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Download Calicut University MBBS 2003 March Surgery Paper II Previous Question Paper

Download CU (Calicut University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2003 March Surgery Paper II Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 25 March 2022

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C 24419

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(Pages: 2+ 3+ 1 = 6)

Name...

Reg. No....

FINAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MARCH 2003

Part II

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Paper II-GENERAL SURGERY (INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

(New Scheme)

Time: Three Hours Maximum: 60 Marks

Answer Sections A and B in separate answer-books.

Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

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Answer all questions.

Section A

I. Multiple Choice Questions. (20 x 1/2 = 10 marks)

Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached).

II. Match the following. (6 x 1/2 = 3 marks)

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Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached).

III. Draw and label: (2 x 1/2 = 1 marks)

  1. Complete inguinal hernia.
  2. Intra renal pelvis.

IV. Short answer questions: (5 x 2 = 10 marks)

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  1. What is healing by secondary intention?
  2. What is Leriche's syndrome?
  3. What is the surface anatomy of the parotid duct?
  4. What is retractile testis?
  5. What is prostatism sans prostate?
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V. Write short notes on: (5 x 2 = 10 marks)

  1. Waldeyer's ring.
  2. Breast mouse.
  3. Torsion testis.
  4. Courvoisier's law.
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  6. Pin hole meatus.

C 24419

Section B

VI. Read the paragraph and answer the questions :-

A male aged 45 comes with a painless indurated ulcer on the (L) Lateral border of the tongue of 4 months duration.

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  1. What is the investigation to be done to clinch the diagnosis?
  2. What histopathological type is most common if it is a malignant condition?
  3. If the patient complaints of pain in the (L) ear, what is your inference?
  4. What are the etiological factors for a malignant ulcer of the tongue?
  5. What are the various modalities of treatment for the condition?
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  7. What is the ideal treatment for a lesion which is less than 2 cm. in size without palpable nodes?
  8. If the lesion has extended to involve the neighbouring mandible, what clinical and radiological features would be appreciable?
  9. What terminal events may bring death from an uncontrolled primary tumour? (1+1+1+2+2+1+1+1 = 10 marks)

VII. Short answer questions: (10 x 1 = 10 marks)

  1. What is Lucid interval?
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  3. What are methods of spread of malignant tumour?
  4. Classify cysts.
  5. What is colloid Goitre?
  6. What is three-dimensional excision?
  7. What is rest pain?
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  9. What is Harvey's sign?
  10. What is abdominal angina?
  11. What is lateral aberrant thyroid?
  12. Enumerate the clinical features of Additions' disease.

VIII. Write short notes on: (5 x 2 = 10 marks)

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  1. Mammography.
  2. Pneumo-thorax.
  3. FNAC in thyroid malignancies.
  4. Hypocaleaemia.
  5. Deep vein thrombosis.
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C 24419

Par II-GENERAL SURGERY (INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Note.-(1) Do not write anything on the question paper.

(2) Write your register number on the answer-sheet provided.

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(3) Select the appropriate answer and encircle the alphabet against each question in the answer-sheet provided.

(4) In the answer-sheet enter the total number of your answers in the appropriate box provided.

(5) Each question carries ½ mark.

  1. In which of the following, metastases disappear if primary is removed surgically?
    1. Colon.
    2. Kidney.
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    4. Melanoma.
    5. Lung.
  2. Stripping of varicose veins of the short saphenous system is indicated in varicosities with:
    1. Deep vein thrombosis.
    2. Venous ulcer.
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    4. Pregnancy.
    5. Episodes of thrombo-phlebitis.
  3. The most common primary source of supraclavicular lymph node metastases seen in :
    1. Thyroid.
    2. Larynx.
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    4. Testis.
    5. Bronchus.
  4. Gangrene of great toe is seen in:
    1. Monckberg's medial sclerosis.
    2. Atherosclerosis obliterans.
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    4. Infective endocarditis.
    5. Myocardial infarction.
  5. All are true about Glasgow coma scale except :
    1. Consists of eye opening, motor and verbal response.
    2. Score between 3-15.
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    4. Increase score indicates poor prognosis.
    5. Obeying motor command is given maximum score.
  6. Pierre Robbin syndrome is:
    1. Cleft palate with convulsions.
    2. Cleft palate with mandibular hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction.
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    4. Cleft lip with mandibular hypoplasia.
    5. Cleft lip.
  7. In lesions of parotid gland which cranial nerve is often involved?
    1. Facial nerve.
    2. Lingual nerve.
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    4. Spinal accessory.
    5. Hypoglossal nerve.
  8. Commonest type of oral cancer is:
    1. Squamous cell carcinoma.
    2. Adeno carcinoma.
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    4. Transitional cell carcinoma.
    5. Columnar cell carcinoma.
  9. Ranula is :
    1. Benign tumour.
    2. Malignant tumour.
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    4. Implantation cyst.
    5. Retention cyst.
  10. All are complications of total thyroidectomy except:
    1. Airway obstruction.
    2. Bleeding.
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    4. Hyper calcaemia.
    5. Recurrent nerve paralysis.
  11. Secondaries in the neck without obvious primary malignancy is most often due to :
    1. Ca. Larynx.
    2. Ca. Nasopharynx.
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    4. Ca. Thyroid.
    5. Ca. Stomach.
  12. FNAC is not of much use in which thyroid pathology?
    1. Papillary carcinoma.
    2. Follicular carcinoma.
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    4. Medullary carcinoma.
    5. Thyroiditis.
  13. Carotid sheath contains following except:
    1. Carotid artery.
    2. Internal jugular vein.
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    4. Vagus nerve.
    5. Phrenic nerve.
  14. Peaud orange in carcinoma breast is due to :
    1. Lymphatic blockage.
    2. Sweat gland blockage.
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    4. Invasion of ligaments of cooper.
    5. Lactiferous duct invasion.
  15. The most common organism found in breast abscess is :
    1. Streptococcus.
    2. Staphylococcus.
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    4. Bacteroides.
    5. Echinococcus.
  16. Which one of these has a greater prognostic valve in carcinoma breast?
    1. Size of the tumour.
    2. Age of the patient.
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    4. Presence of pain.
    5. Lymphnode involvement.
  17. Orchidectomy is done in all except:
    1. Tubercular epididymitis.
    2. Malignant tumour.
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    4. Prostatic cancer.
    5. Gynaecomastia male breast.
  18. An encysted hydrocele of the cord has all the following physical findings except :
    1. It is a scrotal swelling.
    2. It is translucent.
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    4. Swelling comes down when the testis pulled down.
    5. The testis is not felt separately from the swelling.
  19. Randall's plaque is seen in:
    1. Gall stone.
    2. Renal stone.
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    4. Chronic appendicitis.
    5. Vesical stone.
  20. The superficial ring is a defect in:
    1. Scarpa's fascia.
    2. Camper's fascia.
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    4. External oblique aponeurosis.
    5. Conjoint tendon.

(20 x 1/2 = 10 marks)

C 24419

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Paper II-GENERAL SURGERY (INCLUDES WHOLE OF SURGERY EXCLUDING GIT)

II. Match the following:-

  1. Collar stud abscess
  2. House-maid's knee
  3. Weaver's bottom
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  5. Potato tumour
  6. Tailor's muscle
  7. Trumpet blowers
  1. Sartorius.
  2. Carotid-body tumour.
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  4. Laryngocoele.
  5. TB cervical adenitis.
  6. Ischial adventitious bursitis.
  7. Prepatellar bursitis.

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(6 x 1/2 = 3 marks)