Download AIIMS PG 2017 May Question paper with Answers

Download AIIMS PG 2017 May Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

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AIIMS PG MAY 2017
(Based on Memory)
1. Which of the following an example of Anaplerotic reaction
a. Pyruvate to OAA
b. Pyruvate to Acetyl COA
c. Pyruvate to lactic acid
d. Pyruvate to alcohol
2. Thiamine deficiency cause decrease in energy production because decrease activity all
except.
a. PDH COMPLEX
b. Alphaketogularate dehydrogenase
c. Branch chain ketoacid dehydrogenas
d.Trans ketolase
3. In which of the following insulin / glucagon ratio is law ?
a. Fat synthesis
b. Cholesterol synthesis
c. Glycogen storage
d. Ketogenesis
4. ATP are produced in anaerobic glycalysis with which substrate:
a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Glycogen
5. Maximum thermic Effect of food is seen with
a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Thermic energy not related to macronutrients
6. The reason for high VLDL and triglyceride is diabetes mellitus?
a. High activity of lipoprotein lipase and high Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
b. High activity of lipoprotein lipase and low Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
c. Low activity of lipoprotein lipase and high Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
d. Low activity of lipoprotein lipase and low Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
7. Mode of action of phenylbutarate defective urea cycle?
a. Scavenge excess nitrogen using glutamine
b. Scavenge excess nitrogen using glycine
c. Induces enzymes of urea cycle
d. Increase ATP production
8. Which of following true about mitochondrial DNA:
a. Has 23 chromosome derived from both parents
b. Mutations less frequent than nuclear DNA
c. Less than 20y. ETC enzymes subunits are encoded
0
9
d. Has more than 3 10 base pairs
9. Decreased Insulin-Glucagon ratio is seen in all Except:
a. Glycogen storage
b. Glycogen breakdown
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Ketogenesis
10. Which of the following is a editing techniques?
a. CRISPR / cas9

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b. Genome vide association studies (GWAS)
c. Scanning Force Microscopy (SFM)
d. Genexpert
11. Which of the following is responsible for Bezold jarisch reflex?
a. Serotonin
b. Histamine
c. Angiotensin
d. Prostaglandin
12. The oxygen carrying capacity of a 18-year old boy hemoglobin of 14g/dl is?
a. 14
b. 16
c.18
d. 22
13. What will be the oxygen carrying capacity of an 18 year old male with blood hemoglobin
level of 14gm/dl?
a. 18ml /dl
b. 14ml /dl
c. 12ml /dl
d. 10ml /dl
14. Role of acetone free methyl alcohal in leishman stain is:
a. Fixes the cells to side
b. Stains the cells
c. Disrupts the membrane
d. Preserves the cell in their normal metabolic state
15. A patient of anemia with hemoglobin of 5 was evaluated.WBC and platelet was normal and
reticulocyte count was 9% calculate corrected reticulocyte count:
a. 4
b. 4.5
c. 3
d. 3.5
16. If the RB gene phosphorylation is defective which of the following will happen
a. Arrest at G1
b. Arrest at G2
c. No effect on cell cycle as RB Gene phosphorylation is not needed
d. Cell cycle progresses and cell divides
17. Which of the following can change the gene expression by methylation and acetylation
without affecting the content of gene?
a. Amplification
b. RNA editing
c. Epigenetics
d. Delection
18. ALK gene mutation is seen in which of the following cancers?
a. Synovial sarcoma
b. Ewings sarcoma
c. Fibromyo sarcoma
d. Inflammatory myofibro blastic tumor
19. Which one of the following is a negative acute phase reactants.
a. Ferritin
b. Albumin
c. Hepcidin
d. Crp
20. RDW denotes:
a. Anisocytosis
b. Poikilocytosis
c. Polychromasia
d. Hypochromasia
21. Which of the following is the new screening marker to diagnose hepatic fibrosis.

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a. Transaminases
b. Laminin and Hyalunoridase
c. Bilirubin and ALP
d. GGT
22. Maximum risk of pancreatic cancer is seen with?
a. peutz jeghers syndrome
b. Hereditary Pancreatitis
c. Fap
d. Fammm syndrome
23. Mechanism of action of proteases inhibitors is?
a. Inhibition of protein translation and synthesis
b. Inhibition of assembly of virus particle
c. Inhibition of formation of viral DNA from RNA
D. Inhibition of formation of viral RNA copies
24. Components of lente insulin are?
a. 30% amorphous + 70% crystalline
b. 30% crystalline + 70% amorphous
c. Same as NPH insulin
d. Only 70% amorphous
25. Which of the following is a bacteriocidal drug against mycobacterium leprae?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Erythromycin
d. Ofloxacin
26. Which of the following antirheuatic drug acts by increasing extracellular adenosine?
a. Hydroxychloroquine
b. Leflunomide
c. Methotrexate
d. Azathioprine
27. Which of the following is true about vasomotor reversal of date in guinea pig?
a. Stimulation of following by Stimulation
1
2
b. Stimulation by low does epinephrine followed by
2
1 Stimulation
c. Stimulation of followed block of receptors
1
2
d. Stimulation by norepinephrine followed by
2
1 Stimulation!
28. Mechanism of action of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) medicine is?
a. It blocks hemoglution on the iral surface
b. It is a neuraminidase inhibitor
c. It is an inhibitor of viral transcription
d. It Inhibits viral particle uncoating
29. Mood stabilized with anti ? suicidal properties?
a. Lithium
b. Valprate
c. Carbamezapine
d. Lamotrigin
30. Empirical treatment of meningococcal meningitis
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefepime
c. Tigecycline
d. Carbapenems
31. Antidote fibrinolytic therapy?
a. Vitamin K
b. Protamine sulphatic
c. Epsilon amino caproic acid
d. Alteplase
32. Which of the following is a p glycoprotein induces?

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a. Erythromycin
b. Ketoconazole
c. Voriconazole
d. Rifampicin
33. DOC for pneumocystis jirovecil prophylaxis in an immunocompromised patient?
a. Amoxycilin
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Rifampin
d. Fluconazole
34. Storage of drugs in tissues is suggested by?
a. Large apparent Volume of distribution
b. Less excretion in urine
c. Small apparent volume of distribution
d. Excretion in saliva
35. Drug of choice for strawberry vagina is:
a. Doxycyeline
b. Metronidazole
c. Fluconazole
d. Amoxicillin
36. 1-3 glucan assay is not useful for which of the following?
a. Pneuocystis Jeroveci
b. Aspergillis fumigates
c. Coyptococus necformans
d. Conddoalbicans
37. After digestion of anti body by papain ,which of the following fragment will be produced?
a. Two fab fragment and one F (ab) 2 fragment
b. One F (ab)2 fragment and digestion products
c. Two fab fragment and one FC fragment
d. One F(ab) 2 fragment and one FC fragment
38. All are caused due to staphylococcal toxin except?
a. Toxin shock syndrome
b. SSSS
c. Food poisoning
d. Septicemia
39. All are caused by zika virus except?
a. Petechial rash
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Fever with arthralgia
d. GBS
40. A 25 years old patient is suspected to have rabies and a swab is taken from cornea-what is
the investigation of choice for diagnosis?
a. Seller stain for Negri bodies
b. Direct immunofluorescence
c. RT-PCR
d. RFFIT
41. MHC-2 is not present in which of the following cells?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Dendritic cells
d. cells p
42. Which of the following receptors is not present on T cells for development?
a. TDT
b. PAX-S
c. CD34
d. CD3
43. What is corpora-basal index?
a. Ratio of breath of first sacral vertebrae to breadth of base of sacrum X100
b. Ratio of breath of Base of sacrum to first sacral vertebrae breadth X100

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c. Ratio of breath of Base of sacrum to breadth of lumbar vertebrae X100
d. Ratio of breath of lumbar vertebrae to breadth of Base of sacrum X100
,
44. What is kraissl s lines?
a. Line of fracture in communities practice of bone
b. Line of preasure in a bene due to bullet
c. Line of redness around wound after veiling
d. Relaxed tension lines in skin
45. Jack knife position causes death due to:
a. Burking
b. Traumatic asphyxia
c. Positional asphyxia
d. Wedging
46. Which of the following artery is not ligated in case of an epistaxis?
a. Anterior Ethmoidal artery
b. Maxillary artery
c. Internal casoted artery
d. External caroid artery
47. Visual field defect seen in Optic chiasm damage is?
a. Bitemporal hemianopia
b. Binasal hemianopia
c. Pie in the sky
d. Keyhole defect
48. Which of the following nucleus is involved in the medial rectus palsy?
a. Superior colliculus
b. Inferior colliculus
c. Olivary nucleus
d. Edinger westphal nucleus
49. A wane in jugular venous pulse is:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Passive filling
c. Ventricular contraction
d. Ventricular ejection
50. Complication of stroke which need not be managed urgently?
a. Fever
b. Spasticity
c. Neglect
d. Dysphagia
51. Window period of thrombolysis in case of a stoke patient according to new guidelines is:
a. 1.5 hours
b. 2.5 hours
3.5 hours
d. 4.5 hours
52. CURB scoring does not include?
a. BP systolic less than 100 and diastolic less than 40
b. RR > 30 / MIN
C. Confusion and BUN > 7mmol
d. Age 65 years
53. Which symptom below is not a feature of myasthenia gravis?
a. Normal papillary reflex
b. Flaccidity of muscles
c. Absent reflex
d. Ptosis
nd
54. A 28 year old female presents with complaints of fever, headache, vomiting 2 day
postpartum, on examination no neurological deficits observed. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
a. Meningitis
b. Subarachnoid haemorrhage

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c. Cortical vein thrombosis
d. Migraine
55. A 30 years old mail presents to causality with life threatening hemoptysis, which of the
following procedure should not be done?
a. Bronchoscopy with cautery
b. Surgical resection of lung segment
c. Bronchial artery embolization
d. Pulmonary artery embolization
56. Which of the following is not a criteria of pyrexia of unknown origin?
a. Fever of more than 38.3 degree at 2 occasions
b. Duration greater than or equal to 3 weeks
c. Absence of immunosuppressed state
d. No definite diagnosis even after 1 week of inpatient investigations
57. Raised TSH with normal / subnormal T4, diagnosis?
a. Primary hypothyroidism
b. Subclinical hypothyroidism
c. Secondary hypothyroidism
d. Primary hypothyroidism
58. Fluid management of burns patient who sustained burns 8 hours ago came to the hospital?
st
a. 4 mg / kg % burns surface area -1 half in 8 hours & half remaining 16 hours
b. 5 ml / kg % burns surface area
c. 4 ml / kg % burns surface area in next 16 hrs
d. 4 ml / kg % burns surface area in next 24 hrs
59. A boy scalded with hot water, on presentation wound pink, painful. Treatment is:
a. Parafffin gauze and leave open
b. Silver sulfadiazine on alternate days
c. Collagen dressing
d. Debridement
60. What is the sensitivity of USG for detecting LN metastasis in a patient of Breast carcinoma?
a. 10 ? 20 %
b. 20 ? 30 %
c. 30 ? 40 %
d. 50 ? 60 %
61. A 20 weeks pregnant female presented with a thyroid ass. On FNAC it was suggestive of
papillary carcinoma. All o the following can be used as treatment modality except?
a. Lobectomy
b. Total thyroidectomy
c. Hemithyroidectomy
d. Radioiodine ablation
62. Which of the following is wrong regarding the management of a patient during primary
surgery in the trauma bay?
a. CT is not done in an unstable patient
b. X-ray chest and peliculas an adjaranet to primary survey
c. Cervical x-ray in primary modality
d. Chest x-ray In PA view only
63. A patient of breast carcinoma was operated and started on tamoxifen , which of the
following is the correct modality of follow up?

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a. Yearly bone scans
b. LFT at 3 ? 6 month internal
c. 3 monthly clinical examination with yearly mammography
d. 3 -6 monthly routine checkups
64. Best flap for ant chest wall repair?
a. TRAM
b. Pectorals muscle
c. Serratus anterior
d. VRAM
65. A 40 ? years ? old female with a 2 cm nodule in the right breast and HPF proved metastatic
nodule in the axilla. Best management is?
a. Quandrantectomy
b. Mastectomy with local radiotherapy
,
c. Patey s with adjuvant chemotherapy
,
d. Halsted s operation with tamoxifen
66. A 32 years old female can for routine PAP smear testing. The PAP report came back as
HSIL what is the next step in this case?
a. Conization
b. Hysterctomy
c. Colposcopy and biopsy
d. HPV DNA testing
67. Which of the following is a who guideline in second stage of labor?
a. Perform labor in lithotomy position
b. Give warn compress to the perineum
c. Manual support to perineum with deflexion of head
d. Do a routine episiotomy
68. A 25 ? years ? old female under workup for primary infertility. On hysterosalpingography
tere was bilateral corneal block. Which is the next step in management?
a. Hydrotubation
b. IVF
C. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy guided surgery
d. Tuboplasty
69. Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following?
a. Anterior
b. Vaginal hysterectomy
c. Wertheim hysterectomy
d. Abdominal hysterectomy
70. Which of the following fits into the criteria of severe variable deceleration: variations less
than?
a. 100 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
b. 90 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
c. 80 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
d. 70 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
71. Which of the following is the best parameter assess in case of male inferlity?
a. Motility of sperms
b. The number of sperm
c. Quantity of sperm
d. The morphology of sperm
72. At what cervical dilation is plotting of partogram started?
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm

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c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm
73. Endometriotic lesion is due to which hormone effect?
a. High estrogen
b. High progesterous
c. High cholesterol
d. High levels of pralactin
74. What is the biochemical marker for the condition with spade like fingers, large jaw,
acromegaly?
a. 1 GF 1
b. Prolactin
c. TSH
d. Somatostain
75. March fracture following stress is seen in which part of the metatarsal?
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Shaft
d. Base
76. Haglund deformity is seen in which of the following joints?
a. Knee
b. Wrist
c. Elbow
d. Ankle
77. In polio paralysis band ? knee gait is due to weakness of?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Quadricape
d. Gastronemius
78. which of the following is the most common sequelae of traumatic dislocation of shoulder?
a. Normal shoulder healing & normal movements
b. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
c. Rotator cuff injury
d. Subcapsular tendonitis
79. A 30 years old lady comes with a 2 month history of non scarring patchy alopecia on the left
side. There was no erythema. The diagnosis is?
a. Alopecia ereata
b. Trichotillomonia
c. Telogen effluvium
d. Androgenetic alopecia
80. A patient comes with skin and oral lesions. All are true except.
a. DSG 3 antibodies
b. DSG 1 antibodies
c. Antibody against hemidesmosomes
d. 1 Gg type is the most common
81. A child had hyperpigmented patch with hair on check sine birth- The diagnosis is?
a. Congenital melanocytic nevus
b. Verrucous epidermal nevus
c. Lentigines
d. Melanoacanthoma
82. A 12 years old child comes with exudative lesions with itching inculeital fossa, popliteal
fossa and neck. The diagnousis is?
a. Dermatitis herpetiformis
b. Pemphigus
c. Psoriasis
d. Atopic dermatitis

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83. A child presented with a circulars 3 cm x 3 cm scaly patchy hair loss with itching in the
lesions.
Which of the following should be done for making the diagnousis?
a. Slit skin smear
b. KOH
c. Gram stain
d. Tzanck smear
84. Mutism and akinesis in a patient who appears awake and even alert is beat described as:
a. Stupor
b. Oncroid
c. Twilight
d. Delirium
85. A child presented with diarrhea without blood and mucus. Skin pinch was positive but goes
off within 2 seconds. The child is irritable and drinks eagerly. What is the management?
a. Ors with Zinc
b. Home remedies
c. Antibiotics and ors
d. IV fluids
86. A 12 years old girl present to the OPD with abdominal colic, nausea, diarrhea and litharge
and headache for last 1 year Her, irritability and anger increased since last few month and she
presented to emergency with weakness of lower limbs, what is the diagnosis?
a. Conversion disorder
b. Acute intermittent prophyria
c. Lower limb paralysis
d. AIDP with migraine
87. Which of the following statements is tree regarding Galeazzi fracture dislocation?
a. Radial collateral ligament tear with interosseous membrane tear with radical shaft fracture
b. interosseous membrane tear with triangular fibro- cartilage complex tear and ulnar shaft
fracture
c. interosseous membrane tear with ulnar shaft fracture
d. interosseous membrane tear with triangular fibro- cartilage complex tear and radical shaft
fracture
88. Which of the following is true regarding congenital CMV infection?
a. Diagnosed only by persistent presence of 1 gm antibody after 6 month
b. It is the most common of non ? syndromic sensory neural heaving loss
c. All babies born are symptomatic
d. Mothers of developing countries who transmit the infection are usually symptomatic.
89. Which of the following is not seen fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Microcephaly
c. Maerocephaly
d. Thinning of corpus collosum
90. A delivery assistant named sandhya was posted at PHC and sister in charge asked hear to
do P/N, after which she wrote that the station is + 1. What is meant by that?
a. Fetal head A+ level of ischial spine
b. Just below ischial spine
c. Above ischial spine in false pelvis
d. In perineum
91. A RH negative, primi pregnant lady at 38 weeks, who was ICT negative was given first does
of anti D at 28 weeks, which of the following is true regarding the management after delivery?
a. Give second dose within 72 hours depending on blood group of baby

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b. No need of second does
c. Give anti D to baby only
d. Give anti D to mom within 72 hours irrespective of blood group of baby
92. A 28 year old woman came to DPD with a twin pregnancy. She already has had 2 first
tri mester abortions and has a 3- years old female child who was born at the end of ninth month
of gestation. Which of the following is her accurate representation.
a. G4P1 + 2 + 0 + 1
b. G4P1 + 0+2 + 1
c. G5p1 + 0 + 2 + 1
d. G5p0 + 1 + 1 + 2
93. A 23 years old female came with complanints of 4 month amenorrhea. The FSH and LH
were elevated above the normal value. Thyroid function test were normal. Which is the next
step in management?
a. Do a urine pregnancy test
b. Give progesterone and stop after 10 days for withdrawal bleeding
c. Estimate serum estradiol values
d. Check USG for polycystic ovaries
94. A 15 years old male presented to OPD with tall stature, on examination, he had spade like
fingers, frontal bossing, his nose and tongue was also enlarger than normal. What is the next
best step diagnosis?
a. Serum prolactin
b. Serum insulin like growth factor
(1GF)
c. TSH
d. Serum testosterone
95. A 30 year old female present to OPD with non specific polyarthragia, on indirect
immunofluoresence, nucleolar ANA were found to be positive, what can be future presentation
all axcept?
a. 1LD and chronic renal disease
b. Raynanuds phenomenon and selerodactyly
c. Recurrent oral and genital ulcers
d. Decreased salivation and lacrimation
96. A patient presented with ascending flaccid paralysis of both lower limbs. What serum
electrolyte abnormality should be checked for immediately?
a. Serum magnesium
b. Serum potassium
c. Serum calcium
d. Serum sodium
97. A 2 weeks old infant had conjunctivitis, which later developed into respiratory distress and
pneumonia Chest x-ray showed bilateral lung infiltrates. WBC count 14,300/dl. Which of the
following is the most likely organism?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. H. influenza
c. N. gonorrhoeae
d.Streptococcus pneumoniae
98. The following are the disease frequencies in a population ? Based on the number of cases
which of the following is the correct match?
Disease 1: Number of cases last week 42 this week 43
Disease 2: Number of cases last week 2 and present week 42
Disease 3: Number of cases last week 6 and present week
a. Endemic, epidemic, sporadic
b. Endemic, sporadic, epidemic

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c. Sporadic, endemic, epidemic
d. Pandemic, endemic, sporadic
99. A patient was sputum negative for TB, but chest x-ray was suggestive for TB. Which is the
next step according to RNTCP?
a. Liquid culture
b. CB ? NAAT
c. Line probe assay
d. None of the above
100. A researcher sad he has discovers a new drug which is effective in chronic hypertensives
with a p value of < 0.10. which of the following is true regarding the same?
a. The test is 90 % reproducible
b. 90 % of test results could have occurred by chance
c. Not more than 10 % of the people benefited by the drug could be due to chance
d. 90 % f patients will be benefited by giving the drug.
101. A radiotherapist prescribes a new drug combination of chemotherapy and immunotherapy
for metastatic melanoma. It prolongs the survival. Which of the following is true in this situation?
a. Incidence redices and prevalence increase
b. Incidence remains the same and prevalence increase
c. Incidence redices and prevalence increase the same
d. Incidence increase and prevalence redices
102. Rhinosporidium seeberi belong to?
a. Fungus
b. Bacteria
c. Aquatic protistam protozoa
d. Virus
103. A- 20 years old male with history of fever and lymphnodes and sore throat was suspected
to have infectious mononucleosis and was ordered a paul- Bunneli test. Which of the following
is the principle of the test?
a. Hetarophic antibody test
b. Neutralisation reaction
c. Complement mediated cell damage
d. Agglutination reaction
104. A girl with Acute promyelocytic leukemia was under going treatment.she developed
techypnea, fever and pulmonary infiltrates what is the treatment of choice?
a. Cytarabine
b. Dexmethasone
c. Methotrexate
d. Doxorubicin
105. A 40 years old man present with Nyha class 3 dyspnea, creatine of 2.5 mg %, potassium
level of 4.5 meg/l Which of the following durry is contraindicated?
a. Carvedilol
b. Spironolactone
c. Enalapril
d. Digoxin
106. A patient of CAD with history of M 1 2 month back; and clrabets mellitus with LDL 126, HDL
32 and triglycerides 36. Which of the following drug should be given?
a. Rosuvastain 10 mg
b. A torvastain 80 mg
c. Fenofibrate and Rosuvastain
d. Fenofibrate
107. A drug x was given continuous IV at a rate of 1.6 mg/min, clearance of x was 640 ml/min.
with t1/2 of 1-8h. what would be the concentration of drug after aoweving study state in mg /ml?
a. 0.002 mg
b. 0.008 mg

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c. 2.88 mg
d. 3.25 mg
108. all are idiosyncratic reactions of carbamazepin except?
a. Rash
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Blurred vision
d. Steven Johnson syndrome
109. Patient was inistered 200 mg of a drug. 75 mg of the drug is climinated in 90 minutes. If the
drug follows first order kinetics how much drug will remain 6 hours?
a. 6.25 mg
b. 12.5 mg
c. 25 mg
d. 50 mg
110. 70 year old patient has diabetes mellines and hyper tension. He present with CKD stage 5
and does not want to take insulin. Which antidiabetic drug will you prefer in this patient that does
not require does modification in renal diesese?
a. Linaglipin
b. Vildagliptin
c. Glimepride
d. Rapaglinide
111. A 40- year-old patient came with complaints of spikes of fever and difficulty in breathing.
Trancesophageal echo found out vegetations in the heart. The culture showed positive for
Burkholderia cepacia. Which of the following is the first line management? Drug of choice for
Burkholderia cepacia pneumonia is?
a. Amimoglycosides and colistin
rd
b. Carbepenams and 3 generation cephalasporins
c. Tigecycline and cefepime
rd
d. Cotrimoxazole with 3 generation ceplalsporin
112. Which of the following is accurate regarding the intracellular iron metabolism in iron
deficiency anemia?
a. Transferrin receptor I-iron responsive elements (IRE) increases Transferrin receptor M RNA
concentration and synthesis
b. Transferrin receptor I-iron responsive elements (IRE) decrease Transferrin receptor M RNA
concentration and increases synthesis
c. Apoferritin M RNA I-iron responsive elements (IRE) decrease and ferritin synthesis
d. Apoferritin M RNA I-iron responsive elements decrease and ferritin
113. Cyclin D1 resistant mantle cell lymphoma mrker:
a. Annexin V
b. Fox
c. Sox 11
d. Notch
114. Normally in thymus the T cells are exposed to all the antigens of the body so they can be
identified as self and prevent Autoimmunity. Which of the following genes in involved in this
process.
a. NOTCH
b .AIRE
c. NOTCH
d. CTLA
115. A 29 years old female with history of polyarthralgia and back ache was investigated. She
had nuclear pattern of DNA in immunofloresence. Which of the following is the best fit in her
case?
,
a. Sclerodactyly, Raymand s, phenomenon, lung fibrosis
,
b. Raymand s , phenomenon, parotid swelling, Dry mouth
c. Glomerulonephritis, malar rash, oral ulcer

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d. Genital ulcer, skin nodules, lung fibrosis
116. An about was brought to the causally with complaints of the rapid heart rate. On
examination everything was normal except for episodic tachycardia and occasional extrasystole
and amblyopia. What might be the most probable case?
a. Cannabis
b. Atropine
c. Chronic Nicotine poisoning
d. Cocaine
117. All are caused due to staphyloccal toxin except?
a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. SSSS
c. Food poisoning
d. Septicemia
118. A 4 years old boy developed progressive and gradual hoarseness of voice over a period fo
the part weeks. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Acute epiglottitis
b. Croup
c. Vocal nodule
d. Respiratory papillomatosis
119. A 28 years old female was admitted to the causally with history of head trauma in a RTA.
Her eyes open to pain, she moans ad localizes towards a painful stimulus on her left hand and
away from the stimulus on her right hand, both her legs are in extended posture. what is the
GCS of the patient?
a. 5
b. 7
c.9
d.11
120. A female patient underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy fdlowe by which she was
discharged the next day. After 3 days the patient presented with complaints of pain abdomen
and fever. On USG abdomen there was a subhepatic collection of fluid measuring 5* 1cm
dimension. What is the next step in the management of the patient?
a. Pigtail insertion and drainage
b. ERCP
c. Re ? explore and T ? tube insertion
d. Antibiotic
121. Haglund deformity is seen in which of the following joints?
a. Knee
b. Wrist
c. Elbow
d. Ankle
122. Which of the following statements is true regarding Galeazzi fracture distocatin?
a. Radial collateral ligament tear with interosseous membrane tear with radial shaft fracture.
b. Interosseous membrane tear with triangular fibro ? cartilage complex tear and ulnar shaft
fracture.
c. Intersseus membrane tear with ulnar shaft fracture.
d. Intersseus membrane tear with triangular fibro ? cartilage complex tear and radial shaft
fracture.

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ANSWER KEY
1
a
26
c
51
c
76
d
101
b
2
d
27
a
52
a
77
c
102
c
3
d
28
b
53
c
78
b
103
a
4
d
29
a
54
c
79
b
104
b
5
c
30
a
55
d
80
c
105
a
6
c
31
c
56
d
81
a
106
b
7
a
32
d
57
b
82
d
107
a
8
c
33
b
58
c
83
b
108
c
9
a
34
a
59
c
84
a
109
d
10
a
35
b
60
d
85
a
110
a
11
a
36
c
61
d
86
b
111
d
12
c
37
c
62
d
87
d
112
a
13
a
38
d
63
c
88
b
113
c
14
d
39
a
64
b
89
c
114
b
15
c
40
b
65
b
90
b
115
a
16
a
41
a
66
c
91
a
116
c
17
c
42
b
67
a
92
b
117
d
18
d
43
a
68
c
93
c
118
d
19
b
44
d
69
c
94
b
119
c
20
a
45
c
70
d
95
c
120
a
21
b
46
c
71
d
96
b
121
d
22
a
47
a
72
b
97
a
122
d
23
b
48
a
73
a
98
a
24
a
49
a
74
a
99
b
25
d
50
b
75
b
100
c

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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021