FirstRanker Logo

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice is a hub of Question Papers & Study Materials for B-Tech, B.E, M-Tech, MCA, M.Sc, MBBS, BDS, MBA, B.Sc, Degree, B.Sc Nursing, B-Pharmacy, D-Pharmacy, MD, Medical, Dental, Engineering students. All services of FirstRanker.com are FREE

📱

Get the MBBS Question Bank Android App

Access previous years' papers, solved question papers, notes, and more on the go!

Install From Play Store

Download NEET PG 2020 Question Paper with Answers

Download NEET PG (The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test Postgraduate) 2020 Question Paper with Answers

This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

AIIMS PG Last10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answer Keys (Solved Question Papers)


FirstRanker.com

  1. Upward movement of the thyroid gland is prevented due to?

    1. Berry ligament
    2. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Pretracheal fascia
    4. Sternothyroid muscle
    5. Thyrohyoid membrane

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Pretracheal fascia

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    The thyroid gland is covered by a thin fibrous capsule, which has an inner and an outer layer. The inner layer extrudes into the gland and forms the septum that divides the thyroid tissue into microscopic lobules.

    The outer layer is continuous with the pretracheal fascia, attaching the gland to the cricoid and thyroid cartilages via a thickening of the fascia to form the posterior suspensory ligament of the thyroid gland also known as Berry's ligament. This causes the thyroid to move up and down with the movement of these cartilages when swallowing occurs.

    Gray's Anatomy: The Anatomical Basis of Clinical Practice, 41e,Page no 470

  2. The reason for the long left recurrent laryngeal nerve is due to the persistence of which arch artery?

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    1. 3rd arch
    2. 4th arch
    3. 5th arch
    4. 2nd arch

    Correct Answer - B

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Ans: B. 4th arch

    Left RLN winds around the arch of aorta

    Arch of aorta is derived from the 4th arch

    Langmans Medical Embryology 13th edition (Page no 88,239)

  3. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  4. Ligation of the hepatic artery will impair blood supply in

    1. Right gastric and Right gastroepiploic artery
    2. Right gastric and Left gastric artery
    3. Right gastroepiploic and short gastric vessels
    4. Right gastric and short gastric vessels
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Right gastric and Right gastroepiploic artery

    The right gastric artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery

    The right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery which is a branch of the common hepatic artery

    The left gastric artery is a branch of the celiac trunk

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Short gastric vessels arise from the splenic artery

    Gray's Anatomy: The Anatomical Basis of Clinical Practice, 41st Edition (Page nos 1116 and 1117)

  5. Wolffian duct remnant in female is

    1. Pouch of Douglas
    2. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Uterovesical pouch
    4. Gartner's cyst
    5. Broad ligament

    Correct Answer - C

    Ans: C. Gartner's cyst

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Gartner's cysts, sometimes incorrectly referred to as vaginal inclusion cysts, are the most common benign cystic lesions of the vagina.

    They represent embryological remnants of the caudal end of the mesonephric( Wolffian) duct.

    Gartner's ducts are found in about 25% of adult women. Almost one percent of these ducts evolve into Gartner's duct cyst.

    Ref: A case of Gartner's cyst of vagina, J. Anesth Crit care Open Access, 2017, 00259.

  6. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  7. Nerve supply of the extraocular muscles is constituted by all except

    1. Ophthalmic nerve
    2. Oculomotor nerve
    3. Trochlear nerve
    4. Abducent nerve
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Ophthalmic nerve

    Lateral rectus is supplied by 6th cranial nerve( abducent nerve)

    Superior rectus is supplied by 4th cranial nerve (trochlear nerve)

    All of the remaining extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve. The ophthalmic nerve is a branch of the trigeminal nerve and is purely sensory in nature.

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    BDC 7th edition, volume 3, pg no. 215.

  8. Claudication due to popliteal femoral incompetence is primarily seen in

    1. Thigh
    2. Calf
    3. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Buttocks
    5. Feet

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Calf

    Calf

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Aorta and Common Iliac- Buttocks

    Femoral Artery- Thigh

    Superficial femoral artery- Calf and popliteal artery

    Posterior tibial Artery- Feet

    BDC 7th edition, volume 2, page no 137.

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  9. Which muscle is paralyzed if there is hyperextension of metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion of the interphalangeal joint?

    1. Extensor digitorum
    2. Interossei and lumbricals
    3. Adductor pollicis
    4. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Pronator quadratus muscle

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Interossei and lumbricals

    Hyperextension of metacarpophalangeal joint and flexion of the interphalangeal joint is due to palsy of lumbricals and interossei muscles.

    The action of Lumbricals: Flexion of MCP, Extension of IP joint

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    The action of Palmar interossei: Adduction of fingers

    The action of Dorsal interossei: Abduction of fingers

    Ref: BDC, 7th edition, volume 1, pg no. 163.

  10. Tumour of the uncinate process of the pancreas will compress which artery

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    1. Portal vein
    2. Superior mesenteric artery
    3. Inferior mesenteric artery
    4. Common hepatic artery

    Correct Answer - B

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Ans: B. Superior mesenteric artery

    The superior mesenteric artery passes anterior to the uncinate process

    Posteriorly, the uncinate process is related to aorta.

    Ref: BDC, 7th edition, vol 2, page- 328.

  11. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  12. A boy met with a motorbike accident. CT brain shows injury to the posterior end of the superior temporal gyrus. He is likely to suffer from

    1. Fluent aphasia
    2. Non-fluent aphasia
    3. Conduction aphasia
    4. None of the above
    5. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Fluent aphasia

    Fluent aphasia

    Lesions in the posterior portion of the left STG were associated with the loss of the ability to comprehend and produce spoken words which are called as “fluent aphasia"

    BDC 7th edition, volume 4, page no 129.

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  13. A 65-year-old lady presents with a vascular injury to the inferior frontal gyrus. Which functional area would mostly be affected

    1. Visual
    2. Auditoryss
    3. Wernicke
    4. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Motor speech

    Correct Answer - D

    Ans: D. Motor speech

    Motor speech defect is also called apraxia of speech.

    Injury to the Broca's area/left inferior frontal gyrus causes motor speech defect.

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    BDC 7th edition, volume 4, page no 129.

  14. Where is the highest oxygen concentration presents in fetal circulation

    1. SVC
    2. IVC
    3. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Right ventricle
    5. Aorta

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. IVC

    Highly oxygenated blood from the placenta is carried to the fetus by the umbilical vein, which is shunted to the inferior vena cava.

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 20th Edition (Page no 2161)

  15. When the value of V/q is infinity, it means?

    1. No O2 goes from alveoli to blood and no co2 goes from blood to alveoli
    2. Dead space
    3. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. The PO2 of alveolar air is 159mmHg and PCO2 is 40mmHg
    5. Partial pressure of O2 and CO2 are equal

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Dead space

    Dead space

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    An area with ventilation but no perfusion.

    * V/Q undefined, though approaching infinity.

    Interpretations of V/Q ratio values:

    * Value is 0.8

    · Ventilation-Perfusion matching

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    * If V/Q is > 0.8 –

    - This means more ventilation than perfusion.

    * If V/Q is < 0.8 –

    - V/Q mismatch

    Ref: Arvind Arora review book of physiology (p. 240 - 241)

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

  16. Proteoglycan present in the glomerular basement membrane is?

    1. Keratan sulphate 1
    2. Keratan sulphate 2
    3. Heparan sulphate
    4. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Chondroitin sulphate

    Correct Answer - C

    Ans: c. Heparan sulphate

    The glomerular membrane (or the filtration barrier) is the filtration surface through which the fluid is filtered out from the blood.

    The glomerular membrane (filtration barrier) comprises:

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    * The glomerular capillary endothelium.

    * The basement membrane (basal lamina).

    * The Bowman's visceral epithelium (podocytes).

    * Important constituents of glomerular membrane include, -Laminin

    - Type 4 collagen

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    - Nidogen

    - Proteoglycans - (Heparan sulphate)

    Ref: Arvind Arora review book of physiology (p. 371 - 372)

  17. 35yr old female was watching TV for long hours with hands under her head. She complains of tingling sensation over her arm. Which type of nerve fibers is most likely to be affected?

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    1. Fibers
    2. B - fibers
    3. C - Fibers
    4. Sympathetic nerve fibers

    Correct Answer - A

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Ans: A. Fibers

    A- Features:

    delta Diameter - 1-5

    Myelination

    Some myelination

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Conduction - 5-30

    Functions:

    Pain -

    "Fast/Epicritic/First" pain.

    Since fibers are relatively fast

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Temperature

    Pressure

    Touch

    High susceptible to Pressure

    Ref: Arvind Arora review book of physiology (p. 58 - 59)

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

  18. The reflex in which there is inhibition of gastric emptying when there is acid and hypertonic solution in the duodenum?

    1. Enterogastric
    2. Gastroileal
    3. Gastrocolic
    4. --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Myenteric

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Enterogastric

    The enterogastric reflex is one of the three extrinsic reflexes of the gastrointestinal tract, the other two being the gastroileal reflex and the gastrocolic reflex.

    The enterogastric reflex is stimulated by duodenal distension. It can also be stimulated by a pH of 3-4 in the duodenum and by a pH of 1.5 in the stomach.

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    The main neural influence in gastric emptying is thought to be mediated via an inhibitory mechanism referred to as the enterogastric reflex. Fats, fatty acids, soaps, protein digestive products, acids, and hypertonic solutions in the small intestine inhibit motility.

    Ref: https://www.gastrojournal.org/article/S0016-5085(75)80295-2/pdf

  19. In multiple sclerosis, slow conduction of motor and the sensory pathways is due to?

    1. Defect in the node of Ranvier
    2. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Loss of myelin sheath
    4. Leaking of sodium channels
    5. Leaking calcium channels

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Loss of myelin sheath

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a disabling progressive neurological disorder

    The pathophysiology of MS results in disruption or loss of axonal myelin in the central nervous system (CNS), leading to the formation of scar tissue (sclerosis).

    Demyelination produces alterations in saltatory conduction, slowed conduction velocity, and a predisposition to conduction block

    Ref: https://www.physiology.org/doi/pdf/10.1152/japplphysiol.0046

  20. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  21. Which of the following clotting factor in a patient on Warfarin therapy, would have decreased gamma carboxyglutamate residue?

    1. Factor 2
    2. Factor 11
    3. Tissue factor
    4. Factor 5
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Factor 2

    • Vitamin K is a cofactor for the enzymatic conversion of glutamic acid (Glu) residues to gamma-carboxyglutamic acid (GLA) in vitamin K-dependent proteins, via the endoplasmic reticulum resident vitamin K-dependent gamma-glutamyl carboxylase.

    • This carboxylase activity is found in essentially all mammalian tissues, and its reaction product, Gla, has been observed in both vertebrates and invertebrates; both play an important biological role in protein function.

    • Vitamin K-dependent clotting factor deficiency (VKCFD) is a rare autosomal recessive bleeding disorder that often presents with severe hemorrhage during infancy.

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    • A rare inherited form of defective y-carboxylation resulting in the early onset of bleeding was first described by McMillan and Roberts in 1966 and subsequently has been termed vitamin K–dependent clotting factor deficiency (VKCFD).

    • Combined deficiency of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X (and proteins C, S, and Z) is usually an acquired clinical problem, often resulting from liver disease, malabsorption, or warfarin overdose.

  22. Patients plasma showed less than 3% activity of factors II, VII, IX, and X.

  23. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  24. Blood stored in citrate-phosphate-dextrose is better for hypoxic patients than acidic-citrate-dextrose because?

    1. It has less P50
    2. It is less acidic
    3. The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less
    4. None of the above
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - C

    Ans: C. The fall in 2, 3 DPG is less

    • The infusion of ACD blood caused P50 and 2,3-DPG concentration to decrease significantly.

    • The infusion of blood stored in citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) did not significantly increase the oxygen affinity.

    • To compensate for the increased oxygen affinity, there must be a rise in cardiac output or more likely a decrease in venous PO2.

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    • The transfusion of CPD blood, therefore, is more favorable in terms of oxygen supply, particularly in patients who have had cardiac surgery.

  25. Which of the following is referred to as the "Window of the limbic system"?

    1. Hypothalamus
    2. Amygdala
    3. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Hippocampus
    5. Thalamus

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans. B i.e. Amygdala.

    * The amygdala has been called the "window" through which the limbic system sees the place of the person in the world.

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    * The amygdala receives neuronal signals from all portions of the limbic cortex, as well as from the neocortex of the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes, especially from the auditory and visual association areas.

  26. Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except:

    1. Blood pressure
    2. Arterial PCO2
    3. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Potassium ions
    5. A & C

    Correct Answer - D

    Ans. A & C. i.e. Blood pressure & Potassium ions

    The total cerebral blood flow is held constant in face of considerable changes in the systemic blood pressure (60-150 mm Hg)". - Principles of medical physiology

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    "Cerebral blood flow is not affected over a fairly wide variation in arterial blood pressure". - RK Marya.

    Regulation of cerebral blood flow:

    I) Autoregulation:- Due to the inherent property of blood vessels, explained by myogenic theory.

    2) Metabolic regulation: CBF varies directly with metabolic activity. Factors affecting regulation are PCO2, PO2, K+, and adenosine. Among this PCO2 is the most important one.

    3) Sympathetic innervation:- Important only in cases with very severe elevation of BB e.g. in very strenuous exercises.

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    4) Intracranial pressure:- By Cushing reflex.

    5) Others: Blood viscosity.

  27. Hepcidin inhibits ?

    1. Absorption of cobalamine
    2. --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Transfer of iron into enterocytes
    4. Folic acid synthesis
    5. Respiratory oxidase

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans. is 'b' i.e., Transfer of iron into enterocytes

    --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    • Hepcidin is an iron metabolism regulatory hormone that inhibits iron absorption (transfer of iron into enterocytes).

    • Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) forms soluble complexes with iron and reduces iron from the ferric to the ferrous state, thereby enhancing iron absorption.

    • Tannins, present in tea, form insoluble complexes with iron and lower its absorption"

  28. Which of the following technique is used to study current flow across a single ion channel?

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    1. Patch clamp
    2. Voltage clamp
    3. lontophoresis
    4. Galvanometry

    Correct Answer - A

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    Ans. a. Patch-clamp

    • Patch-clamp is a technique to record ion current flow through a single protein channel.

    • The patch-clamp technique is a laboratory technique in electrophysiology, that allows the study of single or multiple ions channels in cells.

    • The technique can be applied to a wide variety of cells but is especially useful in the study of excitable cells such as neurons, cardiomyocytes, muscle fibers, and pancreatic beta cells.

    • It can also be applied to the study of bacterial ion channels especially prepared giant spheroplasts.

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    • In the patch-clamp experiment, a small pipette is carefully maneuvered to seal off a portion of a cell membrane. The pipette has an electrode bathed in an appropriate solution that allows for the recording of electrical changes through any pore in the membrane.

  29. A 4-year-old boy of a first-degree consanguineous couple was noted by the parents to have darkening of the urine to an almost black color when it was left standing. He has a normal sibling, and there are no other medical problems. Growth and development to date are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

    1. Methylmalonate
    2. Homogentisate
    3. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Phenylpyruvate
    5. a-Ketoisovalerate

    Correct Answer - B

    Ans: B. Homogentisate.

    * Alkaptonuria is a rare metabolic disease involving a deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase, and the subsequent accumulation of homogentisic acid in the urine, which turns dark upon standing.

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    * The elevation of

    ? methylmalonate (due to methylmalonyl CoA mutase deficiency),

    ? Phenylpyruvate (due to phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency),

    ? a-ketoisovalerate (due to branched-chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase deficiency),

    ? Homocysteine (due to cystathionine ?-synthase deficiency)

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    * All of these are inconsistent with a healthy child with a darkening of

  30. the urine.

    * Ref lippincott's Illustrated reviews,5th edition, Amino Acid Degradation and Synthesis, Pg 276.

  31. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  32. Which of the following is true about different structures of protein?

    1. Secondary structure is the three-dimensional structure of protein
    2. Secondary structure is stabilized by disulfide bonds
    3. Primary, secondary and tertiary structures destroyed during denaturation
    4. Secondary and tertiary structure depends on the sequence of amino acids
    5. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - D

    Ans: D. Secondary and tertiary structure depends on the

    sequence of amino acids

    Explanation

    Proteins are arranged in any of the following four structures viz:

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    * Primary

    The sequence of amino acids in a protein is called the primary structure of the protein.chain

    * Secondary

    - The polypeptide backbone does not assume a random three- dimensional structure, but instead generally forms regular arrangements of amino acids that are located near to each other in the linear sequence. The a-helix, ?-sheet, and ?-bend (?-turn) are examples of secondary structures frequently encountered in proteins.

    * Tertiary

    --- Content provided by‍ FirstRanker.com ---

    - It refers to the three-dimensional arrangement of a polypeptide chain that has assumed its secondary structure. Disulfide bonds

  33. between cysteine residues may stabilize the tertiary structure. Protein denaturation results in the unfolding and disorganization of the protein's secondary and tertiary structures, which are not accompanied by hydrolysis of peptide bonds

    * Quaternary

    - The quaternary structure requires more than one polypeptide chain. These chains associate through noncovalent interactions.

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---

    Ref lippincott's Illustrated reviews,5th edition, Structure of Protein, Pg 13

  34. The insulin glucagon ratio decreased. The enzyme is active at this time?

    1. Glucokinase
    2. Hexokinase
    3. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Phosphofructokinase
    5. Glucose 6 phosphatase

    Correct Answer - D

    Ans. D.Glucose 6 phosphatase

    Explanation

    --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    Low insulin:glucagon ratio (IGR) stimulates mobilization of stored nutrients, increases glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, and promotes the breakdown of adipose tissue into free fatty acids and glycerol.

    Decreases Insulin/glucagon ratio shows the fasting stage.

    Glucokinase, Hexokinase, and phosphofructokinase are glycolytic.

    Only gluconeogenic is glucose 6 phosphatase.

    Ref- https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4801814

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  35. Ochronosis is due to the accumulation of?

    1. Homogentisic acid
    2. Homogentisic acid
    3. Xanthurenate
    4. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    5. Glyoxylate

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Homogentisic acid

    Alkaptonuria is an autosomal recessive condition due to the deficiency of homogentisate 1,2 dioxidase. This results in the excretion of homogentisic acid in urine.is compatible with a fairly normal life.

    The only abnormality is the blackening of urine on standing.

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Homogentisic acid is oxidized by polyphenol oxidase to benzoquinone acetate. It is then polymerized to black colored alkapton bodies.

    By the 3rd or 4th decade of life, the patient may develop ochronosis (deposition of alkapton bodies in intervertebral discs, cartilages of nose, pinna of the ear). Black pigments are deposited over the connective tissues including joint cavities to produce arthritis.

    No specific treatment is required. But minimal protein intake with phenylalanine less than 500 mg/day is recommended.

    Ref- DM Vasudevan- Textbook of biochemistry for medical students, 6th edn, Aromatic Amino Acids, and Amino Acidurias, pg 208.

  36. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

  37. Bilirubin in serum can be measured by

    1. Van den Bergh reaction
    2. Ehrlich's Reaction
    3. Schlesinger's Reaction
    4. Fouchet's Reaction
    5. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    Correct Answer - A

    Ans: A. Van den Bergh reaction

    Bilirubin is most commonly determined by the van den Bergh reaction, in which diazotized sulfanilic acid reacts with bilirubin to form red azodi pyrroles

    These are measured colorimetrically. In aqueous solution, the water- soluble, conjugated bilirubin reacts rapidly with the reagent (within one minute), and is said to be “direct-reacting.” The unconjugated bilirubin, which is much less soluble in aqueous solution, reacts more slowly.

    However, when the reaction is carried out in methanol, both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are soluble and react with the reagent, providing the total bilirubin value. The “indirect-reacting” bilirubin, which corresponds to the unconjugated bilirubin, is obtained by subtracting the direct-reacting bilirubin from the total bilirubin

    --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    Note: In normal plasma, only about 4% of the total bilirubin is conjugated or direct-reacting, because most are secreted into bile.

    Ref- Lippincott's Illustrated reviews,5th edition, Conversion of amino acids in specialized products, Pg 285.

  38. If a sample of DNA if adenine is 28% what will be the amount of Cytosine present

    1. 23%
    2. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

    3. 25%
    4. 46%
    5. 22%

    Correct Answer - D

    Ans: D. 22%

    --- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---


    This download link is referred from the post: AIIMS PG Last10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answer Keys (Solved Question Papers)

--- Content provided by⁠ FirstRanker.com ---