Download JIPMER MBBS 2003 Question Paper With Answers

Download JIPMER (Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research) 2003 Question Paper With Answers

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JIPMER MBBS Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answers (Solved Question Papers)

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JIPMER MBBS 2003

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In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to extravasate into all of the following spaces except
1. The scrotum
2. Penis
3. Anterior abdominal wall
4. Ischerectal fossa

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The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is
1. Glipizide
2. Chlorpropamide
3. Gliclazide
4. Metformin

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The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following except
1. To the aorta anteriorly
2. To the 2 lumbar nerve closely
3. The cauda equina of spinal cord
4. Is the site of origin of Psoas major

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The ant diabetic drug which is considered as post prandial hyperglycaemic regulator is
1. Rosiglitazone
2. Piaglitazone
3. Ripaglinide
4. Tolbutamide

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The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
1. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
2. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
3. Extension, abduction and internal rotation
4. Flexion, abduction and external rotation

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All of the following structures arise from the embryonic ectoderm except
1. The anterior hypophysis cerebri
2. The epithelium of thyroid cartilage
3. Enamel of teeth
4. Epithelium lining the nasolacrimal duct

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Stimulation of the region over the sartorius muscle over the lower part of hunters canal would cause stimulation of which muscle
1. Cremastric
2. Anal
3. Bulbocavernous
4. Iliopsoas

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All of the following statements are true about Treacher Collins syndrome except
1. It is inherited as autosomal dominant
2. The defect is due to neuronal migration disorder
3. It is sue to 3^rd arch defect
4. It occurs due to terratogenic effect of isotretenoic acid

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The bronchial artery supplies the respiratory tract till the
1. Terminal bronchiole
2. Respiratory bronchiole
3. Tertiary bronchiole
4. Proximal bronchiole

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The AV node is situated in the
1. The membranous portion of intraventricular septum
2. The muscular portion of intraventricular septum
3. Interatrial septum
4. Crista terminalis

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The jugular foramen transmits all of the following except
1. Superior petrosal sinus
2. Internal jugular vein
3. Glossopharyngeal nerve
4. Vagus nerve

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The relationship between Inferior vena cava and sympathetic trunk is
1. It is anterior to it
2. Lateral to it
3. Posterior to it
4. Medial to it

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The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the following views
1. Occipitobregmatic
2. Mentovertical
3. Fronto-occipital
4. Lateral view

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Which of the following are true about the causation of tetralogy of fallot
1. It is due to defect in formation of membranous part of intraventricular septum
2. Failure of fusion of conus medularis and septum secundum
3. Failure of fusion of septum primum with septum secundum
The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the following views
1. Occipitobregmatic
2. Mentovertical
3. Fronto-occipital
4. Lateral view
The lymphatic drainage from the ovaries and rectum drains into which of the following lymph nodes
1. Aortic
2. Aortic and common iliac
3. Aortic, common iliac and internal iliac
4. Aortic, common iliac, internal iliac and inguinal
The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
1. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
2. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
3. Extension, abduction and internal rotation
4. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
The drug which causes ototoxity manifesting mainly as vestibular component is
1. Gentamycin
1. Kanamycin
2. Amikacin
3. Natilimicin

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There are many complications of CSOM. The Tobey Ayer test is used to see for which of the following complication
1. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
2. Cerebral abcess
3. Lateral sigmoid sinus thromosis
4. Petrositis

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The extracellular fluid which contains increase potassium and low sodium ions is
1. CSF
2. Ectolymph
3. Endolymph
4. Pleural fluid
5. Aryepiglottic folds
In bilateral abductor paralysis of the vocal cords the voice described is
1. Mogiphonia
2. Phoneasthenia
3. Good or normal
4. Woody
The muscles supplied by the glossopharyngeal muscle include all of the following except
1. Constrictors of pharynx
2. Stylopharyngeus
3. Taste from circumvallata pappilae
4. Sensation from 1/3 tongue
Most of the CNS tumors in children are present in
1. Supratentorial region
2. Extradural
3. Infratentorial region
4. Cauda equina
There is bulging of the endolymph sac in which of the following diseases
1. Otospongiosis
2. Otosclerosis
3. Meniere's disease
4. Otitis media
Tuberculosis most commonly involves which of the following part of the larynx
1. Vocal cords
2. Subglottic region
3. Posterior commissure
4. Aryepiglottic folds
The hypopharynx includes all of the following except
1. Pyriformis fossa
2. Epiglottis
3. Post cricoid region
4. Valecula
All of the following are coccobacilli except
1. Bordatella
2. Brucella
3. Klebsiella
4. H.Influenza
All of the following are true about von Willibrands disease except
1. Abnormal platelet count
1. Normal platelet
2. Decreased time on addition of ristocetin
3. Decreased coagulation to ADP
The most pathognomonic feature of a malignant lesion is
1. Vascular invasion
2. Metastasis
3. Genetic mutation
4. Tissue markers
The nerve that supplies the pronator muscle of the distal radioulnar joint is
1. Deep branch of radial nerve
2. Posterior interossius nerve
3. Median nerve
4. Ulnar nerve
Photostress test is done to test
1. Macula
2. Optic nerve
3. Refractive error
4. Optic tract
Laser iridotomy is done for
1. Buphthalmos
2. Primary angle closure glaucoma
3. Staphyloma
4. After cataract
The markers which differentiates between a highly malignant cancer and a lymphoma is
1. Neuron specific enolase
2. Cytokeratin
3. Vimentin
4. Desmin
The enzyme which does not take part in DNA replication is
1. Restriction endonuclease
2. Telomerases
3. Reverse transcriptase
The articular capsule is defective in which part of the IP joint
1. Dorsum(posterior)
2. Ventral (anterior)
3. Lateral
4. Medial
In high myopia which of the following is seen
1. Retinal heamorhages
2. Papillitis
3. Chorioretinal degeneration
4. Uvietis
Hyperkalemia is seen in which of the following types of renal tubular acidosis
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV
Normal anion gap acidosis is seen
1. Lactic acidosis
2. Diarrhea
3. Diabetic ketoacidosis
4. Glycol poisoning
Face to pubis is seen in which type of pelvis
1. Android
2. Anthropoid
3. Gynecoid
4. Platepyloid
Thiamine is used in which of the following reactions
1. Pyruvate to oxalate
2. Pyruvate to acetyl coA
3. Succinate to Fumarate
4. Malonate to oxaloacetate
Which of the following amino acid is both polar and ionic
1. Aspartate
2. Leucine
3. Glutamate
4. Arginine
The HLA III codes for
1. Taq proteins
2. Complement gene protein
3. Helper T cells
4. Diabetes Mellitus
Zafirulukast is a drug which has found use in asthmatic patients it acts by
1. LOX inhibitor
2. Leukotrien receptor blocker
3. Newer phosphodiestrase inhibitor
4. Endothelin receptor blocker
Superior gluteal nerve supplies to all of the following muscles except
1. Gluteus medius
2. Gluteus minimus
3. Iliotibial tract
4. Gluteus maximus
Decarboxylation of which amino acid releases a compound which has potent vasodilator effects
1. Aspartate
2. Arginine
3. Glutamate
4. Histidine
Ross position (used in tonsillectomy ) is used for which of the following procedures
1. Tracheostomy
2. Bronchoscopy
3. Flexible esophagoscopy
4. Direct laryngoscopy
All of the following are used in monitoring use of magnesium sulphate in eclampsia except
1. Respiratory rate
2. Deep tendon reflexes
3. Serum calcium levels
4. Urine output
The drug used to treat a pregnant women with 20 week gestation with blood pressure of 150/90 is
1. Enalapril
2. Furesemide
3. Hydralizine
4. Atenolol
All of the following are indications of trail of labour except
1. Young primi
2. Vertex anterior
3. Breech presentation

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For brow presentation the engaging diameter is
1. Submentobregmatic
2. Mentovertical
3. Submento-occipital
4. Occipito-bregmatic

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The drug which is added to pyramithamine in the treatment of toxoplasma gondi infections is
1. Clindamycin
2. Clarithromycin
3. Amikacin
4. Vancomycin

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In a HIV seropositive case all of the following are causes of diarrhea except
1. Isospora
2. Acanthameoba
3. Cryptospora
Deceased activity of osteoblasts is caused by
1. Parathormone
2. Vitamin D 3
3. Corticosterone
4. T3 and T4
Perineal support is to be given during labour to prevent lacerations in which of the following conditions
1. Breech
2. Shoulder
3. Body
4. Leg
Frontal EEG showing slowed delta waves is seen. The probable cause would be
1. Metabolic encephalopathy
2. Hypoxic encephalopathy
3. Raised intracranial pressure
4. Toxoplasma infection
In the mass prophylaxis in filariasis in India the drug and the dosage preffered is
1. DEC 6mg/Kg for 1 day
2. DEC 6 mg/Kg for 12 days
3. Ivermectin 24 micro/Kg
4. Albendazole 400mg single dose
In AIDS defining illness, which of the following is not included in the criteria
1. Candidiasis
2. Cryptosporidiasis
3. Multidermatomal herpes zoster
4. Recurrent salmonella septicaemia
The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops feotalis is
1. Infectious Mononucleosis
2. Parvo virus 19
3. Erythema infectiosum
1. Measles

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All of the following would be positive test for carbohydrate except
1. Starch
2. Glucose
3. Arabinose
4. Erythrose

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The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by
1. PAS stain
2. Perls stain
3. DOPA reaction
4. Wrights stain

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Fanconi's anaemia can be best classified as
1. Constitutional anaemia
2. Immunologic anaemia
3. Allergic anaemia
4. Autoimmune

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In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in peripheral smear
1. Dohle bodies
2. Malignant cells
3. Hypersegmented neutrophils
4. Pelger Heut anomaly

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The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops feotalis is
1. Infectious Mononucleosis
2. Parvo virus 19
3. Erythema infectiosum
4. Measles

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All of the following would be positive test for carbohydrate except
1. Starch
2. Glucose
3. Arabinose
4. Erythrose

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The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by
1. PAS stain
2. Perls stain
3. DOPA reaction
4. Wrights stain

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Fanconi's anaemia can be best classified as
1. Constitutional anaemia
2. Immunologic anaemia
3. Allergic anaemia
4. Autoimmune

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In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in peripheral smear
1. Dohle bodies
2. Malignant cells
3. Hypersegmented neutrophils
4. Pelger Heut anomaly

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The appropriate test used to asses the venous thrombosis is
1. I 131 fibrinogen study
2. Doppler ultrasound
1. Duplex ultrasonography
2. Contrast venography
Selenium is a cofactor in which of the following enzymes
1. Xanthine oxidase
2. Cytochrome oxidase
3. Cytochrome reductase
4. Dehydrogenase
The region of the brain which is responsible for the emotional aspect of humans is
1. Amygdala
2. Frontal lobe
3. Hippocampus
4. Occipital lobe
In lesion of ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus there will be
1. Hypersomnia
2. Hyperphagia
3. Anorexia
4. Decreased thirst
The complement which would stimulate the bone marrow is
1. C3b
2. C2
3. C9
4. C4
In a malignant lesion-tumor which of the following would be seen
1. Normal vasculature
2. No neovascularization
3. Contrast pooling
4. Thickened capsule
In isometric muscle exercise the changes seen are
1. Increase in heart rate
2. Increase in diastolic pressure
3. Increase in systolic pressure
4. Significant increase in cardiac output
All of the following are currently matched except
1. Parietal lobe- Finger agnosia
2. Fascial canal damage-LMN fascial palsy
3. Inferior colliculus- internuclear opthalmoplegia
4. Temporal lobe -superior quadrantinopia
Blockade of the mainstem of the MCA of the dominant side would lead to all of the following except
1. Contralateral hemiplegia
2. Global aphasia
3. Homonymous hemianopia
4. Gaze palsy with eyes directed towards contralateral side
The central sulcus of the brain is classified as
1. Axial sulcus
2. Operculated sulcus
3. Limiting sulcus
4. Completed sulcus
The oxygen haemoglobin curve would shift to the right due to all of the following except
1. Increased temperature
2. Decreased pH
3. Feotal haemoglobin
4. Increase in 2,3 DPG
Tc99 is derived from which of the following
1. Str-99
2. Mo-99
3. Str-90
4. Mo-90
The rays used for cold sterilization is
1. UV rays
2. Gamma rays
3. Alpha rays
4. Beta rays
All of the following are tributaries for the fascial vein except
1. Transverse fascial vein
2. External branch of palatine vein
3. Tonsillar vein
4. Pharyngeal vein
Teacher A's class showed a standard deviation of 4.9 and teacher B's class showed a standard deviation of 2.5. This shows that
1. Mr. A's class is more homogenous then B's
2. Mr. B's class is less heterogenous then A's
3. Mr. A's class is showing better results then B's
4. Mr B's class is showing better results then A's
The structure which plays a role in muscle tension is
1. Golgi tendon organ
2. Muscle spindle
3. Annular spiral bundle
4. Fascicular bundle
Which of the following is not used therapeutically in radiotherapy
1. Neutrons
2. Positrins
3. Electrons
4. Alpha rays
The most common indication for surgery in chronic pancreatitis is
1. Doudenal obstruction
2. Pain
3. Infection
4. Malignant transformation
Hemihypertrophy of one side of the body is associated with which of the following diseases of the kidney
1. Alport's
2. Medullary sponge kidney
3. Medullary cystic kidney
4. Adult polycystic kidney diseases
An adult with a rectal polyp is likely to have which of the following associated disorder
1. Familial adenomatosis polyposis
1. Hypokalemia
2. Irritable bowel disease
3. Peutz Jeghers syndrome
In a patient is brought unconscious in the casualty and is found to have PaCo2-70, PaO2-50, and pH is 7.17. He is most probably cause is
1. Hypoxic respiratory failure
2. Central respiratory depression
3. COPD
4. Hypersensitive pneumonitis
A 40 weeks child can do all of the following except
1. Play a simple ball game
2. Cruise
3. Pick up objects inadvertently
4. Wave bye bye
ANCA positive diseases are all of the following except
1. Microscopic polyangitis
2. Henoch scheonlien purpura
3. Churgs Strauss syndrome
4. Wegeners Granulomatosis
A person stumbled but did not fall. He felt pain and noticed a swelling in the leg. The most propable cause is
1. Cruciate ligament injury
2. Meniscal injury
3. Lateral collateral ligament
4. Patellar fracture
Which of the following internal hernias is associated with a sac
1. Epiploic foramen
2. Transmesocolon
3. Transmesentric
4. Through the broad ligament
In ARDS the pathology underlying the disease is
1. Diffuse infiltration of plasma cells in the intra-alveolar regions
2. Diffuse alveolar damage
3. Organizing bronchiolitis
4. Diffuse consolidation
The Malampati scoring is done to asses the patients
1. Consciousness
2. Airways
3. Cardiac status
4. Renal functioning
In a individual with Indeterminate leprosy is found to mitsuda test negative. This would most likely progress into which of the following leprosy
1. Boderline tuberculoid
2. Boderline leprosy
3. Lepromatous leprosy
4. Tuberculoid leprosy
A flat polypoid, polygonal purplish lesion is classically seen in
1. Psoriasis
1. Lichen planus
2. Pemphigus vulgaris
3. Pemphigoid
In a patient with ectopic kidney the adrenals would most likely be located
1. In the pelvis
2. In the opposite side
3. In normal position
4. Behind the spleen
All of the following are about the luteal cyst of the ovary except
1. Associated with pregnancy
2. May rupture causing an acute abdomen
3. May attain a large size if left untreated
4. Treated by oral contraceptive pills
Diffussion hypoxia is known to occur when use of which of the following anaesthetic agents
1. Halothane
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Ethylene oxide
4. Sevoflourane
Pediculosis papebraum is caused by
1. Body louse
2. Pubic louse
3. Head louse
4. Pediculosis semian species
Congenital atresia is seen most commonly in which location
1. Ileal
2. Doudenal
3. Proximal colon
4. Distal colon
According to Samson's theory endometriosis is caused by
1. Lymphatic embolization
2. Hormonal imbalance
3. Endometrial metaplasia
4. Transmembrane permeation
The maturation of graafian follicles is best monitored by
1. Endometrial biopsy
2. Transvaginal ultrasound
3. Progesterone levels
4. Temperature changes
Primary ovarian failure is treated by
1. GnRH levels
2. FSH
3. Oestrogen and progesterone supplementation
4. Bromocriptine
In median episiotomy which of following is seen
1. Increased blood loss
2. Increased dyspareunia later
3. Increased pain
The type of uroporphyrinogens and coproporphyrinogens seen in congenital erythropoitic porphyreas is
1. Type I
2. Type II

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1. Type III
2. Type IV
Suicidal attempts are more commonly seen all of the following except
1. Old age
2. Severe depression
3. Panic attacks
4. Bipolar disorder
Single gene disorder causes all of the following diseases except
1. Familial hypercholesteroleamia
2. HOCM
3. Systemic hypertension
4. Sickle cell disease
Post ovulation there is a rise in all of the following hormones except
1. Estradiol
2. Estriol
3. Progesterone
4. Inhibin
Which of the following is not a contraindication for trial of labour
1. Breech
2. Central placenta previa
3. Hysterotomy
4. Post myomectomy
Sodium retention is seen in use of
1. Triamcinolone
2. Hydrocortizone
3. Prednisolone
4. Corticosterone
In benign prostatic hyperplasia all of the following are seen except
1. Increased trabeculations in bladder
2. Enlargement of lateral lobes of prostate
3. Detrusor instability
4. Narrowing of urethra
All of the following are seen in bronchial cyst except
1. Lined by sqaymous epithelium
2. Arise from 1^st bronchial cleft
3. May be transilluminant
4. May contain cholesterol
All of the following cause increase in acid secretion except
1. Acetyl choline
2. Histamine
3. Gastrin
4. Prostaglandins
All of the following are seen in COPD except
1. Descent of trachea during inspiration
2. Decreased compliance
3. Decreased FeV1/Vc ratio
4. Increased residual volume
Which of the following is not a stage of Pneumonia is
1. Congestion

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1. Resolution
2. Organization
3. Hepatization
Avascular necrosis is seen in all of the following except
1. Upper end of humerus
2. Body of talus
3. Head of femur
4. Scapula
In a patient with congenital pseudoarthosis of tibia treatment is by
1. Excision
2. Fibular grafting
3. Arthrodesis
4. Open reduction, bone grafting and internal fixation
Unstable injury of the spine is seen in
1. Flexion injury
2. Compression injury
3. Flexion-rotation injury
4. Extensor injuries
Pottassium is absorbed in
1. Thick ascending limb of henle
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Distal convoluted tubule
4. Collecting duct
Egg on cup appearance in intravenous urography is seen in
1. Pappillary necrosis
2. Megacalyces
3. Medullary sponge kidney
4. Adult polycystic kidney disease
An elderly but healthy patient with a 4 part fracture of the proximal humerus is best treated by
1. Cuff and sling
2. K-wire fixation
3. Open reduction and internal fixation
All of the following features are seen in an infant with cerebral palsy except
1. Decreased physical activity
2. Unable to suck
3. Fisting of hand is seen
4. Flexor hypertonia

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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

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