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Download Calicut University MBBS 2006 December Medicine Paper II Previous Question Paper

Download CU (Calicut University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2006 December Medicine Paper II Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 25 March 2022

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D 27385


(Pages: 2+2+1)

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Name....................................


Reg. No....................................


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THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXΑΜΙΝΑΤΙΟΝ, DECEMBER 2006


Part II


GENERAL MEDICINE-Paper II

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Time: Three Hours


Maximum: 60 Marks


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Answer Sections A and B in separate answer-books.


Draw diagrams wherever necessary.


Section A

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I. Multiple Choice Questions. (20 x 1/2 = 10 marks)


Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached).


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II. Match the following. (6 x 1/2 =3 marks)


Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached).


III. Draw and label: (2 x 1 =2 marks)

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  1. ECG changes of acute myocardial infarction.

  2. Schematic diagram of spinothalamic tract and label different levels.
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IV. Write briefly on: (5x1 =5 marks)



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  1. Causes of upper GI bleeding.

  2. Causes of normocytic normochromic anemia.

  3. Somatostatin.
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  5. Laboratory diagnosis of Rheumatic fever.

  6. MRI of brain.

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V. Write short notes on: (5x2=10 marks)



  1. 2D Echo.
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  3. Simple partial seizure.

  4. Subarachnoid haemorrhage.

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  6. Psychogenic polydipsia.

  7. Lacunar infarct.


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Section B


VI. A 18 years old female is admitted with h/o swelling of limbs puffiness of face and decreased urine output with normal blood pressure. (1+1+2+3+3 = 10 marks)



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  1. What is the provisional diagnosis ?

  2. What is the immunological injury?

  3. What are the other types of immunological injuries to glomerulus ?
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  5. Outline the investigations.

  6. Outline the management.

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VII. Write briefly on: (10 x 1 =10 marks)



  1. Peripheral signs of aortic regurgitation.
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  3. Chest X-ray findings in Lt→ Rt shunt like ASD/VSD.

  4. Management of hypotension.

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  6. Polycystic disease of kidney.

  7. Paraproteinemias.

  8. Treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia.
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  10. Burkitt's lymphoma.

  11. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

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  13. Hypersplenism.

  14. Transient ischaemic attack.


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VIII. Write short notes on: (5 x 2 = 10 marks)



  1. Status epilepticus.

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  3. Pulmonary oedema.

  4. Hepatic encephalopathy.

  5. Aplastic anemia.
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  7. Migraine.


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(D) Corpulmonale.


Mid-diastolic murmur is heard in all the following except :


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  1. (A) Mitral stenosis.

  2. (B) Tricuspid stenosis.

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  4. (C) Pulmonary stenosis.

  5. (D) Left atrial myxoma.


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  1. Drug of choice in complete heart-block is:

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  3. (A) Digoxin.

  4. (B) Adrenaline.

  5. (C) Isoprenaline.
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  7. (D) Dopamine.


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  1. Drawback of and blocker in young hypertension is :

  2. (A) Impotence.
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  4. (B) Sterility.

  5. (C) Infertility.

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  7. (D) None of the above.



  1. Tongue is mirror of:
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  3. (A) CNS disease.

  4. (B) GIT disease.

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  6. (C) Renal disease.

  7. (D) CVS disease.


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  1. Dysphagia is:

  2. (A) Difficulty in breathing.

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  4. (B) Difficulty in swallowing.

  5. (C) Difficulty in talking.

  6. (D) None of the above.
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  1. Irritable bowel syndrome is:

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  3. (A) Functional bowel disease.

  4. (B) Inflammatory bowel disease.

  5. (C) Malignant bowel disease.
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  7. (D) None of the above.



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  1. Hepatitis C is due to :

  2. (A) DNA virus.

  3. (B) RNA virus.
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  5. (C) Bacteria.

  6. (D) Fungus.

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  1. Oliguria is characterised by:

  2. (A) Increased urine output.
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  4. (B) Decreased urine output.

  5. (C) No urine output.

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  7. (D) None of the above.



  1. Minimal change glomerular lesion is a feature of:
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  3. (A) Nephrosclerosis.

  4. (B) Nephrocalcinosis.

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  6. (C) Nephrotic syndrome.

  7. (D) Nephropathy.


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  1. NSAID's cause :

  2. (A) Glomerulonephritis.

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  4. (B) Lupus nephritis.

  5. (C) Acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis.

  6. (D) None of the above.
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  1. Anemia is sun in:

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  3. (A) ARF.

  4. (B) CRF.

  5. (C) Obstructive uropathy.
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  7. (D) None of the above.



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  1. Vasopressin is synthesized and released by:

  2. (A) Hypothalamus.

  3. (B) Anterior Pituitary.
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  5. (C) Posterior pituitary.

  6. (D) None of the above.

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  1. The drug of choice in treatment of hyper-prolactinoma is:

  2. (A) Dopamine.
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  4. (B) Bromocriptine.

  5. (C) Atropine.

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  7. (D) Ergotamine.



  1. Growth hormone excess in children results in:
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  3. (A) Gigantism.

  4. (B) Acromegaly.

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  6. (C) Short Stature.

  7. (D) None of the above.


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  1. Thyroxine binding globulin is decreased in following conditions except:

  2. (A) Thyrotoxicosis.

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  4. (B) Corticosteroid excess.

  5. (C) Hypothyroidism.

  6. (D) Nephrotic syndrome.
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  1. Vermis in cerebellum is connected with maintenance of:

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  3. (A) Coordination of movement.

  4. (B) Power of the body.

  5. (C) Axial posture and balance.
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  7. (D) Sensation of the body.



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  1. Which of the following is not the cause of papilloedema?

  2. (A) Intra-cranial mass lesion.

  3. (B) Cerebral oedema.
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  5. (C) Malignant hypertension.

  6. (D) Bells palsy.

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  1. Diplopia is seen in involvement of:

  2. (A) Olfactory nerve.
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  4. (B) Trochlear nerve.

  5. (C) Trigeminal nerve.

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  7. (D) Facial nerve.



  1. Haemolysis in G6-PD deficiency is caused by:
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  3. (A) Amoxycilline.

  4. (B) Cefotaxime.

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  6. (C) Antimalarials.

  7. (D) None of the above.


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D 27385


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II. Match the following :-


GENERAL MEDICINE-Paper II (6 x 1/2 =3 marks)



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  1. EEG. (a) Pancreatic-biliary diseases.

  2. ECG. (b) Muscle disorders.

  3. EMG. (c) Seizure disorders.
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  5. BSER. (d) Cardiac diseases.

  6. EPS (Electrophysiological studies) (e) Intestinal diseases.

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  8. ERCP. (f) To assess brainstem function.

  9. (g) Oesophageal motility diseases.

  10. (h) Conduction abnormalities.
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