Download AIIMS PG 2016 November Question paper with Answers

Download AIIMS PG 2016 November Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

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AIIMS PG NOV 2016
(Based on Memory)
1. Postherpetic neuralgia is defined as pain lasting beyond how many weeks
(a) 1 week
(b) 2 weeks
(c) 3 weeks
(d) 4 weeks
2. A 24-years-female presents with patchy hair loss in the right temporal and occipital region.
Examination reveals non-scarring alopecia with multiple small broken hairs. Scrapings from
scalp show mild inflammation, perifollicular hemorrhage and surrounding mild lymphocytes
infiltration. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Alopecia areata
(b) Androgenic alopecia
(c) Loose anagen hair
(d) Trichotillomania
3. What is the ratio of chest compressions and breaths when a lone person is giving
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(a) 30:1
(b) 30:2
(c) 15:1
(d) 10:1
4. Why 100% oxygen is administered after nitrous oxide is discontinued on emergency from
anesthesia?
(a) Second gas effect
(b) Diffusion hypoxia
(c) For adequate analgesia
(d) As air is costlier then oxygen
5. Non visualization of gallbladder in hepatic scintigraphy is suggestive of:
(a) Chronic cholecystitis
(b) Carcinoma gallbladder
(c) Acute cholecystitis
(d) Gallstones obstructing CBD
6. A surgeon to decide to operate a patient under epidural anesthesia. 3% xylocaine with
adrenaline is used for administering epidural anesthesia. The patient suddenly develops
hypotension after 3 minutes to administration.
What is the likely cause for this?
(a) Systemic absorption of the drug
(b) Vasovagal effect
(c) Allergy to the drug preparation
(d) Penetration into the subarachnoid space
7. Pigmentation of nail is caused by all of these drugs except:
(a) Cyclophosphamide
(b) Chlorpropamazine

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(c) Chloroquine
(d) Amiodarone
8. A 12-years-old boy presented with gradually progressive annual plaque on his buttocks with
central scarring. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Granuloma annular
(b) Lupus vulgaris
(c) Tinea cruris
(d) Annular psoriasis
9. During laryngoscopy and intubation procedure, all of these are true except:
(a) A sight pressure may be applied at the cricoids cartilage
(b) The laryngoscope is held in the right hand introduced from the right side of the patient.
(c) The neck is fixed with extension at the atlanto occipital joint
(d) After incisor to pull up the tongue and visualize the vocal cords
10. An elderly female had her house destroyed in an earthquake. Following this, she presented
to your office with complaints of anxiety, sadness, lack of sleep, anger palpitations and despair,
consider the following statements:
(a) The lady is suffering from acute stress reaction.
(b) The defense mechanism involved is projection
(c) Drug of choice in this situation is risperidone
(d) She needs referral to a psychiatrist for psychotherapy which of the following statement are
true?
(a) a and c
(b) b and d
(c) a, and c
(d) a and d
11. A-22-years-old male comes to your with complains of frequenting checking of doors even
when they are locked. He is distressed about this fact. He is subsequently diagnosed to have
obsessive compulsive disorder. Consider the following statements:
(a) Repression and reaction formation are the defense mechanisms involved
(b) SSRIS are the drug of choice
(c) Risperidone may be used in SSRIS resistant cases to augment the response
(d) Systemic desensitization is the psychotherapy of choice which of the above are correct
statements:
(a) a and b
(b) b and c
(c) b, c and d
(d) a, b, c and d
12. Which of these is the correct sequence of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
(a) Safety ? physiological needs ? self ? actualization ? Belonging ? self ? esteem
(b) Physiological needs ? Safety ? Belonging ? self ? esteem? self ? actualization
(c) Safety ? self ? actualization ? Belonging ? physiological needs ? self ? esteem
(d) Self ? actualization ? physiological needs ? Safety ? Belonging ? self ? esteem
13. A person has been referred to you by the court. You find a discrepancy between history and
examination findings. Which of these conditions you should be aware of in this situation?
(a) Malingering

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(b) Factitious
(c) Somatization syndrome
(d) Dissociative fugue
14. According to the Who definition of hearing loss, what is the value to classify as profound
hearing loss?
(a) 61 ? 71 dB
(b) > 81 dB
(c) > 91 dB
(d) > 101 dB
15. Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by which part of the eye?
(a) Anterior surface of cornea
(b) Anterior surface of lens
(c) Posterior surface of lens
(d) Posterior surface of cornea
16. What is the usual weight of rabbit used in ophthalmologist experiments?
(a) 1.5 kg
(b) 5 ? 7 kg
(c) 2.5 kg
(d)10 ? 12 kg
17. Which of these is the correct definition of blindness as per NPCB?
.
(a) Diminution of field vision to 20 Or less in better eye
(b) Inability of a person to count fingers from a distance of 3 meters
(c) Vision 6/60 or less with best possible spectacle correction in the better eye
(d) Vision 4/60 or less with best possible spectacle correction in the better eye
18. What is the power of the lens that should be used with indirect ophthalmoscope to visualize
the retina?
(a) + 90 D
(b) + 58 D
(c) + 60 D
(d) + 20 D
19. A woman present with complete wound dehiscence 4 ? days after a laparotomy.After
prescribing antibiotics for the infection, the surgeon decides to suture the wound. Which of these
suture material should he use?
(a) Vicryl
(b) Mersilic
(c) Catgut
(d) Ethilon
20. Which of the following causes formation?
(a) Movement at fracture site
(b) Rigid immobilization
(c) Compression plating
(d) Intraosseous naliling

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21. Partograph represents various stages of labor with respect to time. True about partograph is
all except ?
(a) Each small square represents one hour
(b) Alert and action lines are separated by a difference of 4 hours
(c) Partograph recording should be started at a cervical dilation of 4 cm
(d) Send the patient to first referral unit if the labor progression line crosses the alert line
22. The following graph represents the stages of labor. Which of the following statements is true
about the graph C?
(a) Secondary arrest after progression of labor
(b) Prolonged active phase of labor
(c) Prolonged latent phase / primary arrest of labor
(d) Normal labor in a primigravida
23. Which of the following statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines
according to who?
(a) Pap smear should repeated yearly in woman of reproductive age group
(b) HPV test should be done five yearly in woman between age of 30 to 49 years
(c) VIA/VILI is more reliable at older age as it becomes easier to identify the transformation one
with age
(d) Pap smear can be repeater less frequency if it comes out negative for 3 consecutive years
24. What is done for screening of Down's syndrome in first trimester?
(a) Beta HCG and PAPP ? A
(b) Unconjugated estradiol and PAPPA
(c) AFP and Inhibin A
(d) AFP and Beta HCG
25. What does of misoprostol is used orally to control bleeding in partum heamorrhage?
(a) 1000 micrograms
(b) 400 micrograms
(c) 800 micrograms
(d) 600 micrograms
26. The following graph represents the stages of labor. What is the maximum capacity of bakri
balloon which used in post partum heamorrhage?
(a) 200 ml
(b) 300 ml
(c) 500 ml
(d) 1000 ml
27. A 38 week primigravida presented to the labor room with minimal labor pains and
contraction. On heart rate of the patient is 86 / min and blood pressure is 126 /76 mm Hg. What
should be done next?
(a) Give oxytocin to augment labor
(b) Observe the patient and wait for increase in uterine contractions
(c) Sedate the patient by and give phenergan to decrease labor pains
(d) Induce labor by artificial rupture of membranes
28. What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls?
(a) GNRH analogues

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(b) Danazol
(c) Cyproterone acetate
(d) Medroxy progesterone acetate
29. A young female presents to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal
breast development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed
vagina with citomegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the
likely diagnosis?
(a) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
(b) Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome
(c) Grandal dysgenesis
(d) Mayer Rakitansy Kuster Huser syndrome
30. Which of the following statements is true regarding medical abortion?
(a) Can only be done up to 72 days
(b) Ultrasound should be done in all cases
(c) Only a person certifield under MTP act can perform medical termination of pregnancy
(d) If the patient has an LUCD in ? situ, it doesn't need to be removed
31. What should be the ideal temperature in delivery room?
(a) 20 ? 23 degrees C
(b) 25 ? 28 degrees C
(c) 30 ? 35 degrees C
(d) 37 degrees C
32. Ideal route of drug delivery in neonatal resuscitation is
(a) Intraosseous
(b) Through umbilical artery
(c) Through peripheral vein
(d) Through umbilical vein
33. An unresponsive patient has been brought to you by the police. What is the first thing you
will do?
(a) Start chest compressions immediately
(b) Check carotid pulse
(c) Check for response and cell help
(d) Start resuce breathes
34. In which of the diseases is the following appearance of calve seen in a child?
(a) Spinal muscular atrophy
(b) Muscular dystrophy
(c) Myopathy
(d) Peripheral neuropathy
35. Ponderal index is:
(a) Head circumference to abdominal circumference ratio
(b) Mid ? upper arm circumference to head circumference ratio
(c) Weight in kilograms by cube of height in meters
(d) Square root of height in feet by weight in grams
36. A neonate presented with jaundice on first day of life. How will you manage?

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(a) Observe only as it is mostly physiological jaundice
(b) Exchange transfusion
(c) Phototherapy
(d) Liver function tests and liver biopsy as it is mostly due to cholestasis
37. Which of the following is a true diverticulum of esophagus?
(a) Zenker's diverticulum
(b) Meckel diverticulum
(c) Epiphremic diverticulum
(d) Parabronchial diverticulum
38. What is the recommended does of steroid for altaining fatal lung maturity?
(a) inj. Betamethasona12 mg for 2 does 12 hours apart
(b) inj. Betamethasone12 mg for 2 does 24 hours apart
(c) inj. Dexanmethasone6 mg for 4 does 24 hours apart
(d) inj. Dexamethasona12 mg for 2 does 12 hours apart
39. A-45-year-old patient presented to you with ongoing massive hematemesis. The patient is
alert and hemodynamically stable. What will be the first step in management?
(a) Do an urgent upper GI endoscopy
(b) Put the patient in recovery position and secure airway
(c) Insert a cannula and start IV
(d) Send for blood transfusion
40. Which one of these is a muscle splitting incision?
(a) Kocher's incision
(b) Lanz incision
(c) Rutherford ? Morrison incision
(d) Pfannenstiel incision
41. In a child surgery was done for biliary stricture with hepatojejunal anstomosis. Postoperative
bilirubin level after 2 weeks was 6 mg / dl from a preoperative level of 12 mg / dl. The reason for
this could be
(a) Normal lowering of bilirubin takes time
(b) Delta bilirubin
(c) Anastomotic stricture
(d) Mistake in job technique
42. Which of these Scoring system is helpful in assessing serverity of wound infection?
(a) South anapton grading scale
(b) ASA classification
(c) Glasgow score
(d) APGAR
43. After midline laparotomy you have been asked to suture the incision. What length of suture
material will you choose?
(a) 2x incision length
(b) 4x incision length
(c) 6x incision length
(d) 8x incision length

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44. In a patient with obstructive jaundice, the bilirubin level is 40 mg/dl. What is the possible
explanation for such a high level?
(a) Liver Failure
(b) Renal Failure
(c) Complete obstruction of common bile duet
(d) Malignant obstruction
45. A-44-years-old male underwent & VATS thymectomy for Myasthenia graves. During
surgery, the pleural was accidentally injured. The surgeon decided to put a drain in the pleural
cavity. Which of these statement is correct about the timing of removed of intercostals chest
tube?
(a) After partial expansion of lungs and < 50 ml output from drain for 2 consecutive days
(b) After complete expansion of lungs and < 30 ml output from drain for 2 consecutive days
th
(c) On 4 day, irrespective of the output from the drain and lung expansion
(d) After complete expansion of lungs and < 20 ml output from drain for 2 consecutive days
46. Identify the instrument shown below:
(a) DPL catheter
(b) Laparoscopic port trocar
(c) Peritoneal dialysis catheter
(d) Endoscopic ultrasound probe
47. A neonate presented with cicatrizing skin lesions all over the body with hypoplasia of all
limbs. An MRI of the brain reveled diffuse cerebral atrophy. An ophthalmologic evaluation
reveals chorioretinitis. Which of these tests is must likely to show a positive result in this
patient?
(a) Anti ? HCMV antibodies
(b) Anti ? toxoplasma antibodies
(c) Anti ? VZV antibodies
(d) Anti ? rubella antibodies
48. A neonate on routine examination at birth was found to have hepatomegaly. Rest of the
examination was antibodies were found to be positive. What sequelae in later life is the child at
risk of?
(a) Renal failure
(b) Sensorineural hearing loss
(c) Hepatic fibrosis
(d) Mental Retardation
49. A child presented at 2 years of age with delayed motor development mental retardation and
finger biting. He was normal at birth. He subsequent develops cerebral palsy arthritis and dies
due to renal failure at age of 25 years. What is the likely enzyme deficiency implicated?
(a) HGPRT deficiency
(b) ADA deficiency
(c) Hexosaminidase deficiency
(d) Ornithine transcarbamyl deficiency
50. Corebellar lesion can produce all of these except?
(a) Ataxic Gait
(b) Past Pointing
(c) Resting tremor

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(d) Nystagmus
51. All of these muscles have parallel oriented fibers except:
(a) Sartorius
(b) Rectus abdominis
(c) Tibialis anterior
(d) Sternohyoid
52. Calcium absorption from gut is in increased by all except:
(a) Phytates
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Alkaline PH in gut
(d) Protein in diet
53. Which of these nerve root is the control center for the Stapedial reflex?
(a) Superior olivary complex
(b) Lateral lemnisus
(c) Inferior callicullis
(d) Medical geniculate body
54. Countercurrent mechanism in not seen in
(a) Eyes
(b) Testes
(c) Kidney
(d) Intestine
55. Diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide is decreased in all except:
(a) Polyeythemia
(b) Interstital lung disease
(c) Emphysema
(d) Pulmonary vascular disease
rd
rd
56. Anterior 2/3 of the tongue is demarcated from the posterior 1/3 by:
(a) Passavant's ridge
(b) Circumvallate papillae
(c) Sulcus terminalis
(d) Epiglottis
57. Parasympathetic nervous system comprises of?
(a) Cranial nerves 3, 5, 7, 10 and sacral nerves 51 ? 55
(b) Cranial nerves 3, 7, 9, 10 and sacral nerves 52 ? 54
(c) Cranial nerves 5, 7, 9, 10 and sacral nerves 52 ? 54
(d) Cranial nerves 3, 5, 7, 10 and sacral nerves 52 ? 54
58. Endo ? cochlear potential is ?
(a) + 45 MV
(b) ? 45 MV
(c) ? 60 MV
(d) + 85 MV
59. Common intermediate in synthesis of steroid hormones is:

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(a) 7 Dihydrocholoesterol
(b) Cortisone
(c) Pregnenolone
(d) 7 Hydroxyeholssterol
+
60. The PH of a solution containing 5millimole per liter of H ions is closest to what value?
(a) 2.3
(b) 1.7
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.2
61. RQ of a person on pure carbohydrate diet will be:
(a) 1
(b) 0.7
(c) 1.2
(d) 1.5
62. A farmer ingested some unknown poisonous seeds and had pain and vomiting. Soon he
developed paralysis of his lower limbs which ascends till it affected the respiratory muscles and
he died within two days. Identify the likely cause:
(a) Strychnine nux ? vomica
(b) Conium maculatum
(c) Solanum lycopersicum
(d) Abrusprecatorium
63. Which vitamin is synthesized in vivo in the body by human?
(a) Folic acid
(b) Niacin
(c) Panthothenic acid
(d) Cyanocobalamin
64. Polysomngraphy contains all of the following tests except?
(a) Electroencephalography
(b) Pulse oximetry
(c) Electroculography
(d) Arterial pCo2 measurement
65. Potential developed due to movement of freely diffusible ions across a semi permeable
membrane is calculated using:
(a) Nernst equation
(b) Gibbs equation
(c) Goldman ? Hodgkin ? Katz equation
(d) Fick principle
66. Migratory motor complexes in the gut reappear after intervals of:
(a) 90 min
(b) 120 min
(c) 60 min
(d) 150 min
67. Hyperpolarizing cyclienucleotide (HCN) gated channels have a role in:
(a) Cardiac rhythm generation

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(b) Generation of mitochondrial ascion potential
(c) Memory formation
(d) Myocardial muscle contraction
69. Correctly math the following:
Declaration
Motive
(1) Declaration of Geneva
(i) Global health
(2) Declaration of Helsinki
(ii) Hippocratic oath
(3) Declaration of Tokyo
(iii) Medical Ethics
(4) Declaration of Oslo
(iv) Inhuman practices and torture
(a) 1 ? iii, 2 ? ii, 3 ? iv, 4 ? i
(b) 1 ? ii, 2 ? iii, 3 ? iv, 4 ? i
(c) 1 ? iv, 2 ? i, 3 ? ii, 4 ? iii
(d) 1 ? ii, 2 ? iv, 3 ? iii, 4 ? i
70. Hco3/H 2co3 is the best butter because it is?
(a) PKa near physiological PH
(b) Its components can be increased or decreased in the body as needed
+
(c) Good acceptor and donor of H ions
(d) Combination of a weak acid and weak base
71. At physicological PH, which of these amino acids has a positive charge?
(a) Arginine
(b) Aspartic acid
(c) Valine
(d) Isoleucine
72. All of these processes take place in mitochondria except:
(a) Beta ? oxidation of fatty acids
(b) DNA synthesis
(c) Fatty acid synthesis
(d) Protein synthesis
73. Ammonia from brain is removed as:
(a) Glutamine
(b) Alanine
(c) Urea
(d) Glutamate
74. CG islands in our DNA are important for:
(a) Acetylation
(b) Methylation
(c) T-RNA synthesis
(d) DNA replication
75. A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by Glucose ? Oxidase Peroxidase
method, shows positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following is likely cause?
(a) Fruetosemia
(b) Galactosemia
(c) Denaturation of glucose
(d) Faulty tests

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76. Which of these is most effective for gluconeogenesis?
(a) Citrate stimulation of acetyl carboxylase
(b) Acetyl ? COA stimulation of pyruvate carboxylase
(c) Fructose ? 2, 6 ? piphosphate stimulation of phosphofrukinase ? 2
(d) Fructose ? 1, 6 ? piphosphate stimulation of phosphofrukinase ? 1
77. Which of the following is maximum in HDL as compare to other lipoproteins?
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Triglycerides
(c) Apoproteins
(d) Fatty acids
78. Change in sex hormone binding globulin will most affect levels of which of these hormones?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) DHEA
79. Rapid source of energy by resynthesizing ATP for excening museles is:
(a) Glycalysis
(b) TCA cycle
(c) Glycogenolysis
(d) Phosphocreatine
80. A 59 year old presents with pain, numbnees and impaired sensation over half of the face
along with ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia and hoarseness of voice. His pain and thermal
sensations over opposite half are impaired, Horner's syndrome is present. Likely cause of the
disease is thrombosis of which vessel?
(a) AICA (Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
(b) PICA (Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
(c) Basilar
(d) Pontine vessels
81. All of these structures lie in relation to the left ureter except:
(a) Mesentery of sigmoid colon
(b) Bifurcation of common iliac artery
(c) Quadratus lumborum
(d) Gonadal vessels
82. Extraembryonic mesoderm is derived from:
(a) Epiblast
(b) Primary yolk sac
(c) Secondary yolk sac
(d) Hypoblast
83. According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not suspect of tuberculosis?
(a) Conformed extrapulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more
(b) HIV-Positive patient with cough of any duration
(c) Contacts of sputum Positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any duration
(d) Diabetic person having cough of any duration

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84. Which of these is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
(a) Listeria monosytogenes
(b) Coxiellaburnetili
(c) Legionella pneumophila
(d) Klebsiella
85. What is the most common clinical manifestation who larvae of ascaris, hookworm and
strongyloides migrates through the body?
(a) Asymptomatic
(b) Pneumonitis
(c) Acute dermal reaction
(d) Anemia
86. Why are schizot and late trophozoite stages of plasmodium falciparum not seen in
peripheral blood smear?
(a) They are sequestered in the spleen
(b) Due to adherence to the capillary endothelium, they are not seen in peripheral blood
(c) Due to antigen ? antibody reaction and removed
(d) They are seen in mosquito blood
87. Which of the following is not used in osteoporosis?
(a) Milnacipran
(b) PTH
(c) Strontium ranelate
(d) Denosumab
88. Which of the following statements in incorrect about rifabutin as compared to rifampicin?
(a) It has higher bioavailability and stronger activity against all mycobacterium
(b) It has a longer half ? life
(c) It has lasser drug interactions
(d) It is preferred in patients with HIV
89. A patient presented to the hospital with serves hydrophobia. You suspect rabies obtain
corneal scraping from the patients. What test should be done on this specimen for a diagnosis
of Rabies?
(a) RT ? PCR for rabies virus
(b) Negri bodies
(c) Antibodies to rabies virus
(d) Indirect immunofluorescence
90. In a suspected patient of dengue, all of these are acceptable investigations at day 3 of
presentation except?
(a) NSI antigen detection
(b) Viral culture and isolation in C6/36 cell line
(c) RT ? PCR
(d) Elisa for antibody against Dengue virus
91. All of these are seen in hemolytic anemia except:
(a) Yelowing of eyes and sclera

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(b) Increased LDH
(d) Low reticulocyte count
92. The resolving power of a Microscope upon all except:
(a) Size of the aperature
(b) Focal length of the eyepiece
(d) Wavelength of light source used
93. During autopsy of a patient died due to suspected myocardial infarction, the heart was
stained with triphenyletrazolium tetrachloride dye. What will be the color of the viable
myocardium?
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Red
(d) Dark Brown
94. MHC antigens are absent on:
(a) Monocyte
(b) Platelet
(c) Erythrocyte
(d) Neutrophil
95. A-26 year female presents with pallor with a hemoglobin of 9.5 mg/Dl, PCV 30 mm Hg count
of 2 million per cubic millimeters. What is the likely diagnosis?
(a) Sideroblasticanemia
(b) Iron deficiency anemia
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Folic acid deficiency
96. Fine needs aspiration cytology is not enough to diagnose.
(a) Papillary Carcinoma of thyroid
(b) Carcinoma breast
(c) Adeno carcinoma lung
(d) Follicular Carcinoma of thyroid
97. How is follicular carcinoma differentiated from bening thyroid disease?
(a) Invasion of basement membrane
(b) Presence of mitotic figures
(c) Orphan Annie eye nuclei
(d) Staining with calcitonin
98. All of these are seen in MEN ? 1 syndrome except:
(a) Posterior pituitary tumors
(b) Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors
(c) Foregut carcinoid
(d) Parathyroid hyperplasia
99. Most consistent feature of RPGN is:
(a) Crescent formation
(b) Mesangial cell proliferation
(c) IGA deposition

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(d) Loss of foot processes
100. Stain useful for identifying premalignant lasions of the lip is:
(a) Hematoxylon and eosin
(b) Toluidine blue
(c) Giemsa
(d) Alizarin red
101. All of these strains are used in tattooing except:
(a) India ink
(b) Vermillion
(c) Prussian
(d) Osmin blue
102. Digoxin is obtained from a plant product and a half of 36 hours. How does this information
help us in formulating treatment?
(a) To adjust maintenance does of digoxin required to keep the blood levels within therapeutic
range
(b) Intravenous administration in emergency and urgent dosing
(c) Long half-life permits altrernate day dosing
(d) It requires a high loading does to be administered
103. Which of these sites is least commonly preferred for insulin injection?
(a) Anterior thihg
(b) Lateral thihg
(c) Dorsum of arm
(d) Around umbilicus
104. All of these are potentially serious side effects of thinamide group of antithyroid drugs
except:
(a) Agranulocytosis
(b) Hepatic dysfunction
(c) Severe rash
(d) Anaphylaxis
105. The correct sequence of systemic absorption if a drug is administered through skin is:
(a) Scrotum > foream > scalp > postauricular skin > plantar surface
(b) Scrotum > postauricular skin > foream > scalp > plantar surface
(c) Plantar surface > scalp > foream > postauricular skin > scrotum
(d) Postauricular skin > foream > scrotum > scalp > plantar surface
106. An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and have been
instructed to start him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg / kg / min. Each 5ml amo of th drug
contains 200 mg drug.
You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 ml solution.
What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16
drops = 1ML)?
(a) 16 drops / min
(b) 8 drops / min
(c) 4 drops / min
(d) 10 drops / min

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107. About anti ? epileptic drugs, which of the following is an incorrect match?
1. Focal
Lamotrigine,
Valproate
Seizures
Carbamazepine,
Phenytoin
2. Absence
Carbamazepin
Ethosuximide,
Seizure
Valproate
3. Myoclonic
Vaiproate
Clonazepam
Seizures
Lamotrigine
4. Generalized
Vaiproate
Phenytoin,
Tonic clonic
Lamotrigine
Carbamzaepine
Topiramate
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
108. An 86-years-old lady presented with severe constipation, she is a known hypertensive on
medications for 10 years. In clinic, her BP is 157/98 mm Hg with a heart rate of 58/min. On
taking here BP in the supine position it was found to be 90/60 mm Hg. She also has a recent
history of depression. She is taking atenolol, Thaizide, impramine, haloperidol and Docusate.
What will be the next best step in management?
(a) Change atenolol and Thaizide to calcium channel blocker and ACF inhibitor and add
bisacodyl for constipations
(b) Change impramine and haloperidol to fluoxetine and respeirdone and add bisacodyl for
constipations
(c) Only add bisacodyl for constipations add continue rest of the medications
(d) Discontinue all her madications and start her on steroids
109. A-25-years-old unidentified male from roadside is brought by police to emergency room
with disorientation, altered sensorium and vomiting. He has a BP of 90/70 mm Hg. Heart rate of
0
110/min, temperature ? 36.4 c and respiratory rate of 11/min. On examination, he had bilateral
pin- point pupils. What is the suspected diagnosis?
(a) Pontine hemorrhage
(b) Opioid poisoning
(c) Dhatura poisoning
(d) Hypothermia
110. Continuous murmur can be heard in all except:
(a) Patent ductus arteriosus
(b) VCD with aortic regurgitation
(c) Pulmonary AV Fistula
(d) Coronary AV Fistula
111. A patient presents to the emergency with altered sensorium. All of these tests should be
done except?
(a) Non ? contrast CT head
(b) Lumbar puncture
(c) Random blood sugar

Page 16
(d) Complete blood counts
112. A patient diagnosed with carcinoma of lung presented with a serum calcium level of 16.4
mm 01/l. What will be the first step in management?
(a) IV fluids and frusemide
(b) Immediate hemodialysis
(c) Disphosphonates
(d) Chemotherapy with gemcitabine and carboplatin
113. About Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRLI), all are true except
(a) Mortality is less than 10%.
(b) Signs and symptoms usually subsides within 2-3 weeks of onset
(c) Supportive care is the mainstay of treatment
(d) Steroids have adoubtful role in management
114. A-40-years female is diagnosed to have epilepsy and is started of phenytoin and valproate.
4 weeks later, she develops a diffuse rash all, over her body, which gradually disappears on
stopping both the drugs. In how many weeks, will the rash reapkear when she is rechalenged
with phenytoin and valproate?
(a) 1 week
(b) 2 weeks
(c) 3 weeks
(d) 4 weeks
115. Which of these infections cause a non-distributed rash?
(a) Epidemic typhus
(b) Typhoid
(c) Meals
(d) Secondary syphilis
116. Which of these is not true regarding iron supplementation in iron deficiency anemia?
(a) Administer a small diluted does first prior to infusion to look for any allergy to iron preparation
(b) Oral iron therapy should be stoped once the patient achives a hemoglobin of > 12 mg / dl
(c) If gastric intolerance to oral iron therapy occurs, all patients should be administered
parenteral forms.
(d) Parenteral iron supplementation is required in a patient with HB of less then7 mg / Dl
117. Which of the following drugs can be given in renal failure safety?
(a) Saxagliptin
(b) Sitaglipitin
(c) Vidaglipitin
(d) Linaglipitin
118. Thrombocytopenia causing drugs are all except
(a) Cephalsporin
(b) Multivitamins Containing Vitamin K
(c) NSAIDS
(d) Anti ? depressants
119. Which of the following drugs can be used in benazodiazepine toxicity?
(a) Protamine sulphate

Page 17
(b) Flumazenil
(c) Barbiturate
(d) Ethyl alcohol
120. Metformin causes a servers, sometimes life ? threatening side effect of lactic acidosis. All
of the following factors increase the risk of lactic acidosis except
(a) Liver dysfunction
(b) Advanced age
(c) Smoking
(d) Renal failure
121. Drug advertisement letter is a necessary component of each drug formulation and contains
various information about the drug like drug dosing, frequency and half life which of the
following information need not be given in the drug advertisement latter
(a) Research papers and other articles preparing efficiency of the drug
(b) Date of expiry of the drug
(c) Race, but serious life threatening adverse effects
(b) Common, not so serious adverse effects
122. A patient presented with history of vomiting for last three days. On examination, signs of
dehydration were present. On further investigation, the patient was found to have raised
creatinine, a ph = 7.22, pco2 = 30mm Hg, Hco3 = 9 meq, Na+ = 138 meq and k+ = 3.4meq/l
identify the acid base abnormality observed in this patient?
(a) Metabolic acidosis
(b) Metabolic alkalosis
(c) Mixed metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
(d) Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis
123. Calculate the base deficit in a patient of weight 75 kg with aph = 6.96, pco2 = 30mm Hg
and Hco3 = CmEq/l?
(a) 300mEq
(b) 400mEq
(c) 500mEq
(d) 800mEq
124. Metered dose inhalers are used in management of asthma. To use a MDL, it is
recommended to shake will before use breath out, bring the inhaler to your mouth, start to
breath in slowly, press the tap of you inhaler over and keep breathing in slowly until you have
taken a fall breath and then hold your breath for 10 seconds. Some patients might need a
second puff of MDI for some patient might need a second puff of MDI symptomatic relief. Which
of these instructions for reusing the MDI is not correct?
(a) Wait for iminute between two puffs
(b) Shake the inhaler again before use
(c) Carefully rinse your mouth and throat
(d) Clean the inhaler before use
125. Palivizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody. For which of the following conditions
has it been approved for?
(a) Coxsackie virus
(b) Avain influenza
(c) Parainfluenza

Page 18
(d) Respiratery syncytial virus
126. A-2-month-old child was brought to the sub center by his mother with complaints of fever
for two days. Weight of the child is 2 kg. On examination, the child is restless and irritable, skin
pinch went back in 2 second, oral mucosa is dry and eyes were sunken. There were ten
pustules on his forehead? What should be done at the sub center?
(a) Refer to higher centre with mother giving frequent sips of ORS
(b) Immediately admit the child, give IV fluids and then refer to higher center
(c) Give first does of antibiotic and refer to higher center
(d) Send child home with few packets of ORS and call after 3 days.
127. Which of the following is the most common symptom of aortoiliac occlusive disease?
(a) Calf claudication
(b) Gluteal claudication
(c) Impotence
(d) Symptomless
128. What is the frequency of laser used in cataract surgery.
-9
(a) 10 seconds
-15
(b) 10 seconds
-12
(c) 10 seconds
-6
(d) 10 seconds
129. A sexually active male presented with warts on his penis which of these strains of HIV is
most commonly the cause of these lesions?
(a) HPV 6 and 11
(b) HPV 16 and 18
(c) HPV 1, 2 and 3
(d) HPV 3, 5
130. An abandoned dead male fetus was found and bought by police for autopsy. The following
was the report "Eyes are open, papillary membrane is absent, crown Rump length is 23 cm,
tests are at the superficial inguinal ring and weight of the fetus is 1000 g" What is the estimated
age of the fetus?
(a) 5 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 7 months
(d) 8 months
131. A-38-years-old female presented to the emergency with extensive burns. The patient had
grade 3 burns on the face back, upper arms and forearms along with singeing of hair. Which of
these is not a proof of inhalation burs?
(a) Yellow colored sputum
(b) Singeing of eyebrow and facial hair
(c) Blackish soot deposit on posterior part of tongue
(d) Hoarseness & stridor of voice
132. A-20-years-old patient presented to the emergency with altered sensorium. NCCT revealed
hydrocephalus, requiring urgent neurosurgical intervention. The patient had nobody
accompanying or any identity proof. Under which of these sections of Indian penal code, the

Page 19
neurosurgeon can perform the procedure without obtaining an informed consent from a
guardian?
(a) Section 92
(b) Section 90
(c) Section 89
(d) Section 87
133. A doctor used the same needle used in a patient with HIV inject in another patient. The
latter patient on testing found to be infected with HIV. The doctor s punishable for this
negligence according to which section of India penal code
(a) Section 269
(b) Section 203
(c) Section 202
(d) Section 166B
134. The following patient was brought for an autopsy. What is the cause of the discoloration of
the region?
(a) Hematoma formation
(b) Loss of blood
(c) Methemoglobin
(d) Sulphmethemoglobin
135. A lady is brought from village, unconscious, about 12 hours after ingesting some kind of
unknown poison her heart rate is 103/min, blood pressure in 90/50 mm Hg and respiratory rate
is 19/min. Her breath smells like kerosene. Which of the following should not be done in
emergency room?
(a) Vasopressors should be administered intravenously
(b) Atropine should be administered till singers of recovery
(c) Gastric lavage should be done
(d) Immediate airway management
136. St. Anthony's fire refers to poisoning by:
(a) Aflatoxin
(b) Ergot alkaloids
(c) Crotalaria juncea
(d) Spainsh Fly
137. All of these are suggestive of domestic violence in a child except:
(a) Bucket Handle fractures of metaphyses
(b) Corner fractures
(c) Micro fractures in the metaphyscal region
(d) Wormian bones
138. A study was done in 3 states to see the mean blood pressure in each community. Health
workers were assigned and they visited each house in the three communities. Mean blood
pressure in each community was found and compared. What type of study design is
represented were?
(a) Cohort study
(b) Cross ? sectional study
(c) Case control study
(d) Field trial

Page 20
139. A-42-year-old woman from a dry state who ingested rye for long time presented with
complaints of weakness in both the lower limbs, nausea and fatigue. Overdue couse of time,
she is completely unable to walk. What is the likely cause ?
(a) Lathyrussativus
(b) Argemonemexicana
(c) Amanita
(d) Ergot alkaloids
140. CA-125 is a marker for screeing of ovarian cancer. To characterize this test,
histopathological confirmation of overian cancer was done in a cohort of patients. 60/100
woman who tested positive for this test actually had ovarian cancer. What is the negative
predictive value of this test
(a) 20 / 100
(b) 40 / 100
(c) 60 / 100
(d) 80 / 100
141. Which of these is the best determining the threshold for diagnosis of a positive test?
(a) Pre ? test probability
(b) Receptor ? operator curve
(c) Pearson coefficient
(d) Analysis of variance
142. In a cohort study to study association between facture and disease, the risk ratio was
calculated to be equal to 1. What does this signifies?
(a) There is no association present between the facture and the disease
(b) There is positive association between the facture and the disease
(c) There is negative association between the facture and the disease
(d) Data insufficient to comment
143. A study was conducted to find average intra ? ocular pressure. IOP was measured in 400
people and the mean was found to be 25mm Hg with a standard deviation of 10mm Hg. What is
the range in which 10p of 95% of the population would be lying?
(a) 22 ? 28 mm Hg
(b) 20 ? 30 mm Hg
(c) 24 ? 26 mm Hg
(d) 23 ? 27 mm Hg
144. Hypereosinophilic syndrome is a disease characterized by elevated eosinophil count in the
blood for arrest 6 months, without any recogrizable cause, with involvement of either heart,
nervous system or bone marrow. What should be the eosinophil count for diagnosis?
3
(a) > 500 / mm 3
(b) > 1000 / mm 3
(c) > 1500 / mm
3
(d) > 2000 /mm

Page 21
ANSWER KEY
1
d
26
c
51
c
76
b
101
b
126
c
2
a
27
b
52
a
77
c
102
a
127
b
3
b
28
a
53
a
78
a
103
b
128
b
4
b
29
b
54
a
79
d
104
d
129
a
5
c
30
c
55
a
80
b
105
b
130
c
6
d
31
b
56
c
81
c
106
b
131
a
7
d
32
d
57
b
82
b
107
b
132
a
8
b
33
b
58
d
83
d
108
b
133
a
9
d
34
b
59
c
84
b
109
b
134
d
10
d
35
c
60
a
85
a
110
c
135
c
11
b
36
c
61
a
86
b
111
b
136
b
12
b
37
d
62
b
87
a
112
a
137
d
13
a
38
b
63
b
88
a
113
b
138
b
14
b
39
b
64
d
89
a
114
a
139
a
15
a
40
b
65
a
90
d
115
d
140
c
16
b
41
c
66
c
91
d
116
b
141
a
17
b
42
a
67
a
92
c
117
d
142
a
18
d
43
b
68
d
93
c
118
b
143
c
19
d
44
b
69
b
94
c
119
b
144
c
20
a
45
d
70
b
95
d
120
c
145
21
c
46
b
71
a
96
d
121
a
146
22
a
47
c
72
c
97
a
122
c
147
23
a
48
b
73
a
98
a
123
c
148
24
a
49
a
74
b
99
a
124
d
149
25
d
50
c
75
b
100
b
125
d
150

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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021