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(3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question number in the answer-sheet provided.


  1. The earliest clinical sign of rickets in an infant is:
    1. Costochondral beading.
    2. Craniotabes.
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    4. Wrist swelling.
    5. Bow legs.
  2. The most common cause of hypochromic microcytic anemia in an infant is:
    1. Beta thalassemia.
    2. Hereditary spherocytosis.
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    4. Iron deficiency anemia.
    5. Lead poisoning.
  3. The commonest cause of neonatal seizure is :
    1. Developmental anomaly of brain.
    2. Hypoglycemia.
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    4. Narcotic withdrawal syndrome.
    5. Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy.
  4. All are features of Reye syndrome except :
    1. Vomiting.
    2. Hepatomegaly.
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    4. Convulsions.
    5. Prolonged prothrombin time.
  5. What is not true about rotavirus diarrhoea is ?
    1. It affects older children.
    2. Vomiting is an early feature.
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    4. Lactose intolerance is common.
    5. It produces watery diarrhoea.
  6. The most common clinical presentation of portal hypertension in children below five years is:
    1. Hematemesis.
    2. Melena.
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    4. Splenomegaly.
    5. Massive ascites.
  7. Roths spots are located over :
    1. Conjunctiva.
    2. Lips.
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    4. Retina.
    5. Palms.
  8. Mantoux test is done with 0.1 ml. of PPD solution containing :
    1. 0.1 mg.
    2. 0.01 mg.
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    4. 0.001 mg.
    5. 0.0001 mg.


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(8 x 1/2 = 4 marks)


C 24422


PAEDIATRICS INCLUDING NEONATOLOGY

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II. Match the following:-



A B
1 Egg 1 Hemoglobinuria
2 Aluminium 2 Ceftriaxone
3 Epstein Barr virus 3 Benzyl penicillin
4 Pyrimethamine 4 Dextrocardia

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(a) Toxoplasmosis. (a) Hib meningitis.
(b) Aplastic anemia. (b) Tetanus.
(c) Reference protein. (c) Diaphragmatic hernia.
(d) Toxic element.

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(8 x 1/2 = 4 marks)

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