NEET PG 2021 Previous Year Question Paper

Master NEET PG with 15 Years of Solved Question Papers (2012-2025) --NEET PG 2021 Previous Year Question Paper

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NEET PG Last 15 Years 2012-2025 Previous Question Papers with Answers (Solved Question Papers)

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Pen Test is for which nerve
1. Median Nerve
2. Ulnar nerve
3. PIN
4. Musculocutaneous
Answer: A Median Nerve

Explanation
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The doctor places a small needle electrode into muscles in your hand and arm that get impulses from the median nerve. The needle sends electric impulses into the muscle. You relax and flex your hand several times. The doctor can tell if your median nerve is damaged or being squeezed.
A small boy with multiple fracture of Humerus following which there is loss of sensation over lateral side of forearm, difficulty in flexion of elbow & supination of forearm.
1. Musculocutaneous nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Axillary
4. Radial nerve
Answer: A Musculocutaneous nerve

Explanation
- Nerve roots - C5-C7.
- Motor functions – muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm (coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the brachialis).
- Sensory functions – gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm, which innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm.
- These muscles flex the upper arm at the shoulder and the elbow. In addition, the biceps brachii also supinates the forearm.
Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood back to placenta
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1. Umbilical Artery
2. Umbilical vein
3. Uterine artery
4. Descending aorta
Answer: A Umbilical artery
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Explanation:

The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated fetal blood toward the placenta for replenishment, and the umbilical vein carries newly oxygenated and nutrient-rich blood back to the fetus.
Structure preventing vertical descent of spleen
1. Phrenocolic ligament
2. Hepatogastric ligament
3. Ligamentum teres
4. Ligamentum flavum
Answer: A Phrenicocolic ligament.

Explanation:
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The phrenicocolic ligament is continued from the left colic flexure to the thoracic diaphragm opposite the tenth and eleventh ribs; it passes below and serves to support the spleen. This ligament marks the site where the colon exits the peritoneal cavity: the phrenicocolic ligament so is an important point of intersection of abdominal anatomy and, consequently, a crucial point for spread of abdominal disease.
Which nerve is required for GAG reflex
1. 9th cranial nerve
2. 10th cranial nerve
3. 11th cranial nerve
4. 12th cranial nerve
Answer: A 9th cranial nerve

Explanation:

The gag reflex, also called the pharyngeal reflex, is a contraction of the throat that happens when something touches the roof of the mouth, the back of the tongue or throat, or the area around the tonsils. This reflexive action helps to prevent choking. The afferent nerve for gag reflex is glossopharyngeal nerve and efferent nerve is vagus nerve.
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The Great saphenous vein graft was used for a patient in CABG. Post surgery the patient is having a neuralgia on the medial aspect of leg and foot. Which nerve has been injured?
1. Saphenous Nerve
2. Femoral vein
3. Profunda femoris vein
4. Popliteal vein
Answer: A Saphenous vein

Explanation:

Saphenous neuralgia after harvest of GSV for CABG is common. The main symptom is anaesthesia and certain areas may persist for some considerable time post-operatively.Hyperaesthesia and pain, for the early onset and the early disappearance, are considered as a normal consequence of surgical procedure from around 5 days to 8 weeks and anaesthesia does not last longer than 2 months.

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Beta 2 receptors act via following secondary messenger
1. Adenylate Cyclase
2. Tyrosine kinase receptors
3. TGF-beta receptors
4. Cytokine receptors
Answer: A Adenylate Cyclase for beta-2 receptors.

Explanation:
A child presented with dehydration and was supplemented with ORS solution for management. Which of the following receptors help in the absorption of glucose fromGIT?
1. SGLT 1
2. SGLT 2
3. GLUT 1
4. GLUT 2
Answer: A SGLT 1

Explanation:
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Majority of glucose is absorbed via GLUT transporters in the body. However, the exception for this is the GIT and the Kidneys, where it is absorbed via the SGLT 1 and SGLT 2 receptors, which act as Sodium Glucose Co-transporters. Since ORS has both sodium and glucose, it is absorbed from the intestinal cell from the lumen via SGLT 1 receptors.
A patient presented with cold skin, fatigue, shortness of breath with activity and enlarged liver. His JVP was measured which showed higher amplitude of “a” wave JVP is due to
1. Tricuspid Regurgitation
2. Tricuspid Stenosis
3. Mitral Regurgitation
4. Mitral Stenosis
Answer: B Tricuspid Stenosis
The body fluid compartments of a patient were measured, which showed the following values:
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Na-10

K-140

CI-15

Name the fluid compartment.
1. Interstitial fluid
2. ECF
3. ICF
4. Total body fluid
Answer: C ICF

Explanation:
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The given values show low sodium and high potassium levels. ECF always has higher sodium concentration than IC. Hence the given fluid compartment is ICF.
An elderly female presented with dribbling of urine only on coughing and straining. What type of urinary incontinence is she suffering from?
1. Stress incontinence
2. Urge incontinence
3. Overflow incontinence
4. Neurogenic bladder
Answer: A Stress incontinence.

Explanation:

During coughing or straining, the intra-abdominal pressure increases, resulting in stress incontinence due to relaxed pelvic floor muscles.
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A young patient presented with muscle spasms, numbness in hands and feet, seizures and difficulty in breathing due to laryngospasm.. His blood picture showed electrolyte imbalance. What is the cause for these manifestations in the patient.
1. Respiratory Acidosis
2. Respiratory Alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B Respiratory Alkalosis

Explanation:

The given patient is suffering from tetany due to hypocalcemia. The levels of free and bound calcium are determined by:
1. Albumin
2. Blood pH levels
Alkalosis results in decreased H+ ion concentration, resulting in more albumin binding to calcium. This causes reduced free calcium levels leading to hypocalcemia and tetany in this patient.
A patient on a maize diet presented with diarrhea, dementia and dysentry. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for the features
1. Niacin
2. Thiamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Pyridoxine
Answer: A Niacin

Explanation:
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- Maize in Low in Tryptophan which is an essential amino acid required for Niacin synthesis. This leads to Niacin deficiency in the population who have a diet majorly consisting of maize.
- Niacin Deficiency leads to pellagra which classically presents with diarrhoea, dementia and dysentry.
A patient presented with dryness in eye with a gritty sensation along with corneal softening. What is the most probable cause ?
1. Vitamin A deficiency
2. Riboflavin Deficiency
3. Viral Keratitis
4. Follicular conjunctivitis
Answer: A Vitamin A deficiency

Explanation:
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Xeropthalmia [Dryness of Eye] is the a common presenting feature of Vitamin A Deficiency along with Keratomalacia [Softening of Cornea]
Which amino acid needs to be supplemented through diet in patient with cystathionine beta synthase
1. Cysteine
2. Methionine
3. Serine
4. Tryptophan
Answer: A Cysteine

Explanation:

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Corneal Transparency is maintained by which of the following GAGs
1. Keratan Sulphate
2. Dermatan Sulphate
3. Heparan Sulphate
4. Chondroitin Sulphate
Answer: A Keratan Sulphate

Explanation:
- Keratan Sulphate is made up of N Acetyl Glucosamine + Galactose
- It was first discovered in cornea [and responsible is corneal transparency]
- Also it is the only glycosaminoglycan without any acid sugar [Hence does not require uronic acid pathway]
Which of the following is associated with defect in mismatch repair
1. Hereditary NPCC
2. SCID
3. Bloom Disorder
4. MUTYH Associated Polyposis
Answer: A Hereditary NPCC
A patient had dinner at 8 PM in the night and dose his blood sugar test at 7 AM in the morning. What is the major source of glucose
1. Muscle Glycogen
2. Liver Glycogen
3. Gluconeogenesis
4. Dietary Carbohydrate
Answer: B Liver Glycogen

: Source of Blood Glucose
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- Fed State [0-4 Hrs after Meal]- Dietary Carbohydrate
- Fasting Stage I [4-16 Hrs Post Prandial]- Liver Glycogen [Note Muscle Glycogen never contributes to blood glucose]
- Fasting Stage II /III/IV [16-48 Hrs Post Prandial]- Gluconeogenesis . Liver Glycogen exhausted after 16 hrs.
A patient with tendon xanthomas, Increased LDL and cholesterol . What is the most probable diagnosis ?
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1. Type I Hyperlipoproteinemia
2. Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia
3. Type III Hyperlipoproteinemia
4. Abetalipoproteinemia
Answer: B Type II Hyperlipoproteinemia
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A 5 year old child was brought to the physician with a history of black urine . There is no history of fever or any other complaints. There is no growth retardation and all the developmental milestones are normal. The child is suspected to have an enzyme defect for metabolism of an aromatic amino acid. What is the enzyme deficient ?
1. Homogentistae oxidase
2. Homogentisate dehydrogenase
3. Tryptophan Hydroxylase
4. Tyrosine Transaminase
Answer: A Homogentistae oxidase

Explanation:

Diagnosis - Alkaptonuria

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A Patient presents to you with generalized weakness and easy fatigability. He gives you a history of working in a factory with an exposure to Benzene. Which of the following cases would you suspect in this patient
1. Blood Cancer
2. Urinary Bladder Cancer
3. Carcinoma Gall Bladder
4. Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Answer: A Blood Cancer

Explanation:
- Benzene causes harmful effects on the bone marrow and can cause a decrease in red blood cells, leading to anemia. It can also cause excessive bleeding and can affect the immune system, increasing the chance for infection.
- The Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) has determined that benzene causes cancer in humans. Long-term exposure to high levels of benzene in the air can cause leukemia, cancer of the blood-forming organs.

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Chronic Alcoholic patient with history of increasing abdominal girth . On liver biopsy there are reddish inclusions . What are these made up of
1. Actin
2. Microtubules
3. Intermediate filaments
4. Myofibril
Answer: C Intermediate filaments

Explanation:

Accumulation of intermediate filaments in lung macrophages and endotheliocytes has been found in patients with chronic alcoholism and purulent destructive pulmonary diseases. Excess accumulation of cytoskeletal elements reflects cell dystrophy.
All are increased in IDA except?
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1. TIBC
2. Soluble transferrin receptor
3. Transferrin saturation
4. Erythropoietin
Answer: C Transferrin saturation
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Explanation:
- High iron binding capacity and low transferrin saturation are suggestive of iron deficiency (even in the presence of a normal or elevated ferritin).
Woman on pap smear having disorganised growth of cells with hyperchromatic nuclei, which phenomenon is occurring here
1. Dysplasia
2. Metaplasia
3. Hypertrophy
4. Carcinoma
Answer: D: Carcinoma

Explanation:
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Differentiation: refers to the morphology of cells compared to normal cells of the same tissue. Well differentiated tumour cells look and function like normal cells of the tissue. Poorly differentiated tumour cells (anaplastic cells) do not function like the normal tissue and appear abnormal on microscopy. Anaplastic cells have the following features:
- Pleomorphic: continual variation in size and shape.
- Hyperchromatic: cells are dark-staining with large nuclei.
- Loss of polarity: normal cells are anchored and oriented to the basement membrane; anaplastic cells lose this uniform orientation and the tumour cells grow in a disorganized way.
- Mitoses: increased proliferation results in abnormally large number of cells undergoing mitosis.
Poor prognostic marker in MM is-
1. S. creatinine
2. Hypercalcemia
3. B2 microglobulins
4. Telomerase
Answer: C: B2 microglobulins

Explanation:

Beta 2 microglobulin is a low molecular weight protein found on the surface of all nucleated cells: it is the light chain of the HL-A histocompatibility complex. The increased levels of serum beta 2 microglobulin in patients with multiple myeloma have been associated with a poor prognosis.

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A 34 year old female presenting to the OPD with migratory arthritis and examination revealed a pan systolic murmur. ECHO was performed which is suggestive of mitral regurgitation. Biopsy image is provided. Diagnosis will be?
1. Infective endocarditis
2. Rheumatic heart disease
3. SABE
4. Cardiac failure
Answer: B: Rheumatic heart disease

Explanation:

An endomyocardial biopsy performed at cardiac catheterization demonstrated and Aschoff's body in the endocardium and thus confirmed a clinical suspicion of active carditis.

Aschoff bodies are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with rheumatic fever. They result from inflammation in the heart muscle and are characteristic of rheumatic heart disease.

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A 18 year old male presented to the OPD with gum bleeding, fever low TLC and low platelet count. General examination is unremarkable. Further investigation show a low reticulocyte count, absent megakaryocytes and no immature cells. Dlagnosis will be?
1. Aplastic anemia
2. MDS
3. PNH
4. None
Answer: A: Aplastic anemia

Explanation:

Symptoms are due to the underproduction of red cells, white cells, & platelets. Symptoms may be severe from the start or gradually worsen over time as the disease progresses

Low red cell count can cause:
- Fatigue
- Pallor
- Rapid heart rate
- Shortness of breath with excercise
- Weakness
- Lightheadedness upon standing
- Leukopenia can cause increase risk of infection
- Thrombocytopenia can cause bleeding:- Bleeding gums, easy bruising, Nose bleeds, rash
Blood test will show
- Anaemia
- Leukopenia
- Low reticulocyte count
- Low platelet count
HNPCC has defect in
1. Nucleotide excision
2. Base pair excision
3. Point mutation
4. Mismatch repair gene
Answer: D: Mismatch repair gene

Explanation:
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Patient with general fatigue and tiredness. Primary clinical examination is uneventful.Normal TLC, DLC. No immature cells seen. Superficial discrete lymphnodes enlarged. On biopsy effaced architecture, indented nucleus and prominent nucleolus containing atypical cells. CD 10 & BCL-2 positive.
1. Follicular
2. Burkitts
3. NHL
4. Mycosis Fungoides
Answer: A: Follicular

Explanation:

The diagnosis of follicular lymphoma is confirmed by removing all or part of an enlarged lymph node to examine its cells under a microscope, a procedure known as a biopsy.

CD10 expression is present in cases of FL. Follicles demonstrated strong positivity. One CD10- positive case of FL showed equivocal staining for BCL2 and one an absence of staining for BCL2.
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What is the mechanism of action of Tocilizumab?
1. Inhibits binding of IL-1
2. Inhibits binding of IL-6 to its receptor IL-6R
3. TNF Alpha inhibition
4. IL-18 inhibition
Answer: B: Inhibits binding of IL-6 to its receptor IL-6R

Explanation:

Tocilizumab is a novel monoclonal antibody that competitively inhibits the binding of interleukin-6 (IL-6) to its receptor (IL-6R). Inhibiting the entire receptor complex prevents IL-6 signal transduction to inflammatory mediators that summon B and T cells. Tocilizumab has a nonlinear pharmacokinetic profile. It may be beneficial for the treatment of RA in patients who do not respond to methotrexate or disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.

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What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate
1. Inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase
2. Inhibits cell replication by acting on G phase of cell cycle
3. Inhibits pyrimidine synthesis
4. Inhibits Thymidylate synthase
Answer: A: Inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase

Explanation:

Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, preventing the reduction of dihydrobiopterin (BH2) to tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4), leading to nitric oxide synthase uncoupling and increased sensitivity of T cells to apoptosis, thereby diminishing immune responses
Which antitubercular drug inhibits the action of OCPs?
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1. Rifampicin
2. Ethambutol
3. Isoniazid
4. Pyrazinamide
Answer: A: Rifampicin
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Explanation:

Rifampicin causes an increase in the rate of metabolism of OCPs, resulting in unacceptable rates of breakthrough bleeding and pregnancy.Rifampin, an inducer of enzymes that metabolizes estrogens, decreases the effectiveness of OCPs. Other drugs that cause a reduction in the efficacy of OCPs include anticonvulsants including carbamazepine, phenytoin, topiramate and selected
A patient is on digoxin therapy with some concomitant medications. At presentation, the patient develops atrial fibrillation with control ventricular rate & his serum digoxin raised from his previous value. Which of the following medication have enhanced digoxin toxicity?
1. Atenolol
2. Clarithromycin
3. KCL
4. Triamterene
Answer: B: Clarithromycin

Explanation:
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- Atrial fibrillation along with AV Node block is the characteristic arrhythmia observed in Digoxin toxicity. The serum digoxin level must not be more than 2.0ng/ml.
- Digoxin inhibits Na+K+ATPase pump by binding to the potassium binding site on the myocardial cell. This in turn leads to increased intracellular Ca leading to increased ionotropic effects.In cases of hypokalemia in blood, more digoxin binds to the myocardium and precipitates digoxin toxicity. Loop and thiazide diuretics produce hypokalemia. RAAS inhibitors cause hyperkalemia. Beta blockers decrease renin release and produce hyperkalemia. Potassium sparing diuretics inhibit the action of aldosterone.
- P-glycoprotein inhibitors like clarithromycin increase the digoxin toxicity.
A patient is taking metronidazole for anaerobic infection. Which of the following should be avoided during this period.
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1. Alcohol
2. Ciprofloxacin
3. Rifampicin
4. Colchicine
Answer: A: Alcohol
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Explanation:

Consumption of alcohol while taking metronidazole results in disulfiram like reaction in the body. The patient experiences headaches, stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, and flushing (warmth, redness, or tingly feeling).
Topiramate is used in the treatment of
1. Migraine
2. LGS
3. ADHD
4. Dementia
Answer: A: Migraine

Explanation:
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The recommended dosage of topiramate for migraine prevention is 50 mg twice per day. Patients should start with 25 mg once per day, then increase by 25 mg per week up to the recommended dosage. Topiramate is a neuromodulatory compound with neuron stabilizing properties and is approved for the preventive treatment of migraine.
Which of the following drugs is used for the long term management of obesity?
1. Sibutramine
2. Fenfluramine
3. Metformin
4. Liraglutide
Answer: D: Liraglutide

Explanation:

Liraglutide acts as a GLP-1 agonist and helps in long term management of obesity. Fenfluramine and Sibutramine are banned due to their increased cardiovascular toxicity. Bupropion in combination with naltrexone or zonisamide is also used for the management of obesity.
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A child accidentally ingested some fruit which he plucked from a tree while playing. After the ingestion of the fruit, he presented with restlessness, painful swallowing, photophobia, dry skin, urinary retention and elevated body temperature. What is the possible poisoning and the appropriate antidote for it?
1. Datura & Physostigmine
2. Yellow oleander & Physostigmine
3. Datura & Pralidoxime
4. Yellow oleander & Pralidoxime
Answer: A: Datura & Physostigmine

Explanation:

This is a case of datura poisoning showing the manifestations of excess atropine levels.. The antidote of choice is physostigmine as neostigmine does not cross the blood brain barrier. Physostigmine acts as anticholinesterase and increases the levels of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction.

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A 30 year old male presents with a history of consumption of some unknown substance. The attending doctor notices the person to be having diaphoresis, headache and acute coronary spasm like features. The person is least likely to show which clinical feature?
1. Bradycardia
2. Tachycardia
3. Hyperthermia
4. Hypertension
Answer: A: Bradycardia.

Explanation:

This is a case of cocaine overdose.Cocaine is predominantly a vasoconstrictor. It leads to an increase in the heart rate. Respiratory rate and blood pressure. It also causes a rise in the body temperature, known as ‘Cocaine Fever'.
A doctor at autopsy noticed the following finding on a cadaver. Which of the following is true regarding this finding?
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1. It is due to sulphaemoglobin pigment
2. This change is seen at 24 hours
3. It is non bacterial
4. It is associated with lightning case
Answer: A: It is due to sulphaemoglobin pigment
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Explanation:

The finding in the above image is Marbling. This change starts at about 24hours after death. It becomes visible to the naked eye at 36-48 hours after death. It is due to sulphaemoglobin pigment.
Identify the injury
1. Incised looking laceration
2. Laceration
3. Laceration looking incision
4. Incision
Answer: A: Incised looking laceration

Explanation:
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While recording evidence in the court of law, lawyer asked the witness, “Were you present when A killed B?”, and the witness answered “yes”. This type of questioning is permitted in?
1. Examination in chief
2. Direct examination
3. Redirect examination
4. Cross examination
Answer: D: Cross examination.

Explanation:

this is a type of leading question and it is permitted in cross examination.

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A dead body was recovered from near a pond by the police. During autopsy, the following finding was observed. The below phenomenon is due to
1. Case of torture in hot water
2. Case of postmortem hanging
3. Case of immersion in water for 36 hours
4. Case of colliquative liquefaction
Answer: C: Case of immersion in water for 36 hours

Explanation:

this is a case of immersion in water for more than 36hrs which is characterized by mottling and greenish black discolouration of the skin due to putrefactive changes.
A woman gave birth to twins. However, her husband asked for a DNA fingerprinting test as he believed that the babies did not belong to him. The results showed that one baby did not belong to him. This is a case of:
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1. Superfecundation
2. Superfetation
3. Atavism
4. Posthumus child
Answer: A: Superfecundation
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Explanation:

Superfecundation- two different acts of coitus leading to foetus formation. It can be with two different males.

Actual twins occur due to single act of coitus

Superfoetation- conceiving to foetuses in two different cycles of mensruation

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A man was sitting in the balcony which was overlooking a park. He was sitting naked for sexual gratification. This is called
1. Voyeurism
2. Masochism
3. Exhibitionism
4. Fetishism
Answer: C: Exhibitionism

Explanation:

Exhibitionism- display of private parts in public. It is punishable under section 294 IPC.

Masochism- Giving pain to others

Fetishism-Sexual gratification is obtained from inanimate objects belonging to the opposite gender.
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Stalking- Following a female physically or digitally, inspite of clear prior disinterest showed by the female.
A daily wage labourer was working in the farm on a hot summer day and suddenly collapsed. He was brought to the hospital and the attending doctor measured his body temperature as 106 degrees fahrenheit. Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be seen?
1. Sweating
2. Hot skin
3. Hypotension
4. Disorientation
Answer: A: Sweating

Explanation:

The given person is doing muscular activity in hot weather conditions. His body temperature is 40.5 degrees centigrade. These conditions result in heat stroke. At this temperature, the hypothalamus ceases to function causing an absence of sweating.
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Identify the active principle in the poisonous seed shown below
1. Abrin
2. Ricin
3. Cannabinol
4. Bhilawanol
Answer:
This download link is referred from the post: NEET PG Last 15 Years 2012-2025 Previous Question Papers with Answers (Solved Question Papers)

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This post was last modified on 25 May 2025

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