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Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA


Topic:- BIOSCI MSC S2

  1. Balbiani Rings occur in
    [Question ID = 9207]
    1. Autosomes [Option ID = 36822]
    2. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Hetrosomes [Option ID = 36823]
    4. Polytene chromosomes [Option ID = 36824]
    5. Lampbrush chromosomes [Option ID = 36825]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Polytene chromosomes [Option ID = 36824]
  2. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  3. Which of the following is NOT a type of cancer?
    [Question ID = 9208]
    1. Carcinomas [Option ID = 36826]
    2. Sarcomas [Option ID = 36827]
    3. Leukemia [Option ID = 36828]
    4. Colitis [Option ID = 36829]
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Colitis [Option ID = 36829]
  4. If DNA is damaged, which of the following genes arrest cell cycle?
    [Question ID = 9209]
    1. Rb [Option ID = 36830]
    2. p53 [Option ID = 36831]
    3. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Hedgehog receptor [Option ID = 36832]
    5. p16 [Option ID = 36833]
    Correct Answer :-
    • p53 [Option ID = 36831]
  5. Name the term where a single pre-mRNA is processed into a number of products?

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9210]
    1. Alternate splicing [Option ID = 36834]
    2. Polyadenylation [Option ID = 36835]
    3. Capping [Option ID = 36836]
    4. Intron removal [Option ID = 36837]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Alternate splicing [Option ID = 36834]
    • --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

  6. What is the role of the sigma factor in transcription?
    [Question ID = 9211]
    1. Helicase action [Option ID = 36838]
    2. Transcription initiation [Option ID = 36839]
    3. Transcription elongation [Option ID = 36840]
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Transcription termination [Option ID = 36841]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Transcription initiation [Option ID = 36839]
  7. How many base pairs are there in every helical turn of Watson-Crick double helix model ?
    [Question ID = 9212]
    1. 32.3 [Option ID = 36842]
    2. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. 20.6 [Option ID = 36843]
    4. 10.4 [Option ID = 36845]
    Correct Answer :-
    • 10.4 [Option ID = 36845]
  8. A purified DNA sample of leaf contains 20% of guanine. Calculate the approximate percentage of purine residues?

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9213]
    1. 30% [Option ID = 36846]
    2. 40% [Option ID = 36847]
    3. 50% [Option ID = 36848]
    4. 60% [Option ID = 36849]
    Correct Answer :-
    • 50% [Option ID = 36848]
    • --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  9. How many numbers of replicon are found in E.coli?
    [Question ID = 9214]
    1. Five replicon [Option ID = 36850]
    2. Two replicon [Option ID = 36851]
    3. Single replicon [Option ID = 36852]
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Multiple replicon [Option ID = 36853]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Single replicon [Option ID = 36852]
  10. What is the role of snoRNA in eukaryotes?
    [Question ID = 9215]
    1. Chemical modification of rRNA [Option ID = 36854]
    2. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. RNA splicing [Option ID = 36855]
    4. Act as adaptor RNA [Option ID = 36856]
    5. Forms component of the ribosome [Option ID = 36857]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Chemical modification of rRNA [Option ID = 36854]
  11. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  12. Which of the following sequence of RNA is recognized by the small subunit of the ribosome?
    [Question ID = 9216]
    1. Rho utilization site [Option ID = 36858]
    2. Downstream sequence [Option ID = 36859]
    3. Upstream sequence [Option ID = 36860]
    4. Shine-Dalgarno sequence [Option ID = 36861]
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Shine-Dalgarno sequence [Option ID = 36861]
  13. Which of the following acts as the major neurotransmitter in substantia nigra?
    [Question ID = 9217]
    1. Dopamine [Option ID = 36862]
    2. Noradrenaline [Option ID = 36863]
    3. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Acetylcholine [Option ID = 36864]
    5. Serotonin [Option ID = 36865]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Dopamine [Option ID = 36862]
  14. The electrochemical equilibrium of a neuron can be calculated using which equation?

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9218]
    1. Bernouli equation [Option ID = 36866]
    2. Henderson-Hassalbach equation [Option ID = 36867]
    3. Leyden's equation [Option ID = 36868]
    4. Nernst equation [Option ID = 36869]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Nernst equation [Option ID = 36869]
    • --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  15. Which is true about composition of Blood?
    [Question ID = 9219]
    1. Plasma-55%, Protein/WBC-1%, RBC- 45% [Option ID = 36870]
    2. Plasma-50%, Protein/WBC-3%, RBC- 47% [Option ID = 36871]
    3. Plasma-55%, Protein/WBC-1%, RBC- 45% [Option ID = 36872]
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Plasma-55%, Protein/WBC-1%, RBC- 45% [Option ID = 36870]
  16. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the ear and hearing?
    [Question ID = 9220]
    1. The range of human hearing is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz [Option ID = 36874]
    2. Conductive hearing loss would be evident if a person had a similar degree of hearing loss for air conduction and bone conduction [Option ID = 36875]
    3. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. The ear is most sensitive to frequencies between about 100 Hz and 300 Hz [Option ID = 36876]
    5. The endolymph of the scala media is similar in composition to plasma [Option ID = 36877]
    Correct Answer :-
    • The range of human hearing is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz [Option ID = 36874]
  17. During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre, the

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9221]
    1. (1) Sarcomeres shorten [Option ID = 36878]
    2. (2) A bands shorten [Option ID = 36879]
    3. (3) I bands shorten [Option ID = 36880]
    4. (4) 1 and 3 [Option ID = 36881]
    Correct Answer :-
    • (4) 1 and 3 [Option ID = 36881]
    • --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  18. The rate-limiting factor in causing blood coagulation is
    [Question ID = 9222]
    1. Prothrombin activator [Option ID = 36882]
    2. Thrombin [Option ID = 36883]
    3. Fibrinogen [Option ID = 36884]
    4. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Fibrin stabilizing factor [Option ID = 36885]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Prothrombin activator [Option ID = 36882]
  19. In different types of tissue transplantations, the rate of graft rejection in decreasing order is
    [Question ID = 9223]
    1. Isograft > xenograft > allograft [Option ID = 36886]
    2. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Allograft > isograft > xenograft [Option ID = 36887]
    4. Xenograft > autograft > allograft [Option ID = 36888]
    5. Xenograft > allograft > isograft [Option ID = 36889]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Xenograft > allograft > isograft [Option ID = 36889]
  20. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  21. Reticulo-endothelial cells are present in
    [Question ID = 9224]
    1. Kidney, Spleen & Bone marrow [Option ID = 36890]
    2. Lung, Spleen & Bone marrow [Option ID = 36891]
    3. Liver, Spleen & Bone marrow [Option ID = 36892]
    4. Intestine, Spleen & Bone marrow [Option ID = 36893]
    5. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Liver, Spleen & Bone marrow [Option ID = 36892]
  22. The central foveal region in eye contains
    [Question ID = 9225]
    1. Only rods [Option ID = 36894]
    2. Both rods and cones [Option ID = 36895]
    3. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Only cones [Option ID = 36896]
    5. Neither rods nor cones [Option ID = 36897]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Only cones [Option ID = 36896]
  23. 1 osmole of solute dissolved in each of water

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9226]
    1. 1 osmole of solute Dissolved in each kg of water [Option ID = 36899]
    2. 1 osmole of solute dissolved in each L of water [Option ID = 36900]
    3. 1 osmole of solute dissolved in each mL of water [Option ID = 36901]
    Correct Answer :-
    • 1 osmole of solute dissolved in each kg of water [Option ID = 36899]
  24. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  25. Methioninine Synthase is a dependent Enzyme
    [Question ID = 9227]
    1. Vitamin B3 [Option ID = 36902]
    2. Vitamin B6 [Option ID = 36903]
    3. Vitamin B12 [Option ID = 36904]
    4. Vitamin B61 [Option ID = 36905]
    5. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Vitamin B12 [Option ID = 36904]
  26. Hypertension of unknown etiology is represented by
    [Question ID = 9228]
    1. (1) Essential hypertension [Option ID = 36906]
    2. (2) Toxemia of pregnancy [Option ID = 36907]
    3. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. (3) Acute intermittent porphyria [Option ID = 36908]
    5. (4) 1 and 3 [Option ID = 36909]
    Correct Answer :-
    • (1) Essential hypertension [Option ID = 36906]
  27. Which of the following drugs is a ganglionic blocker?

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9229]
    1. Prazosin [Option ID = 36910]
    2. Ydralazine [Option ID = 36911]
    3. Mecamylamine [Option ID = 36912]
    4. Nicardipine [Option ID = 36913]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Mecamylamine [Option ID = 36912]
    • --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  28. Dramatic decrease in systemic availability of a drug following oral administration is most likely due to
    [Question ID = 9230]
    1. Extreme drug instability at stomach pH [Option ID = 36914]
    2. Hepatic "first-pass" effect [Option ID = 36915]
    3. Drug metabolized by gut flora [Option ID = 36916]
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Patient non-compliance [Option ID = 36917]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Hepatic "first-pass" effect [Option ID = 36915]
  29. Type(s) of derivatives associated with phase II metabolic reactions include(s)
    [Question ID = 9231]
    1. (1) Glucuronide acid derivatives [Option ID = 36918]
    2. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. (2) Sulfation derivative [Option ID = 36919]
    4. (3) Neither [Option ID = 36920]
    5. (4) Both 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36921]
    Correct Answer :-
  30. Which of the following is the characteristic(s) of aspirin overdose?

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9232]
    1. (1) Pyloric valve spasm [Option ID = 36922]
    2. (2) Acidity [Option ID = 36923]
    3. (3) Both 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36924]
    4. (4) Neither [Option ID = 36925]
    Correct Answer :-
    • (3) Both 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36924]
    • --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

  31. Which of the following is effective in the management of mild to moderate pain, when anti-inflammatory action is not necessary?
    [Question ID = 9233]
    1. Penicillamine [Option ID = 36926]
    2. Sulfasalazine [Option ID = 36927]
    3. Acetaminophen [Option ID = 36928]
    4. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Piroxicam [Option ID = 36929]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Acetaminophen [Option ID = 36928]
  32. Risk differs from hazard in that, the risk
    [Question ID = 9234]
    1. Includes a consideration of the likelihood and severity [Option ID = 36930]
    2. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Is determined by toxicity studies [Option ID = 36931]
    4. Can only be assessed by trained professionals [Option ID = 36932]
    5. Is independent of exposure [Option ID = 36933]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Includes a consideration of the likelihood and severity [Option ID = 36930]
  33. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  34. Which of the following drugs work by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?
    [Question ID = 9235]
    1. Neostigmine [Option ID = 36934]
    2. Cyclizine [Option ID = 36935]
    3. Montelukast [Option ID = 36936]
    4. Fentanyl [Option ID = 36937]
    5. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Neostigmine [Option ID = 36934]
  35. Which type of epilepsy is treated with Ethosuximide ?
    [Question ID = 9236]
    1. Tonic-clonic seizures [Option ID = 36938]
    2. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome seizures [Option ID = 36939]
    3. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Absence seizures [Option ID = 36940]
    5. All of these [Option ID = 36941]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Absence seizures [Option ID = 36940]
  36. Which statement is true for competitive inhibition?

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9237]
    1. In competitive inhibit the addition of agonist shifts the dose response curve to the right [Option ID = 36942]
    2. In competitive inhibition may be irreversible [Option ID = 36944]
    3. Competitive inhibition has the ability to activate the receptor
    Correct Answer :-
    • In competitive inhibition, the addition of agonist shifts the dose response curve to the right [Option ID = 36942]
  37. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  38. The enzyme ultimately responsible for the formation of fibrin monomer is
    [Question ID = 9238]
    1. Plasminogen [Option ID = 36946]
    2. Thrombin [Option ID = 36947]
    3. Kininogen [Option ID = 36948]
    4. Prothrombin [Option ID = 36949]
    5. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Thrombin [Option ID = 36947]
  39. Paracrine secretion responsible for inhibiting gastric acid secretion is
    [Question ID = 9239]
    1. Somatostatin [Option ID = 36950]
    2. Gastrin [Option ID = 36951]
    3. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Histamine [Option ID = 36952]
    5. Enterogastrone [Option ID = 36953]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Somatostatin [Option ID = 36950]
  40. The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen will increase, if

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9240]
    1. The arterial pCO2 is increased [Option ID = 36954]
    2. The temperature is increased [Option ID = 36955]
    3. The arterial pO2 is increased [Option ID = 36956]
    4. The arterial pH is decreased [Option ID = 36957]
    Correct Answer :-
    • The arterial pO2 is increased [Option ID = 36956]
    • --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  41. Which of the following statement about spermatogenesis is correct?
    [Question ID = 9241]
    1. Production and release of spermatozoa is cyclic [Option ID = 36958]
    2. LH acts directly on sertoli cells to promote cell division [Option ID = 36959]
    3. Sertoli cells are required for mitotic and meiotic activity of germ cells [Option ID = 36960]
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Spermatogenesis requires continuous release of GnRH [Option ID = 36961]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Sertoli cells are required for mitotic and meiotic activity of germ cells [Option ID = 36960]
  42. Plasma levels of calcium can be increased most rapidly by the direct action of parathyroid hormone on the
    [Question ID = 9242]
    1. Kidney [Option ID = 36962]
    2. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Bones [Option ID = 36963]
    4. Thyroid gland [Option ID = 36964]
    5. Intestine [Option ID = 36965]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Bones [Option ID = 36963]
  43. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  44. Transcortical sensory aphasia is most likely to be associated with a lesion of
    [Question ID = 9243]
    1. The hippocampus [Option ID = 36966]
    2. The temporal lobe [Option ID = 36967]
    3. The parietal lobe [Option ID = 36968]
    4. The limbic system [Option ID = 36969]
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
  45. heni piset parsone is 'dehydrated, hypotonic solution is found in the
    [Question ID = 9244]
    1. Glomerular filtrate [Option ID = 36970]
    2. Loop of Henle [Option ID = 36971]
    3. Cortical collecting tubule [Option ID = 36972]
    4. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Distal collecting duct [Option ID = 36973]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Loop of Henle [Option ID = 36971]
  46. The principal steroid secreted by the fetal adrenal cortex is
    [Question ID = 9245]
    1. Dehydroepiandrosterone [Option ID = 36974]
    2. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Corticosterone [Option ID = 36975]
    4. Cortisol [Option ID = 36976]
    5. Pregnenolone [Option ID = 36977]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Dehydroepiandrosterone [Option ID = 36974]
  47. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  48. Vaccination is a form of
    [Question ID = 9246]
    1. (1) Active immunization [Option ID = 36978]
    2. (2) Passive immunization [Option ID = 36979]
    3. (3) Both [Option ID = 36980]
    4. (4) Neither [Option ID = 36981]
    5. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • (3) Both [Option ID = 36980]
  49. Which of the following diseases is associated with angiogenesis?
    [Question ID = 9247]
    1. Diabetes [Option ID = 36982]
    2. Cancer [Option ID = 36983]
    3. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Asthma [Option ID = 36984]
    5. AIDS [Option ID = 36985]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Cancer [Option ID = 36983]
  50. The F1 particles of mitochondria are

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9248]
    1. A type of ribosome that synthesizes mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 36986]
    2. A structural component of the mitochondrial outer membrane [Option ID = 36987]
    3. An enzyme complex that synthesizes ATP during respiration [Option ID = 36988]
    4. Storage complex for calcium phosphate in the mitochondria [Option ID = 36989]
    Correct Answer :-
    • An enzyme complex that synthesizes ATP during respiration [Option ID = 36988]
    • --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

  51. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of
    [Question ID = 9249]
    1. Type I hypersensitive reaction [Option ID = 36990]
    2. Type II hypersensitive reaction [Option ID = 36991]
    3. Type III hypersensitive reaction [Option ID = 36992]
    4. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Type IV hypersensitive reaction [Option ID = 36993]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Type III hypersensitive reaction [Option ID = 36992]
  52. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is an ion channel specific for
    [Question ID = 9250]
  53. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  54. [Option ID = 36995]
    1. Cl [Option ID = 36996]
    2. H+ [Option ID = 36997]
    Correct Answer :-
    • CL [Option ID = 36996]
  55. Under which phase of bacterial growth bacteria increases in size but do not divide?

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9251]
    1. Lag [Option ID = 36998]
    2. Log [Option ID = 36999]
    3. Stationary phase [Option ID = 37000]
    4. Death phase [Option ID = 37001]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Lag [Option ID = 36998]
    • --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  56. Which of the following features of HIV make it different from other members of this family?
    [Question ID = 9252]
    1. HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into cDNA [Option ID = 37002]
    2. HIV infects human cells that are CD4+ [Option ID = 37003]
    3. HIV is enveloped [Option ID = 37004]
    4. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. HIV encoded a number of small proteins such as tat and rev [Option ID = 37005]
    Correct Answer :-
    • HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into cDNA [Option ID = 37002]
  57. Sulfur oxidizing bacteria belongs to
    [Question ID = 9253]
    1. Chemoheterotroph [Option ID = 37006]
    2. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Chemolithoautotroph [Option ID = 37007]
    4. Chemolithoheterotroph [Option ID = 37008]
    5. Photolithoautotroph [Option ID = 37009]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Chemolithoautotroph [Option ID = 37007]
  58. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  59. RNA as a genetic material is found in, which of the following organism?
    [Question ID = 9254]
    1. Plasmodium [Option ID = 37010]
    2. Staphylococcus aureus [Option ID = 37011]
    3. Schizosaccharomycescerevisiae [Option ID = 37012]
    4. Poliovirus [Option ID = 37013]
    5. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer :-
    • Poliovirus [Option ID = 37013]
  60. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is
  61. y variant of Pneumococcus pneumonia
    [Option ID = 37014]
    1. Caused by a variant of common cold virus [Option ID = 37015]
    2. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. An acute form of asthma [Option ID = 37016]
    4. Related to all of these [Option ID = 37017]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Caused by a variant of common cold virus [Option ID = 37015]
  62. Viruses can be cultured in

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    [Question ID = 9256]
    1. (1) Chemically defined media as that used for bacteria [Option ID = 37018]
    2. (2) Living system only [Option ID = 37019]
    3. (3) Non-living matter also [Option ID = 37020]
    4. (4) Both 1 and 2 [Option ID = 37021]
    Correct Answer :-
    • (2) Living system only [Option ID = 37019]
    • --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  63. Which of the following fungi is a rich source of protein?
    [Question ID = 9257]
    1. Mushroom [Option ID = 37022]
    2. Aspergillus [Option ID = 37023]
    3. Penicillum [Option ID = 37024]
    4. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Mucor [Option ID = 37025]
    Correct Answer :-
    • Mushroom [Option ID = 37022]

    This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

  64. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---