Download AIIMS PG 2017 May Question paper with Answers

Download AIIMS PG 2017 May Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

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JIPMER MBBS Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answers (Solved Question Papers)

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AIIMS PG MAY 2017 (Based on Memory)

Which of the following is an example of Anaplerotic reaction
1. Pyruvate to OAA
2. Pyruvate to Acetyl COA
3. Pyruvate to lactic acid
4. Pyruvate to alcohol
Thiamine deficiency cause decrease in energy production because decrease activity all except.
1. PDH COMPLEX
2. Alphaketogularate dehydrogenase
3. Branch chain ketoacid dehydrogenas
4. Trans ketolase
In which of the following insulin / glucagon ratio is law
1. Fat synthesis
2. Cholesterol synthesis
3. Glycogen storage
4. Ketogenesis
ATP are produced in anaerobic glycalysis with which substrate:
1. Fructose
2. Glucose
3. Galactose
4. Glycogen
Maximum thermic Effect of food is seen with
1. Carbohydrate
2. Fat
3. Protein
4. Thermic energy not related to macronutrients
The reason for high VLDL and triglyceride is diabetes mellitus?
1. High activity of lipoprotein lipase and high Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
2. High activity of lipoprotein lipase and low Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
3. Low activity of lipoprotein lipase and high Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
4. Low activity of lipoprotein lipase and low Activity of hormone sensitive lipase
Mode of action of phenylbutarate defective urea cycle?
1. Scavenge excess nitrogen using glutamine
2. Scavenge excess nitrogen using glycine
3. Induces enzymes of urea cycle
4. Increase ATP production
Which of following true about mitochondrial DNA:
1. Has 23 chromosome derived from both parents
2. Mutations less frequent than nuclear DNA
3. Less than 20y. ETC enzymes subunits are encoded
4. Has more than 3 10 base pairs
Decreased Insulin-Glucagon ratio is seen in all Except:
1. Glycogen storage
2. Glycogen breakdown
3. Gluconeogenesis
4. Ketogenesis
Which of the following is a editing techniques?
1. CRISPR / cas9
Genome vide association studies (GWAS)
1. Genome vide association studies (GWAS)
2. Scanning Force Microscopy (SFM)
3. Genexpert

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Which of the following is responsible for Bezold jarisch reflex?
1. Serotonin
2. Histamine
3. Angiotensin
4. Prostaglandin

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The oxygen carrying capacity of a 18-year old boy hemoglobin of 14g/dl is?
1. 14
2. 16
3. 18
4. 22

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What will be the oxygen carrying capacity of an 18 year old male with blood hemoglobin level of 14gm/dl?
1. 18ml/dl
2. 14ml /dl
3. 12ml/dl
4. 10ml /dl

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Role of acetone free methyl alcohal in leishman stain is:
1. Fixes the cells to side
2. Stains the cells
3. Disrupts the membrane
4. Preserves the cell in their normal metabolic state

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A patient of anemia with hemoglobin of 5 was evaluated.WBC and platelet was normal and reticulocyte count was 9% calculate corrected reticulocyte count:
1. 4
2. 4.5
3. 3
4. 3.5

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If the RB gene phosphorylation is defective which of the following will happen
1. Arrest at G1
2. Arrest at G2
3. No effect on cell cycle as RB Gene phosphorylation is not needed
4. Cell cycle progresses and cell divides

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Which of the following can change the gene expression by methylation and acetylation without affecting the content of gene?
1. Amplification
2. RNA editing
3. Epigenetics
4. Deletion

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ALK gene mutation is seen in which of the following cancers?
1. Synovial sarcoma
2. Ewings sarcoma
3. Fibromyo sarcoma
4. Inflammatory myofibro blastic tumor

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Which one of the following is a negative acute phase reactants.
1. Ferritin
2. Albumin
3. Hepcidin
4. Crp

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RDW denotes:
1. Anisocytosis
2. Poikilocytosis
3. Polychromasia
4. Hypochromasia

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Which of the following is the new screening marker to diagnose hepatic fibrosis.
Transaminases
1. Transaminases
2. Laminin and Hyalunoridase
3. Bilirubin and ALP
4. GGT
Maximum risk of pancreatic cancer is seen with?
1. peutz jeghers syndrome
2. Hereditary Pancreatitis
3. Fap
4. Fammm syndrome
Mechanism of action of proteases inhibitors is?
1. Inhibition of protein translation and synthesis
2. Inhibition of assembly of virus particle
3. Inhibition of formation of viral DNA from RNA
4. Inhibition of formation of viral RNA copies
Components of lente insulin are?
1. 30% amorphous + 70% crystalline
2. 30% crystalline + 70% amorphous
3. Same as NPH insulin
4. Only 70% amorphous
Which of the following is a bacteriocidal drug against mycobacterium leprae?
1. Amoxicillin
2. Ciprofloxacin
3. Erythromycin
4. Ofloxacin
Which of the following antirheuatic drug acts by increasing extracellular adenosine?
1. Hydroxychloroquine
2. Leflunomide
3. Methotrexate
4. Azathioprine
Which of the following is true about vasomotor reversal of date in guinea pig?
1. Stimulation of following by Stimulation
2. Stimulation by low does epinephrine followed by Stimulation
3. Stimulation of followed block of 2 receptors
4. Stimulation by norepinephrine followed by Stimulation!
Mechanism of action of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) medicine is?
1. It blocks hemoglution on the iral surface
2. It is a neuraminidase inhibitor
3. It is an inhibitor of viral transcription
4. It Inhibits viral particle uncoating
Mood stabilized with anti – suicidal properties?
1. Lithium
2. Valprate
3. Carbamezapine
4. Lamotrigin
Empirical treatment of meningococcal meningitis
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Cefepime
3. Tigecycline
4. Carbapenems
Antidote fibrinolytic therapy?
1. Vitamin K
2. Protamine sulphatic
3. Epsilon amino caproic acid
4. Alteplase
Which of the following is a p glycoprotein induces?
Erythromycin
1. Erythromycin
2. Ketoconazole
3. Voriconazole
4. Rifampicin
DOC for pneumocystis jirovecil prophylaxis in an immunocompromised patient?
1. Amoxycilin
2. Cotrimoxazole
3. Rifampin
4. Fluconazole
Storage of drugs in tissues is suggested by?
1. Large apparent Volume of distribution
2. Less excretion in urine
3. Small apparent volume of distribution
4. Excretion in saliva
Drug of choice for strawberry vagina is:
1. Doxycyeline
2. Metronidazole
3. Fluconazole
4. Amoxicillin
1-3 glucan assay is not useful for which of the following?
1. Pneuocystis Jeroveci
2. Aspergillis fumigates
3. Coyptococus necformans
4. Conddoalbicans
After digestion of anti body by papain,which of the following fragment will be produced?
1. Two fab fragment and one F (ab)2 fragment
2. One F (ab)2 fragment and digestion products
3. Two fab fragment and one FC fragment
4. One F(ab) 2 fragment and one FC fragment
All are caused due to staphylococcal toxin except?
1. Toxin shock syndrome
2. SSSS
3. Food poisoning
4. Septicemia
All are caused by zika virus except?
1. Petechial rash
2. Conjunctivitis
3. Fever with arthralgia
4. GBS
A 25 years old patient is suspected to have rabies and a swab is taken from cornea-what is the investigation of choice for diagnosis?
1. Seller stain for Negri bodies
2. Direct immunofluorescence
3. RT-PCR
4. RFFIT
MHC-2 is not present in which of the following cells?
1. Erythrocytes
2. Macrophages
3. Dendritic cells
4. cells p
Which of the following receptors is not present on T cells for development?
1. TDT
2. PAX-S
3. CD34
4. CD3
What is corpora-basal index?
1. Ratio of breath of first sacral vertebrae to breadth of base of sacrum X100
2. Ratio of breath of Base of sacrum to first sacral vertebrae breadth X100

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Ratio of breath of Base of sacrum to breadth of lumbar vertebrae X100
1. Ratio of breath of Base of sacrum to breadth of lumbar vertebrae X100
2. Ratio of breath of lumbar vertebrae to breadth of Base of sacrum X100
What is kraissl s lines?
1. Line of fracture in communities practice of bone
2. Line of preasure in a bene due to bullet
3. Line of redness around wound after veiling
4. Relaxed tension lines in skin
Jack knife position causes death due to:
1. Burking
2. Traumatic asphyxia
3. Positional asphyxia
4. Wedging
Which of the following artery is not ligated in case of an epistaxis?
1. Anterior Ethmoidal artery
2. Maxillary artery
3. Internal casoted artery
4. External caroid artery
Visual field defect seen in Optic chiasm damage is?
1. Bitemporal hemianopia
2. Binasal hemianopia
3. Pie in the sky
4. Keyhole defect
Which of the following nucleus is involved in the medial rectus palsy?
1. Superior colliculus
2. Inferior colliculus
3. Olivary nucleus
4. Edinger westphal nucleus
A wane in jugular venous pulse is:
1. Atrial contraction
2. Passive filling
3. Ventricular contraction
4. Ventricular ejection
Complication of stroke which need mot be managed urgently?
1. Fever
2. Spasticity
3. Neglect
4. Dysphagia
Window period offtmombolysis in case of a stoke patient according to new guidelines is:
1. 1.5 hours
2. 2.5 hours
3. 3.5 hours
4. 4.5 hours
CURB scoring does not include?
1. BP systolic less than 100 and diastolic less than 40
2. RR > 30/MINI
3. Confusion and BUN > 7mmol
4. Age 65 years
Which symptom below is not a feature of myasthenia gravis?
1. Normal papillary reflex
2. Flaccidity of muscles
3. Absent reflex
4. Ptosis
A 28 year old female presents with complaints of fever, headache, vomiting 2^nd day postpartum, on examination no neurological deficits observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Meningitis
2. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Cortical vein thrombosis
1. Cortical vein thrombosis
2. Migraine
A 30 years old mail presents to causality with life threatening hemoptysis, which of the following procedure should not be done?
1. Bronchoscopy with cautery
2. Surgical resection of lung segment
3. Bronchial artery embolization
4. Pulmonary artery embolization
Which of the following is not a criteria of pyrexia of unknown origin?
1. Fever of more than 38.3 degree at 2 occasions
2. Duration greater than or equal to 3 weeks
3. Absence of immunosuppressed state
4. No definite diagnosis even after 1 week of inpatient investigations
Raised TSH with normal / subnormal T4, diagnosis?
1. Primary hypothyroidism
2. Subclinical hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hypothyroidism
4. Primary hypothyroidism
Fluid management of burns patient who sustained burns 8 hours ago came to the hospital?
1. 4 mg / kg % burns surface area -1 half in 8 hours & half remaining 16 hours
2. 5 ml/kg % burns surface area
3. 4 ml/kg % burns surface area in next 16 hrs
4. 4 ml/kg % burns surface area in next 24 hrs
A boy scalded with hot water, on presentation wound pink, painful. Treatment is:
1. Parafffin gauze and leave open
2. Silver sulfadiazine on alternate days
3. Collagen dressing
4. Debridement
What is the sensitivity of USG for detecting LN metastasis in a patient of Breast carcinoma?
1. 10-20%
2. 20-30%
3. 30-40%
4. 50-60%
A 20 weeks pregnant female presented with a thyroid ass. On FNAC it was suggestive of papillary carcinoma. All o the following can be used as treatment modality except?
1. Lobectomy
2. Total thyroidectomy
3. Hemithyroidectomy
4. Radioiodine ablation
Which of the following is wrong regarding the management of a patient during primary surgery in the trauma bay?
1. CT is not done in an unstable patient
2. X-ray chest and peliculas an adjaranet to primary survey
3. Cervical x-ray in primary modality
4. Chest x-ray In PA view only
A patient of breast carcinoma was operated and started on tamoxifen, which of the following is the correct modality of follow up?

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Yearly bone scans
1. Yearly bone scans
2. LFT at 3-6 month internal
3. 3 monthly clinical examination with yearly mammography
4. 3-6 monthly routine checkups

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Best flap for ant chest wall repair?
1. TRAM
2. Pectorals muscle
3. Serratus anterior
4. VRAM

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A 40-years - old female with a 2 cm nodule in the right breast and HPF proved metastatic nodule in the axilla. Best management is?
1. Quandrantectomy
2. Mastectomy with local radiotherapy
3. Patey s with adjuvant chemotherapy
4. Halsted s operation with tamoxifen

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A 32 years old female can for routine PAP smear testing. The PAP report came back as HSIL what is the next step in this case?
1. Conization
2. Hysterctomy
3. Colposcopy and biopsy
4. HPV DNA testing

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Which of the following is a who guideline in second stage of labor?
1. Perform labor in lithotomy position
2. Give warn compress to the perineum
3. Manual support to perineum with deflexion of head
4. Do a routine episiotomy

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A 25 - years - old female under workup for primary infertility. On hysterosalpingography tere was bilateral corneal block. Which is the next step in management?
1. Hydrotubation
2. IVF
3. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy
4. Tuboplasty

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Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following?
1. Anterior
2. Vaginal hysterectomy
3. Wertheim hysterectomy
4. Abdominal hysterectomy

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Which of the following fits into the criteria of severe variable deceleration: variations less than?
1. 100 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
2. 90 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
3. 80 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds
4. 70 beats per minute lasting for 60 seconds

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Which of the following is the best parameter assess in case of male inferlity?
1. Motility of sperms
2. The number of sperm
3. Quantity of sperm
4. The morphology of sperm

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At what cervical dilation is plotting of partogram started?
1. 3 cm
2. 4 cm
5 cm
1. 5 cm
2. 6 cm
Endometriotic lesion is due to which hormone effect?
1. High estrogen
2. High progesterous
3. High cholesterol
4. High levels of pralactin
What is the biochemical marker for the condition with spade like fingers, large jaw, acromegaly?
1. 1 GF 1
2. Prolactin
3. TSH
4. Somatostain
March fracture following stress is seen in which part of the metatarsal?
1. Head
2. Neck
3. Shaft
4. Base
Haglund deformity is seen in which of the following joints?
1. Knee
2. Wrist
3. Elbow
4. Ankle
In polio paralysis band – knee gait is due to weakness of?
1. Gluteus maximus
2. Gluteus medius
3. Quadricape
4. Gastronemius
which of the following is the most common sequelae of traumatic dislocation of shoulder?
1. Normal shoulder healing & normal movements
2. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
3. Rotator cuff injury
4. Subcapsular tendonitis
A 30 years old lady comes with a 2 month month history of non scarring patchy alopecia on the left side. There was no erythema. The diagnosis is?
1. Alopecia ereata
2. Trichotillomonia
3. Telogen effluvium
4. Androgenetic alopecia
A patient comes with skin and oral lesions. All are true except.
1. DSG 3 antibodies
2. DSG 1 antibodies
3. Antibody against hemidesmosomes
4. 1 Gg type is the most common
A child had hyperpigmented patch with hair on check sine birth- The diagnosis is?
1. Congenital melanocytic nevus
2. Verrucous epidermal nevus
3. Lentigines
4. Melanoacanthoma
A 12 years old child comes with exudative lesions with itching inculeital fossa, popliteal fossa and neck. The diagnousis is?
1. Dermatitis herpetiformis
2. Pemphigus
3. Psoriasis
4. Atopic dermatitis
A child presented with a circulars 3 cm x 3 cm scaly patchy hair loss with itching in the lesions. Which of the following should be done for making the diagnousis?
1. Slit skin smear
2. KOH
3. Gram stain
4. Tzanck smear
Mutism and akinesis in a patient who appears awake and even alert is beat described as:
1. Stupor
2. Oncroid
3. Twilight
4. Delirium
A child presented with diarrhea without blood and mucus. Skin pinch was positive but goes off within 2 seconds. The child is irritable and drinks eagerly. What is the management?
1. Ors with Zinc
2. Home remedies
3. Antibiotics and ors
4. IV fluids
A 12 years old girl present to the OPD with abdominal colic, nausea, diarrhea and litharge and headache for last 1 year Her, irritability and anger increased since last few month and she presented to emergency with weakness of lower limbs, what is the diagnosis?
1. Conversion disorder
2. Acute intermittent prophyria
3. Lower limb paralysis
4. AIDP with migraine
Which of the following statements is tree regarding Galeazzi fracture dislocation?
1. Radial collateral ligament tear with interosseous membrane tear with radical shaft fracture
2. interosseous membrane tear with triangular fibro- cartilage complex tear and ulnar shaft fracture
3. interosseous membrane tear with ulnar shaft fracture
4. interosseous membrane tear with triangular fibro- cartilage complex tear and radical shaft fracture
Which of the following is true regarding congenital CMV infection?
1. Diagnosed only by persistent presence of 1 gm antibody after 6 month
2. It is the most common of non – syndromic sensory neural heaving loss
3. All babies born are symptomatic
4. Mothers of developing countries who transmit the infection are usually symptomatic.
Which of the following is not seen fetal alcohol syndrome?
1. Holoprosencephaly
2. Microcephaly
3. Maerocephaly
4. Thinning of corpus collosum
A delivery assistant named sandhya was posted at PHC and sister in charge asked hear to do P/N, after which she wrote that the station is + 1. What is meant by that?
1. Fetal head A+ level of ischial spine
2. Just below ischial spine
3. Above ischial spine in false pelvis
4. In perineum
A RH negative, primi pregnant lady at 38 weeks, who was ICT negative was given first does of anti D at 28 weeks, which of the following is true regarding the management after delivery?
1. Give second dose within 72 hours depending on blood group of baby
No need of second does
1. No need of second does
2. Give anti D to baby only
3. Give anti D to mom within 72 hours irrespective of blood group of baby
A 28 year old woman came to DPD with a twin pregnancy. She already has had 2 first tri mester abortions and has a 3- years old female child who was born at the end of ninth month of gestation. Which of the following is her accurate representation.
1. G4P1+2+0+1
2. G4P1 + 0+2 + 1
3. G5p1 + 0 + 2 + 1
4. G5p0 + 1 + 1 + 2
A 23 years old female came with complanints of 4 month amenorrhea. The FSH and LH were elevated above the normal value. Thyroid function test were normal. Which is the next step in management?
1. Do a urine pregnancy test
2. Give progesterone and stop after 10 days for withdrawal bleeding
3. Estimate serum estradiol values
4. Check USG for polycystic ovaries
A 15 years old male presented to OPD with tall stature, on examination, he had spade like fingers, frontal bossing, his nose and tongue was also enlarger than normal. What is the next best step diagnosis?
1. Serum prolactin
2. Serum insulin like growth factor
3. TSH
4. Serum testosterone
A 30 year old female present to OPD with non specific polyarthragia, on indirect immunofluoresence, nucleolar ANA were found to be positive, what can be future presentation all axcept?
1. 1LD and chronic renal disease
2. Raynanuds phenomenon and selerodactyly
3. Recurrent oral and genital ulcers
4. Decreased salivation and lacrimation
A patient presented with ascending flaccid paralysis of both lower limbs. What serum electrolyte abnormality should be checked for immediately?
1. Serum magnesium
2. Serum potassium
3. Serum calcium
4. Serum sodium
A 2 weeks old infant had conjunctivitis, which later developed into respiratory distress and pneumonia Chest x-ray showed bilateral lung infiltrates. WBC count 14,300/dl. Which of the following is the most likely organism?
1. Chlamydia trachomatis
2. H. influenza
3. N. gonorrhoeae
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
The following are the disease frequencies in a population – Based on the number of cases which of the following is the correct match? Disease 1: Number of cases last week 42 this week 43 Disease 2: Number of cases last week 2 and present week 42 Disease 3: Number of cases last week 6 and present week
1. Endemic, epidemic, sporadic
2. Endemic, sporadic, epidemic

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Sporadic, endemic, epidemic
1. Sporadic, endemic, epidemic
2. Pandemic, endemic, sporadic
A patient was sputum negative for TB, but chest x-ray was suggestive for TB. Which is the next step according to RNTCP?
1. Liquid culture
2. CB - NAAT
3. Line probe assay
4. None of the above
A researcher sad he has discovers a new drug which is effective in chronic hypertensives with a p value of < 0.10. which of the following is true regarding the same?
1. The test is 90 % reproducible
2. 90% of test results could have occurred by chance
3. Not more than 10% of the people benefited by the drug could be due to chance
4. 90% f patients will be benefited by giving the drug.
A radiotherapist prescribes a new drug combination of chemotherapy and immunotherapy for metastatic melanoma. It prolongs the survival. Which of the following is true in this situation?
1. Incidence redices and prevalence increase
2. Incidence remains the same and prevalence increase
3. Incidence redices and prevalence increase the same
4. Incidence increase and prevalence redices
Rhinosporidium seeberi belong to?
1. Fungus
2. Bacteria
3. Aquatic protistam protozoa
4. Virus
A- 20 years old male with history of fever and lymphnodes and sore throat was suspected to have infectious mononucleosis and was ordered a paul- Bunneli test. Which of the following is the principle of the test?
1. Hetarophic antibody test
2. Neutralisation reaction
3. Complement mediated cell damage
4. Agglutination reaction
A girl with Acute promyelocytic leukemia was under going treatment.she developed techypnea, fever and pulmonary infiltrates what is the treatment of choice?
1. Cytarabine
2. Dexmethasone
3. Methotrexate
4. Doxorubicin
A 40 years old man present with Nyha class 3 dyspnea, creatine of 2.5 mg %, potassium level of 4.5 meg
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