Download MBBS 2nd Year 2022 March 526065 Microbiology Paper I Mcqs MCQs Question Paper

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THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6065

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M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)

SECOND YEAR

PAPER III - MICROBIOLOGY -1

O.P. Code: 526065

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Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.

No overwriting should be done.

II1. Multiple Choice Questions: (20x1=20)

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1. Phase contrast microscopy is useful for studying
   1. Microbial motility
   2. Determining the shape of living cells
   3. Detecting bacterial components such as endospores and inclusion bodies
   4. All of the above

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2. Bacterial capsule can be demonstrated by
   1. Gram staining
   2. Acid fast staining
   3. Negative staining
   4. Albert staining

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3. All of the following antimicrobial agents act on cell membrane, except:
   1. Gramicidin
   2. Daptomycin
   3. Polymyxins
   4. Vancomycin

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4. Fungi which do not have sexual stage:
   1. Zygomycota
   2. Ascomycota
   3. Basidiomycota
   4. Fungi imperfecti

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5. Weil-felix reaction is a serological test based on
   1. Heterophile antigen
   2. Sheep brain antigen
   3. Superantigen
   4. T-cell dependant antigen

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6. A positive tuberculin test is an example of
   1. Type I hypersensitivity
   2. Type II hypersensitivity
   3. Type III hypersensitivity
   4. Type IV hypersensitivity

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7. Lens antigens of the eye are a type of
   1. Sequestered antigens
   2. Neoantigens
   3. Cross reacting antigens
   4. None of the above

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8. Grafts between two genetically non-identical member of the same species are known as
   1. autografts
   2. Isografts
   3. Allograft
   4. Xenograft

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9. All of the following vaccines are given at birth, except
   1. BCG
   2. Hepatitis B
   3. DPT
   4. OPV

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10. Which is not an ESKAPE pathogen?
    1. Enterococcus faeccium
    2. Staphylococcus aureus
    3. Klebsiella pneumonia
    4. Proteus mirabilis

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11. All the following are device-associated infections except
    1. CAUTI (Catheter-Related Urinary Tract Infections)
    2. CLABSI (Central line associated blood stream infections)
    3. VAP (Ventilator associated pneumonia)
    4. SSI (Surgical site infections)

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12. Endoscope is sterilized by:
    1. Glutaraldehyde
    2. Formaldehyde
    3. Autoclaving
    4. Hot air oven

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13. Which of the following is used for disinfection of blood spillage area?
    1. Phenol
    2. Hypochlorite
    3. Lysol
    4. Formaldehyde

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14. All are potentially highly infectious specimen for occupational injury except
    1. Blood
    2. Semen
    3. CSF
    4. Saliva

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15. Staphylococcus aureus is differentiated from CoNS by all except
    1. Coagulase test
    2. DNase test
    3. Catalase test
    4. Protein A detection

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16. CAMP test is useful in identification of
    1. S. pyogenes
    2. S. agalactiae
    3. S. pneumoniae
    4. Viridans streptococci

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17. “Malignant pustule” is a term used for
    1. An infected malignant melanoma
    2. A carbuncle
    3. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer
    4. Anthrax of the skin

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18. Bipolar staining is characteristic of
    1. Yersinia pestis
    2. Shigella
    3. Klebsiella
    4. Proteus

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19. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the following malignancies except
    1. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    2. Burkitt’s lymphoma
    3. Carcinoma of cervix
    4. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

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20. Otomyecosis is caused by all except
    1. Aspergillus niger
    2. Aspergillus fumigatus
    3. Candida albicans
    4. Fusarium

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