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RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2017 June And December Question Papers

RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2017 June And December Question Papers

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We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Second Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year June

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination –

Time: Three Hours                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Forensic Medicine (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1087

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Define infanticide. Describe methods usually adopted for carrying out infanticide. Add a note on macerated fetus.
  2. Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between ante mortem and post mortem burns? What are the causes of death due to burns?

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Treatment of oxalic acid poisoning
  2. Chronic mercurial poisoning
  3. Narcoanalysis
  4. Botulism
  5. Hallucination
  6. Blood groups and medico legal importance
  7. Management of snake bite
  8. Judicial hanging
  9. Coup and Counter coup injury
  10. Res ipsa loquitor

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Impulse
  2. Conduct money
  3. Juvenile court
  4. Suspended animation
  5. Foot prints
  6. Negative autopsy
  7. Pseudo virgin
  8. Tribadism
  9. Euthanasia
  10. Locoparentis

1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

 

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Microbiology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1084

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Enumerate Parasites found is–, Blood Describe life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum. (3+7)
  2. Enumerate Hepatitis Viruses Describe morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B Virus. (3+2+2+3)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
  2. Immunoprophylaxis of Rabies
  3. Hydatid cyst
  4. Mycetoma
  5. Interferons
  6. Cultivation of Viruses
  7. Concentration methods for Stool
  8. Dermatophytes
  9. Japanese Encephalitis
  10. Giardia lamblia

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Classification of Fungi
  2. Oral thrush
  3. Antigenic shift and drift
  4. Structure of HIV
  5. Fungal slide culture
  6. Inclusion body
  7. Rhinosporidiosis
  8. NIH Swab
  9. Cysticercus Cellulosae
  10. Difference between Amoebic and Bacillary Dysentery

1084 Microbiology Paper II            Download

 

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1083

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Define Infection. Name the different types of Infection. Describe sources of Infection. (1+3+6)
  2. Enumerate the organisms causing Pyogenic meningitis. Describe in detail pathogenesis and

laboratory diagnosis of Meningococcal meningitis. (3+3+4)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Plasmid
  2. Autoimmunity
  3. Precipitation reactions
  4. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
  5. Methods of Anaerobiosis
  6. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  7. Standard tests for Syphilis
  8. Lepromin test
  9. Bacterial Spore
  10. Laboratory diagnosis of Typhoid fever
SHORT ANSWERS

13.    Heterophile Antigen

14.    Differences between El Tor and Classical Vibrio

15.    Classification of Staphylococci

16.    Prevention of Tetanus

17.    Draw a neat labeled diagram of IgM

18.    Electron Microscope

19.    Methods of obtaining pure culture of Bacteria

20.    Selective Media

21.    Significant Bacteriuria

22. Non-suppurative infections of Streptococcus pyogenes *lc***

10 x 3 = 30 Marks

 

1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                      Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pathology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1081

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. What is Metastasis? Describe the pathways of spread of tumours. Describe the mechanism of

Cancer Metastasis.                                                                                          (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

  1. A 58 years old pure vegetarian male presented with Pallor, weakness, red baldy tongue and
    numbness in the fingers. His Hb was 8gm°/13 and MCV was 11011.
  2. What is your diagnosis and why?
  3. What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
  4. What are the laboratory findings in such cases? (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Types of Necrosis with examples
  2. Laboratory findings in Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
  3. Role of Complements in Inflammation
  4. Vitamin C deficiency
  5. Laboratory diagnosis of Genetic diseases
  6. Bone Marrow Aspiration study
  7. Pathogenesis of Thrombosis
  8. Leukemoid reaction

11,       Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology

  1. Klinefelter syndrome

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Give three examples for Free Radicals and Antioxidants.
  2. Diagnostic criteria for Multiple Myeloma
  3. Cardinal signs of Inflammation
  4. Causes for Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia
  5. Cytological findings in Malignant Pleural Effusion
  6. Basophilia
  7. Target cells
  8. Name different Cancers associated with Chronic Alcoholism.
  9. Special (Cytochemical) stains used in Acute Leukemias
  10. Give two examples each for different Mendelian Inheritance.

1081 Pathology Paper I            Download

 

 

Rajiv Cycindili Universitv of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1082

You answers shout be specific to the questons asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of

Ovary. (2+8)

  1. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10

days, following episode of Pharyngitis.

  1. What is the probable diagnosis?
  2. Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Gastric Carcinoma
  2. Alcoholic Liver disease
  3. Bronchial Asthma
  4. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
  5. Complications of Gall Stones
  6. Thyrotoxicosis
  7. Intestinal Amoebiasis
  8. Lung Abscess
  9. Premalignant Lesions of Squarnous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
  10. Pyogenic Meningitis
SHORT ANSWERS

13.    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

14.    Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid

15.    Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension

16.    Classification of Hodgkin’s disease

17.    Causes for Splenomegaly

18.    Phaeochromocytoma

19.    Colloid Goitre

20.    Fibroadenoma – Breast

21.    Leiomyoma – Uterus

22.    Scar Endometriosis

10 x 3 = 30 Marks

 

1082 Pathology Paper II          Download

 JUNE 2017

Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pharmacology – Paper I (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)
Q.P. CODE: 1085

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Classify sympathomimetics Describe the cardiovascular actions and therapeutic uses of
  2. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of phenytoin sodium. Mention newer antiepileptic drugs.

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Enzyme induction and its clinical significance
  2. Transdermal route of drug administration
  3. Treatment of Organophosphorus poisoning
  4. Uses of alpha adrenergic blockers
  5. Mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Ramipril
  6. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of Furosemide
  7. Fibrinolytic drugs
  8. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of morphine
  9. Clonidine
  10. Factors modifying drug action

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                           x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Three differences between Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines
  2. Succinyl choline
  3. Atropine substitutes
  4. Mention six uses of anti-platelet drugs_
  5. Name three uses of verapamil.
  6. Treatment of paracetamol poisoning
  7. Explain the pharmacological basis for combining Carbidopa with Levodopa.
  8. Six uses of centrally acting muscle relaxants
  9. Rosuvastatin
  10. Treatment of cardiogenic shock

1085 Pharmacology Paper I            Download

 

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1086

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Describe the antibacterial spectrum, mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
  2. Classify antithyroid drugs. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of (a) Carbimazole, (b) Radioactive Iodine.

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Aminopenicillins
  2. Therapeutic uses of Metronidazole
  3. Drug treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria
  4. Griseofulvin
  5. Metformin
  6. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)
  7. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of H1 blockers
  8. Sodium chromoglycate
  9. Bulk purgatives
  10. Oxytocics

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Explain why chloroquine is effective in extra-intestinal amoebiasis but not effective in intestinal amoebiasis.
  2. What are adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
  3. Why ethambutol is not used in children below six years?
  4. Name two centrally acting cough suppressants. Why they are not used in a patient having productive cough?
  5. Explain how Sucralfate acts. Can it be used along with antacids? Give reason.
  6. Enumerate therapeutic uses of prostaglandins.
  7. What are indications for use of Dimercaprol? Where is it contraindicated?
  8. Name two uricosuric drugs. How do they produce uricosuric effect?
  9. How does Metoclopramide produce its antiemetic effect? What is its central toxicity?
  10. Explain the terms ‘Antiseptic’ and ‘Disinfectant’ with examples.

1086 Pharmacology Paper II           Download

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year December

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

FORENSIC MEDICINE
(RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1087

answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Define live birth. Explain the various signs of live birth.
  2. Describe the clinical features and treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning.

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Morphine poisoning
  2. Hydrochloric acid poisoning
  3. Delusion
  4. McNaughten’s rule
  5. Consent
  6. Police inquest
  7. Postmortem lividity
  8. Laceration
  9. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  10. Dowry deaths

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                     10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Spectroscopy
  2. Direct examination
  3. Types of witnesses
  4. Scars
  5. Pathological postmortem examination
  6. Rifling
  7. Lynching
  8. Bansdola
  9. Masochism
  10. Sterility

1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

 

MBES (Phase – 11) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1083

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Define and Classify Culture Media with examples. (5+5)
  2. Define Immunoglobulin. Describe structure and function of the five classes of Immunoglobulins.

(2+4+4)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Bacterial Capsule
  2. Enumerate organisms commonly causing Hospital Acquired infections.
  3. Mechanisms of Innate Immunity
  4. Precipitation reactions.
  5. Classify and enumerate Immunodeficiency diseases.
  6. Enumerate Lesions produced by Neisseria Gonorrhoea.
  7. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene
  8. Classification of Chlamydia
  9. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever
  10. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
SHORT ANSWERS

13.    Non specific serological test for Syphilis

14.    Laboratory diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever

15.    Halophilic Vibrios

16.    Methods to prevent Swarming of Proteus Species

17.    Bacterial Zoonoses

18.    Elek’s gel precipitation test

19.    Hot Air Oven

20.    Transposons (Jumping Genes)

21.    Labelled diagram of Bacterial Growth Curve

22.    Principle and uses of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

10 x 3 = 30 Marks

 

1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

 

–

Max, Marks: 100 Marks

MICROBIOLOGY -Paper -II
(RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
QP Code: 1084

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Describe the morphology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of HIV. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)
  2. Enumerate Hemoparasites. Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium vivax. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Aspergillosis
  2. Hydatld cyst
  3. Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B infection
  4. Viral Inclusion Bodies
  5. Free Living Amoebae
  6. Cryptococcosis
  7. Delhi Boil
  8. Laboratory diagnosis of Rabies
  9. Life cycle of Trichuris trichiura
  10. Otomycosis

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Baiantidium coli
  2. Sabouraud’s Dextrose Agar (SDA)
  3. Clinical manifestations of Rhinosporidiosis
  4. Serological tests for Kala-Azar
  5. Casoni’s test
  6. Chyluria
  7. Enumerate three Oncogenic viruses.
  8. Lassa fever
  9. Draw a neatly labelled diagram of a Bacteriophage.
  10. Laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

1084 Microbiology Paper II         Download

 

Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pathology-Paper -I

(RS2 & R53 SCHEME)

QP Code: 1081

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Define and classify leukemias. Discuss the clinical manifestations and Laboratory diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
  2. Enumerate the features and causes of acute inflammation. Describe in detail the cellular events in acute inflammation.

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Granulomatous inflammation.
  2. Causes of hemolytic anemia
  3. Paraneoplastic syndromes
  4. Down’s syndrome
  5. Pathogenesis of septic shock
  6. Differences between benign and malignant tumour
  7. Bone marrow findings in megalobasltic anemia
  8. Amyloidosis
  9. Enumerate the components of Virchow’s triad.What are the fates of thrombus?
  10. Haemochromatosis

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
  2. Name the chemical tests done in serum and urine examination to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis.
  3. Indications for bone marrow aspiration
  4. Name transfusion transmitted diseases
  5. Principle of direct and indirect Coomb’s test. Mention the conditions where these will be positive.
  6. Principle and advantages of Hemoglobin estimation by Cyanmethemoglobin method.
  7. Name two stains used in cytology and their applications.
  8. Name tests to diagnose hemolysis
  9. Semen analysis & findings in a normal semen
  10. Anticoagulants used in hematology.

1081 Pathology Paper  I        Download

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – Dec – 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pathology – Paper II (R52 & RS3 Scheme)

Q.P. CODE: 1082

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                  2 x 1❑ = 20 Marks

  1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic Liver disease.
  2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                 1❑ x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
  2. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
  3. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
  4. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
  5. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
  6. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
  7. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Maligr,ant Melanoma.
  8. Carcinoid syndrome
  9. Grave’s disease
  10. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
  2. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
  3. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
  4. Types of Renal Calculi
  5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
  6. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
  7. Cryptorchidism
  8. Causes of Hydronephrosis
  9. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
  10. Importance of Reid index

1082 Pathology Paper II      Download

 

 

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

Time: Thre::: Hqurs                                                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pharmacology – Paper I (R52 & R53 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1085

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. Classify Antieholinergics. Describe the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Atropine. (4±3+3)
  2. Describe mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines as sedative and hypnotic and discuss its adverse

effects and uses.                                                                                         (3+3+4)

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Clinical significance of Plasma Protein binding
  2. Drug Synergism
  3. Uses and adverse effects of Calcium Channel Blockers
  4. Clonidine
  5. Nasal decongestants
  6. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Organic Nitrates
  7. Uses and adverse effects of Thrombolytics
  8. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
  9. Advantages and disadvantages of Nitrous Oxide Anaesthesia
  10. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Lignocaine

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Placebo
  2. Disadvantages of Fixed Dose combinations
  3. Mechanism of action of Pralidoxime
  4. Naloxone
  5. Uses of Valproic Acid
  6. Advantages of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
  7. Mention Parenteral Iron preparations.
  8. Baclofen
  9. Plasma half life
  10. Bile Acid Binding Resins

1085 Pharmacology Paper I        Download

 

 

MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)

Q.P. CODE: 1086

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. What are the common characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics? Describe the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effect of gentamicin.
  2. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills. What instructions should be given to the patient regarding their wse?

SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

  1. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine
  2. Third generation cephalosporins
  3. Albendazole
  4. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INN)
  5. Insulin preparations
  6. Non-sedative H1 receptor blockers
  7. Drug treatment of status asthmaticus
  8. Passive immunization
  9. Proton pump inhibitors
  10. Allopurinol

SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. What are advantages of Azithromycin over Erythromycin?
  2. Write the mechanism of action of Dapsone and write two adverse effects.
  3. What is the rationale for combining Clavulanic acid with Amoxycillin?
  4. What are advantages and disadvantages of radioactive iodine as an antithyroid drug?
  5. What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids on bones and skeletal muscles?
  6. List two indications for use of Cndansetron? What is its mechanism of action?
  7. Name two emollient laxatives. Give two indications and two adverse effects.
  8. List three topical antifungal agents and write three uses.
  9. Explain why Ergometrine can not be used for induction of labour.
  10. What are the indications for use of Vitamin C?

1086 Pharmacology Paper II         Download

 

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