JKBOPEE M.Sc Nursing 2024 Previous Question Paper

Series-A

M.Sc. Nursing- 2024

J&KBOPEE

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1. All levels of management between the supervisory level and the top level of the organization are termed as:
   1. Supervisors
   2. Middle managers
   3. First line managers
   4. Foremen

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2. Professional negligence is legally termed as:
   1. Slander
   2. Assault
   3. Crime
   4. Malpractice

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3. False harmful written report is called?
   1. Libel
   2. Slander
   3. Felony
   4. Tort

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4. Which of the following is not a step of planning?
   1. Execution
   2. Briefing
   3. Strategic health care planning
   4. Needs identification

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5. Which of the following teaching method is useful for learning a skill?
   1. Seminar
   2. Lecture
   3. Demonstration
   4. Symposium

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6. Contributions of Florence Nightingale to nursing research is:
   1. Case study approach
   2. Conceptual framework for research
   3. Data collection and analysis
   4. Qualitative research method

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7. The researcher uses which portion of the research report to capture the reader's attention?
   1. Abstract
   2. Results
   3. Review of literature
   4. Methodology

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8. Which software is commonly used for creating presentations in nursing research?
   1. Adobe Premiere
   2. Power Point
   3. AutoCAD
   4. Quick Books

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9. When is the use of a non-parametric test appropriate in Biostatistics?
   1. When data is normally distributed
   2. When data are skewed or have outlier
   3. When sample sizes are very large
   4. When comparing variances

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10. In nursing research, what is a hypothesis?
    1. A detailed description of research setting
    2. A prediction about the relationship between two or more variables
    3. A review of literature
    4. A summary of the research findings

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11. What is one of the core functions of public health nursing?
    1. Diagnosing the disease
    2. Developing new medications
    3. Assessment, policy development and assurance
    4. Performing surgeries

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12. Biomedical Concept is based on?
    1. Germs
    2. Soul
    3. Environment
    4. Culture

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13. Which population is most vulnerable to the health impact of inadequate housing?
    1. Young adults
    2. Elderly individuals
    3. Middle aged adults
    4. Athletes

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14. Which of the following method is considered best practice for the disposal of hazardous medical waste?
    1. Incineration
    2. Landfilling with regular household waste
    3. Composting
    4. Open burning

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15. Which of the following contaminants is commonly tested in drinking water?
    1. Nitrogen
    2. Chlorine
    3. Lead
    4. Carbon dioxide

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16. What is the impact of poor water infrastructure on community?
    1. Reduced risk of illness
    2. Increased spread of water borne disease
    3. Improved sanitation
    4. Enhanced personal hygiene

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17. Which of the following is an example of a biological environment hazards?
    1. Noise pollution
    2. Pesticides
    3. Vector-borne disease like malaria
    4. Heavy metals

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18. Chairman of central council of health is:
    1. Union Health Minister
    2. Prime Minister
    3. Health secretary
    4. Finance Minister

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19. All are true about incidence except:
    1. Denominator includes population at risk
    2. Numerator includes number of new cases
    3. It is a rate
    4. Does not include unit of time

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20. Epidemiology triad comprises all except
    1. Host
    2. Environmental factor
    3. Agent
    4. Investigator

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21. Salk vaccine is a:
    1. Live vaccine
    2. Live attenuated vaccine
    3. Killed vaccine
    4. Toxoid

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22. Which of the following is a technique of supervision?
    1. Reassurance
    2. Teaching
    3. Learning
    4. All

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23. Primordial prevention means:
    1. Prevention of complication
    2. Prevention of infection
    3. Prevention of emergency of risk factors
    4. None of the above

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24. An infection which is present in an individual but, not sufficient to result in a disease called as:
    1. Latent infection
    2. Clinical infection
    3. Sub-clinical infection
    4. Secondary infection

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25. In India, goitre is found commonly in:
    1. Southern region
    2. Himalayan region
    3. Coastal region
    4. Western region

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26. The upper floating part in Ice Berg disease tip formula, which is seen by physician is known as:
    1. Pre-Symptomatic
    2. Asymptomatic
    3. Symptomatic
    4. Non-Symptomatic

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27. In which of the following country first public health act was developed?
    1. Germany
    2. England
    3. United States of America
    4. Greek

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28. Advanced maternal age is related to?
    1. Down's syndrome
    2. Klinefelter's syndrome
    3. Tetralogy of Fallot
    4. Cleft lip

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29. Community health nursing should be?
    1. Target oriented
    2. Population oriented
    3. Disease oriented
    4. Age and sex specific

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30. In the following which is not a principle of community health nursing?
    1. Health service should be based on the needs of community
    2. There should be equal distribution of health services
    3. There should be provision for service education program
    4. Community health nurse should accept gifts from community members

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31. Which of the following is a key component of professional etiquette in nursing?
    1. Using medical jargon with patients
    2. Maintaining a respectful and courteous demeanour
    3. Ignoring patient concerns
    4. Sharing personal opinions on health care policies

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32. What is the appropriate response if a nurse makes mistake in patient care?
    1. Blaming other for the mistake
    2. Ignoring the mistake and hoping it goes unnoticed
    3. Acknowledging the mistake apologizing, and taking corrective actions
    4. Denying responsibility for the mistake

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33. What is the role of public health departments in community health resources management?
    1. Providing limited information to the public
    2. Regulating health care costs
    3. Educating and promoting public health initiatives
    4. Excluding community involvement

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34. Why it is important for nurses to adhere to ethical standards in practice?
    1. To reduce patient trust
    2. To maintain professionalism and patient safety
    3. To avoid patient interactions
    4. None of the above

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35. What is primary goal of nursing practice?
    1. Maximizing hospital revenue
    2. Providing holistic patient care
    3. Administering medications
    4. Excluding patient concerns

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36. The primary purpose of the patient record is:
    1. Education
    2. Communication
    3. Research
    4. Funding

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37. All of the following are principles of record writing except:
    1. Accurate
    2. Errorfree-
    3. Use of standard abbreviation
    4. Data redundancy

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38. Which is the most important factor in therapeutic relationship?
    1. Trust
    2. Knowledge
    3. Respect
    4. Motivations

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39. A nurse is talking with a young-adult patient about the purpose of a new medication the nurse says, "I want to be clear; can you tell me the purpose of this medicine?" This exchange is an example of which element of transactional communication process:
    1. Message
    2. Obtaining feedback
    3. Channel
    4. Referent

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40. Providing health education about the environmental hygiene to the community people is an example of:
    1. Social communication
    2. Structural communication
    3. Formal communication
    4. Therapeutic communication

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41. What is the primary intervention for a patient experiencing hallucinations?
    1. Ignoring the hallucinations
    2. Acknowledging the patient experience and reality
    3. Isolating the patient from others
    4. Minimizing the communication with patients

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42. What is the principle of beneficence in mental health nursing?
    1. Doing no harm to the patient
    2. Acting in the best interest of the patient to promote their wellbeing
    3. Ensuring equal treatment for all patients
    4. Maintaining patient confidentiality

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43. Who is the first psychiatric nurse?
    1. Sigmund Freud
    2. Jean Watson
    3. Hildegard Peplau
    4. Linda Richard

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44. Cognitive mode of depression was given by?
    1. Beck
    2. Skinner
    3. Carletta
    4. Freud

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45. Topological model of mind by Freud is:
    1. Id-ego-superego
    2. Regression-repression-suppression
    3. Denial-rationalisation-projection
    4. Conscious-preconscious-unconscious

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46. Best test for diagnosis of organic mental disorder is:
    1. Bander gestalt test
    2. Sentence completion test
    3. Rorschach test
    4. The Matic appreciation test

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47. Post-traumatic-stress-disorder (PTSD) is classified under which category?
    1. Anxiety disorder
    2. Mood disorder
    3. Personality disorder
    4. Psychotic disorder

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48. Omega sign is seen in which of the following?
    1. Anxious patient
    2. Depressed patient
    3. Deluded patient
    4. Negative patient

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49. Anxiety expresses through physical symptoms is:
    1. Depersonalization
    2. Sublimation
    3. Hypochondriasis
    4. Regression

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50. Most common psychiatric emergency?
    1. Rape
    2. Violence
    3. Panic attack
    4. Suicide

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51. What is the role of the obstetric nurse during the second stage of labour?
    1. Monitoring the foetal heart rate
    2. Educating the mother on breast feeding
    3. Assisting the delivery of the baby
    4. Providing postnatal care

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52. Which of the following is a common screening test performed during pregnancy to detect chromosomal abnormalities?
    1. Amniocentesis
    2. MRI
    3. EKG
    4. Spirometry

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53. During which trimester is the foetus most vulnerable to teratogens?
    1. First trimester
    2. Second trimester
    3. Third trimester
    4. Postoperative period

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54. Which of following interventions is commonly part of intrapartum?
    1. Providing perinatal vitamins
    2. Monitoring maternal and foetal wellbeing during labour
    3. Conducting prenatal genetic testing
    4. Educating on postpartum nutrition

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55. What is primary function of the endometrium?
    1. To produce hormones
    2. To transport eggs to the uterus
    3. To provide a site for implantation of the fertilised egg
    4. To release egg during ovulation

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56. What is the primary function of Corpus luteum?
    1. To produce estrogen
    2. To produce progesterone
    3. To release the egg during ovulation
    4. To transport the egg to the uterus

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57. Which structure secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg) during early pregnancy?
    1. Ovaries
    2. Placenta
    3. Corpus luteum
    4. Fallopian tube

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58. All of the following are the parts of the vulva except:
    1. Bartholin's gland
    2. Vaginal opening
    3. Mons pubis
    4. Ampulla

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59. Endometrium after conception is known as:
    1. Decidua
    2. Myometrium
    3. Perimetrium
    4. Ampulla

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60. Oxygenated blood from the placenta goes to the foetal heart via:
    1. Ductus arteriosus
    2. Ductus venosus
    3. Foramen ovale
    4. Umbilical artery

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61. After birth the umbilical cord collapses and forms:
    1. Ligamentum arteriosum
    2. Ligamentum venosum
    3. Ligamentum umbilicus
    4. Ligamentum teres

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62. High level of maternal serum fetoprotein (MSAFP) indicates:
    1. Neural tube defects
    2. Foetal cardiac defects
    3. Cleft lip/palate
    4. Nervous system defect

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63. According to JSY, how many iron tablets are consumed by pregnant women?
    1. 100 Tablets
    2. 50 Tablets
    3. 80 Tablets
    4. 30 Tablets

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64. What are the warning signs of pregnancy?
    1. Leakage of fluid per vagina
    2. Disappearance of FHR
    3. Blurred vision
    4. All of the above

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65. CARA means:
    1. Central Adoption Resource Authority
    2. Central Adoption Rescue Authority
    3. Control Administration Responsible for adoption
    4. Carrier Adoption Rescue Authority

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66. According to Naegele's rule, if a women had regular 28 days menstrual cycle and Last menstrual period (LMP) is 2-2-16 then estimated date of delivery (EDD) is on:
    1. 8-12-16
    2. 9-11-16
    3. 7-10-16
    4. 10-11-16

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67. The most commonly performed tests in case of genetic disorder are:
    1. Maternal serum fetoprotein
    2. Amniocentesis
    3. X-ray
    4. Both A and B

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68. Which injection is given as a routine to pregnant women during the antenatal period?
    1. Hepatitis B
    2. Tetanus toxoid
    3. Iron injection
    4. PPD injection

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69. Which of the following is a common complication in patient with immobility?
    1. Hypertension
    2. Pressure ulcers
    3. Diabetes
    4. Hyperthyroidism

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70. Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
    1. Long term immobility
    2. Frequent exercise
    3. Low fat diet
    4. Chronic hypertension

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71. Which factor can significantly influence wound healing surgical patients?
    1. High carbohydrate diet
    2. Adequate nutrition and hydration
    3. Limited physical activity
    4. Excessive sun exposure

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72. What is the primary mode of transmission for the hepatitis B virus?
    1. Air borne droplets
    2. Contaminated food and water
    3. Blood and body fluids
    4. Direct contact with skin lesions

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73. Which of the following is a key nursing intervention for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
    1. Encouraging high impact exercise
    2. Protecting the patient from sunlight exposure
    3. Administering high dose of antibiotics
    4. Restricting fluid intake

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74. Which of the following disease is caused by a reactivation of the varicella zoster virus?
    1. Shingles
    2. Measles
    3. Rubella
    4. Mumps

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75. Diffuse, purulent inflammation of a tissue is called?
    1. Abscess
    2. Cellulitis
    3. Boils
    4. Ulcers

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76. The clinical manifestations of fracture include:
    1. Pain, pallor, paraesthesia
    2. Pain, pallor, ecchymosis
    3. Fever, heaviness, weakness
    4. Pain, coolness, loss of pulse

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77. A patient is scheduled for a right total hip replacement. The nurse should teach which of the following postoperative leg positions?
    1. Maintain legs in addiction
    2. Maintain legs in abduction
    3. Maintain >90° hip flexion
    4. Maintain internal leg rotation

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78. The client got admitted to the ER with the diagnosis of Rhabdomyolysis. The nursing priority action would be:
    1. Check the patient weight
    2. Whole body physical examination
    3. Initiate rehydration therapy
    4. Measure the abdominal circumference

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79. What is a priority nursing intervention immediately postoperatively for a patient undergoing spinal fusion surgery?
    1. Placing the patient in a prone position
    2. Administering opioids pain medications
    3. Allowing the patient to ambulate independently
    4. Encouraging deep breathing exercise

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80. Inflammatory bowel disease results in:
    1. Perforation
    2. Stricture
    3. Obstruction
    4. Paralytic ileus

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81. Grave's disease is a main cause of:
    1. Hypothyroidism
    2. Hyperthyroidism
    3. Both of the above
    4. None of the above

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82. Which inflammatory markers is commonly elevated in patients with SLE?
    1. Haemoglobin
    2. Platelet count
    3. C-reactive protein
    4. Bilirubin

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83. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder that causes the inflammation of the skin and joints?
    1. Gout
    2. Psoriatic arthritis
    3. Osteoporosis
    4. Asthma

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84. Drug of choice for pain control in acute pancreatitis?
    1. Morphine
    2. Indomethacin
    3. Meperidine
    4. Diclofenac sodium

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85. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client with bronchitis?
    1. Sleep pattern disturbance
    2. Impaired skin integration
    3. Ineffective breathing pattern
    4. Knowledge deficit

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86. First elevating enzyme following MI is:
    1. Troponin I
    2. Troponin T
    3. CPK-MB
    4. Myoglobin

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87. Streptococcal throat infection can later lead to:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Leprosy
    3. Rheumatic heart disease
    4. Malaria

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88. Modified Jones criteria is used in the diagnosis of:
    1. Ineffective endocarditis
    2. Congestive heart failure
    3. Rheumatic fever
    4. None of the Above

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89. The inflammation of the renal pelvis, tubules and interstitial is known as:
    1. Wilson disease
    2. Raynaud's disease
    3. Cystitis
    4. Pyelonephritis

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90. VP shunt is the surgical management for:
    1. Spinal bifida
    2. Brain tumor
    3. Hydrocephalus
    4. ASD

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91. Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in:
    1. Alzheimer's disease
    2. Brain abscess
    3. Meningitis
    4. Parkinson's disease

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92. Which microorganism lacks a true nucleus?
    1. Bacteria
    2. Protozoa
    3. Fungi
    4. Algae

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93. Which fungal species is known to cause athlete's foot?
    1. Candida albicans
    2. Aspergillus Fumigatus
    3. Trichophyton rubrum
    4. Cryptococcus neoformans

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94. Which microorganism is responsible for Causing Syphilis?
    1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    2. Treponema pallidum
    3. Chlamydia trachomatis
    4. Haemophilus ducreyi

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95. Which chemical in commonly used for high level disinfection in healthcare settings?
    1. Sodium Hypochlorite
    2. Isopropyl alcohol
    3. Glutaraldehyde
    4. Hydrogen peroxide

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96. Which type of cell directly kills infected host cells?
    1. Helper cells
    2. Cytotoxic T cells
    3. Dendritic cells
    4. B Cells

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97. Which strategy aims to prevent injuries and promote safe environment for children?
    1. Immunization
    2. Early Childhood education
    3. Active Supervision
    4. Nutrition

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98. Which Concept Involves Providing Comfort and Support for Children with life limiting conditions and their families?
    1. Developmental Care
    2. Palliative Care
    3. Family Cantered Care
    4. Curative Care

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99. Which vital sign is important for a nurse to monitor closely in neonate?
    1. Blood pressure
    2. Heart rate
    3. Temperature
    4. Respiratory rate

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100. Which nursing action is essential for preventing hypothermia in a Neonate?
     1. Delaying Swaddling
     2. Keeping the nursery warm
     3. Bathing the neonate immediately after birth
     4. Administration cold fluids

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101. What is typical milestone in gross motor skills development for a toddler?
     1. Riding a bicycle
     2. Jumping with both feet of the ground
     3. Skipping rope
     4. Running with steady balance

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102. Test perception of a baby develops at:
     1. Birth
     2. 3 months
     3. 6 months
     4. 8 months

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103. What is the dose of habitat in b antigen in hepatitis b vaccine to be given to children?
     1. 5 IU
     2. 10 IU
     3. 20 IU
     4. 50 IU

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104. Most common heart abnormality in child?
     1. Atrial septal defect
     2. Tetralogy of Fallot
     3. Total anomalous pulmonary venous condition
     4. Ventricular septal defect

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105. Absent seizures are characterized by:
     1. In frequent occurrence
     2. Frequent association with vocalisation
     3. Aura proceeding the incident
     4. Induction of hyperventilation

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106. Neonate with retrolental fibroplasia is associated with:
     1. Hypoxia
     2. Hypocapnia
     3. Hypoxemia
     4. Hyperoxemia

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107. What is common nursing intervention for child with gastroenteritis?
     1. Encouraging high fibre food
     2. Restricting fluid intake
     3. Administrative antiemetic medication
     4. Monitoring for signs of dehydration

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108. What is the role of Golgi apparatus in the cells?
     1. ATP synthesis
     2. Protein modification and packaging
     3. DNA replication
     4. Lipid synthesis

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109. What is the role of surfactant in the lungs?
     1. Generation of ATP
     2. Regulation of PH in the alveoli
     3. Protection against pathogens
     4. Reduction of surface tension in the alveoli

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110. Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver?
     1. Vitamin A
     2. Vitamin B12
     3. Vitamin K
     4. Vitamin C

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111. Which hormone regulate water absorption in the kidney?
     1. Insulin
     2. Aldosterone
     3. Estrogen
     4. Thyroxine

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112. What's the primary function of loop of family in the nephron?
     1. Reabsorption of water and ionic
     2. Filtration of blood
     3. Secretion of waste products
     4. Regulation of blood products

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113. Which muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm?
     1. Biceps Brachii
     2. Triceps Brachii
     3. Deltoid
     4. Rectus abdominis

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114. Which structure connects muscle to bone?
     1. Tendon
     2. Ligament
     3. Cartilage
     4. Meniscus

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115. Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right halves?
     1. Sagittal plane
     2. Frontal plan
     3. Transverse plan
     4. Coronal plane

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116. What is the function of valves in the veins?
     1. Pump the blood to the heart
     2. Exchange gases
     3. Produce antibodies
     4. Prevent back flow

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117. What is the role of the sinoatrial node (SA node)?
     1. Maintain blood pressure
     2. Conduct electrical impulses to atria
     3. Regulate heart rate and rhythm
     4. Pump blood into the ventricles

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118. Which lipid is a major component of cellular membranes?
     1. Triglycerides
     2. Phospholipids
     3. Steroids
     4. Waxes

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119. Which nucleic acid carries the genetic information in the cells?
     1. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
     2. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
     3. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
     4. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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120. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into:
     1. Pyruvate
     2. Acetyl-COA
     3. Lactate
     4. Fructose

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