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  • NEET (UG) 2019 FAQs (Frequently asked questions) Important General Queries (Frequently asked questions)

    We uploaded NEET 2019 general information.

    FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
    NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST (UG) – 2019 FNEET(UG) -20191
    Section I : General Queries

    SI. No Question Reply
    1.            What   is            National Eligibility

    cum    Entrance         Test””UG

    [NEET (UG) “” 2019]?

    		 As per regulations framed under the Indian Medical Council Act-1956 and the Dentists Act-1948, as amended from time to time, admissions in 100% seats of MBBS/BDS will be done through NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST (UG) “” 2019 [NEET (UG) “” 2019] in Medical/Dental Colleges run with the approval of Medical Council of India/Dental Council of India under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India except for the institutions established through an Act of Parliament i.e. AIIMS and JIPMER Puducherry.
    2.            What is the responsibility of
    National          Testing     Agency

    (NTA)    for        NEET    (UG)   –
    2019?

    		 The responsibility of NTA is limited to the conduct of the entrance test, declaration of result and providing All India Rank to the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India for counselling of 15% All India Quota Seats and all seats of Deemed Universities/Central Universities/ESIC & AFMC including Delhi University (DU), BHU & AMU and providing the result to the State Counselling Authorities and Admitting Institutions
    3.            When NEET (UG) – 2019 will be conducted? NEET (UG) – 2019 will be conducted on 5th May, 2019 (Sunday) from 02:00 p.m to 05:00 p.m
    4.            Whether the examination will be offline or online? NEET (UG) – 2019 will be in offline mode (pen and paper test).
    5.            What             are             the

    duration/timings        of    NEET
    (UG) – 2019?

    		 The duration of NEET (UG) – 2019 will be 03 hours from 02:00 p.m. to 05:00 p.m. However, no entry will be allowed after 1.30 p.m.
    6.            Can a centre be allotted by the NTA manually? No.

    Centre       allocation     is                  made     through     computer with        no                 human

    intervention.
    7.            Which are the cities where NEET (UG) – 2019 will be held? A list of examination centres cities is provided at Appendix-II in the Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) – 2019.
    8.            Does        NTA     reserve    its

    discretion not to fix the centre in a city which is given in the Appendix-II?

    		 Yes.
    9.            Can a candidate change its centre city after allotment of roll number? No.

    Centre or City cannot be changed under any circumstances. Please be careful while filling in choice of centre.

     

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    10.   Can a candidate opt Imphal as centre city if residing in Delhi? Candidates are advised to select the centre/city in their State of residence or in neighbouring city only.
    11.   Can NTA fix the examination centre in any city other than the four options exercised by the candidates? Yes.

    NTA reserves its discretion to fix the centre in the city other than the one exercised by the candidate.
    12.   From               which       city      foreign

    nationals, OCIs & PlOs can appear in NEET (UG) –2019?

    		 They can choose any four cities as given in Appendix-II.
    13.   Who can appear in NEET (UG) – 2019? Indian Nationals

    Non Resident Indians (NRIs) Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) Foreign Nationals
    14.   Who can appear in NEET (UG) – 2019 for 15% All India Quota seats? Indian Nationals

    Non Resident Indians (NRIs)

    Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)

    Persons of Indian Origin (PIO)

    Foreign Nationals are eligible to appear in NEET (UG)-2019 for 15% All India Quota Seats.
    15.   Through NEET (UG) against which seats admissions will be made? Admissions to all seats of MBBS/BDS will be done through NEET (UG)-2019. Following are the seats, available under different quotas: –

    All India Quota Seats

    State Government Quota Seats

    Central Institutions/Universities/Deemed Universities State/Management/NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical / Dental Colleges or any Private University

    Central Pool Quota Seats
    16.   Is       there        any     seat    in

    MBBS/BDS          on     which

    admission will be made without appearing in NEET (UG) “” 2019?

    		 No.

    Admissions in 100% MBBS/BDS seats will be done through the NEET (UG) only.
    17.   Will admission to AIIMS and JIPMER, Puducherry be made through NEET (UG) “”2019? No.
    18.   What       is     the          minimum

    qualification for appearing in
    NEET    (UG)     –    2019    for

    candidates        of     unreserved
    category?

    		 The Minimum qualification for appearing in NEET (UG) ± 2019 is prescribed in Chapter 3: Eligibility and Qualifications of the Information Bulletin. The relevant portion are reproduced below:

    CODE : 01

    A candidate who is appearing in the qualifying examination, i.e., 12th

     

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        Standard in 2019, whose result is awaited, may apply and take up the said test but he/she shall not be eligible for admission to the MBBS or BDS, if he/she does not pass the qualifying examination with the required pass percentage of marks at the time of first round of Counselling.

    OR

    CODE : 02

    The Higher/Senior Secondary Examination or the Indian School Certificate Examination which is equivalent to 10+2 Higher/Senior Secondary Examination after a period of 12 years study, the last two years of such study comprising of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Bio­technology (which shall include practical tests in these subjects) and Mathematics or any other elective subject with English at a level not less than the core course for English as prescribed by the National Council of Educational Research and Training after introduction of the 10+2+3 educational structure as recommended by the National Committee on Education.

    Candidates who have passed 10+2 from Open School or as private candidates shall not be eligible to appear for ‘National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test’. Furthermore, study of Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject at 10+2 level also shall not be permissible.

    The proviso in italics has been subject matter of challenge before the + MIRBID + U KD & RXLIV RI El’ Hall+ MIRBID + U K❑ & FiXIAI RI ❑ $ GIKDbad , / XFNITZ 171%–1CFKDDC)2a+ MIRDI❑+ U K❑8t RXLIVRI DO DM D❑3 UDG-M<❑13A) Jabalpur. The provisions of the regulations disqualifying recognised Open School Board candidates and the candidates who have studied Biology/Biotechnology as and additional Subject has been struck down.

    “The Medical Council of India has preferred Special Leave Petitions before the Hon’ble Supreme Court and Appeals in the Hon’ble High Courts. Therefore, the candidatures of candidates in the NEET (UG)-2019 who have passed the qualifying examinations i.e. 10+2 from National Institute of Open Schooling or State Open Schools or as private candidates from recognised State Boards; or with Biology/Biotechnology as additional subject shall be allowed but subject to the outcome of Special Leave Petitions/Appeals filed by the Medical Council of India”.
    19.   What       is      the       minimum

    qualification for appearing in NEET       (UG)        –                     2019     for

    candidates          of     reserved
    category?

    		 In   respect of the     candidates      belonging     to                 Scheduled            Castes,

    Scheduled Tribes or Other Backward Classes (OBC), the marks obtained in Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Bio-technology taken together in qualifying examination shall be 40% marks instead of 50% marks for Unreserved Candidates.
    20.   What       is      the       minimum

    qualification for appearing in
    NEET       (UG)        –                     2019     for
    candidates of PwD category?

    		 In respect of Persons with Bench Mark disabilities as per MCI Guidelines/ Regulations in accordance with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, the minimum marks in qualifying examination in Physics, Chemistry and Biology (or Botany & Zoology)/Bio-technology taken together in qualifying examination shall be 45% instead of 50%

     

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        for Unreserved category candidates.
    21. What       is      the       minimum

    qualification for appearing in NEET     (UG)    –     2019       for

    candidates          of      Foreign
    Nationals?

    		 The candidates who have studied from the Foreign/International Board should ensure that the qualifying examination passed by them are, in scope and standard (Last 02 years of 10+2 Study comprising of Physics, Chemistry and Biology/Bio-technology; which shall include practical test in these subjects) is found to be equivalent to the Intermediate Science Examination of an Indian University/Board,

    taking      Physics,       Chemistry    and                    Biology/Bio-technology        including
    practical tests in each of these subjects and English.

    3 MIGH2c IXUINI-Ul VEIN %Hp WiGHOAC 1-13TDAt2c DEUTX3c NA-1-Nal ❑ admission into medical colleges in India must have passed in the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Bio-technology and English up to the 12th standard level with 50% marks and their equivalency determined by Association of Indian Universities (AIU) as per

    regulations of the     Medical    Council             of India and   the concerned
    University.
    22. What is the age criteria for appearing in NEET (UG) – 2019? Eligibility contained Act-1948

    Eligibility

    (a)  

    admission the year

    (b) the date belonging

    2016. The

    (c)  

    pursue

    to qualify

    (As

    		 reservation

    for appearing in NEET (UG)-2019 is as per the provisions in Indian Medical Council Act-1956 and the Dentists as amended in 2018.

    as per Regulations is as follows:-

    He/she has completed age of 17 years at the time or will complete that age on or before 31st December of his/her admission to the 1st year MBBS/BDS Course.

    The upper age limit for NEET (UG)-2019 is 25 years

    of examination with relaxation of 5 years for the candidates

    to                             SC/ST/OBC        category      and          persons      entitled

    under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

    Age criteria for appearing in NEET (UG) – 2019 is as follows:

    		 of
    of

    as on

    for Act,

    to

    need
    For Candidates of Unreserved Category (UR) born on or between 05.05.1994 and 31.12.2002
    For              Candidates         of

    SC/ST/OBC/PwD Category

    		 Born on or between 05.05.1989 and 31.12.2002
    Indian          Citizens/     Overseas      Citizens     of   India    intending

    MBBS/ BDS from a foreign Medical/ Dental Institute also NEET (UG).

    per letter No. V.11011/14/2018-MECIMEP dated 17.10.2018 of MoH&F14)
    23. Which type of Disabilities are included for the benefits of PWD candidates? 5%                  seats     of the       annual     sanctioned      intake     shall     be     filled    by

    candidates falling under Persons with Bench Mark disabilities as per MCI Guidelines/ Regulations in accordance with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

    Detailed information in this regard is available on the website of Medical Counselling Committee ± www.mcc.nic.in and on website of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare ± www.mohfw.nic.in

     

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    24.   Is a candidate from Andhra
    Pradesh         and    Telangana

    eligible    for    15%                    All   India
    Quota seats?

    		 Yes. The Government of Andhra Pradesh & Telangana vide their letter no.13021/C1/2016 dated 06.11.2017 & letter no.7072/C1/2017 dated 07.11.2017 respectively have informed that Government of Andhra Pradesh and Government of Telangana have decided to join and contribute to the All India Quota seats. Accordingly, the candidates of these States have also become eligible for 15% All India Quota seats (As per letter No. F.No. V.26012/05.2017- MEP/MEC dated 10.01.2018, Directorate General Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Govt. of India)
    25.   In                                                                                                                                                     how

    many regional languages, NEET (UG) – 2019 will be conducted?

    		 NEET (UG) – 2019 will be conducted in the following languages:
    I HINDI 1 ENGLISH
    ASSAMESE BENGALI
    G UJARAT I KAN NADA
    MARATH I ODIA
    TAMIL TELUGU
    URDU 11        –                 11
    26.   If a candidate is opting Oriya as medium of question paper, would he be eligible for 15% All India Quota? Candidates qualifying NEET would be eligible for All India Quota and other quotas under the State Governments/Institutes, irrespective of the medium in which the examination is taken by a candidate, subject to other eligibility criteria.
    27.   If I am opting Assamese as language of question paper, can I get the centre of examination in Delhi? No.

    Allotment of medium of language would be State-specific.

    If any candidate is opting Regional language as medium of question paper, he will be allotted centre only in respective States of particular Regional language. In the present case, examination centre will be in Assam. However, students opting for Bengali medium are eligible to appear from the State of West Bengal and Tripura.
    28.   Can        a      candidate          of

    Karnataka opt for Delhi as a centre with Kannada medium?

    		 No.

    Kannada medium will be available only in the Centres/ cities located in the State of Karnataka.
    29.   If             a    candidate   is             opting

    English          as                            medium     of

    question        paper,   in                  which

    language candidate will  be
    provided Test Booklet?

    		 Candidates opting for English would be provided Test Booklet in English only.
    30.   If a candidate is opting Hindi
    as                        medium      of     question

    paper,     in                which    language

    candidate             will        be                 provided
    Test Booklet?

    		 Candidates opting for Hindi would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in Hindi and in English. In case of any ambiguity in translation of any of the questions, its English version shall be treated as final.

     

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    31.   If a candidate    is opting for

    regional language            as

    medium of question paper, in
    which   language        candidate

    will              be     provided       Test
    Booklet?

    		 Candidates       opting    for     regional     languages             would         be                    provided

    Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in selected language and in English. In case of any ambiguity in translation of any of the questions, its English version shall be treated as final.
    32.   Can I change the option of language once the form is submitted? Option once exercised, cannot be changed after submission of application form. As centres will be allotted based on medium of question paper, candidates need to be very careful in choosing the medium of question paper.
    33.   Is there any change in the syllabus of NEET, prescribed in NEET (UG) 2018? No.

    There is no change in the Syllabus of NEET (UG) – 2019.

    The Question Papers for the test shall be based on a Common Syllabus notified by the Medical Council of India and implemented in the year 2013 which is at Appendix-I of the Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) – 2019 available on the website www.ntaneet.nic.in and
    www.nta.ac.in. It is also available at www.mciindia.org.
     
    34.   What    is   the         syllabus     for

    NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 The Question Papers for the test shall be based on a Common Syllabus notified by the Medical Council of India and implemented in the year 2013 which is at Appendix-I of the Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) – 2019 available on the website www.ntaneet.nic.in and
    www.nta.ac.in. It is also available at www.mciindia.org.
     
    35.   What will be the pattern of NEET (UG) – 2019? The NEET (UG) “” 2019 shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This will be a single exam in pen-and-paper mode. The duration of paper would be 03 hours
    36.   Is there any change in the pattern of NEET (UG)? No.

    The NEET (UG) “” 2019 shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). This will be a single exam in pen-and-paper mode.
    37.   Is         a   candidate       who        has

    passed class XII with Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English subjects from NIOS, eligible to appear for NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 Candidates who have passed 10+2 from Open School or as private candidates shall not be eligible to appear for ‘National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test’. Furthermore, study of Biology/Biotechnology as an Additional Subject at 10+2 level also shall not be permissible.

    The proviso in italics has been subject matter of challenge before the + KVBID + U KD & RXLIV RI Di Hall+ KVBID + U K❑ & FiXIAIRI ❑ $ GIKDEDGET / XFN:FiZ 171%1–1CFKiErec+ R:FDI❑+ U KD& ROAM! DO DC K\ D❑3 UDGFM<❑13) Jabalpur. The provisions of the regulations disqualifying recognised Open School Board candidates and the candidates who have studied Biology/Biotechnology as and additional Subject has been struck down.

    “The Medical Council of India has preferred Special Leave Petitions before the Hon’ble Supreme Court and Appeals in the Hon’ble High Courts. Therefore, the candidatures of candidates in the NEET (UG)-2019 who have passed the qualifying examinations i.e. 10+2 from National Institute of Open Schooling or State Open Schools or
    38.   A candidate who has taken
    Biology/      Bio-technology     as

    an additional subject after passing +2 level is eligible to appear in NEET (UG) “” 2019?

     

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        as private candidates from recognised State Boards; or with Biology/Biotechnology as additional subject shall be allowed but subject to the outcome of Special Leave Petitions/Appeals filed by the Medical Council of India”.
    39. If a student has studied up to
    class 11th from CBSE or any
    other           Board         from

    KSA/abroad    and      class    XII

    from CBSE in India, will he/she be eligible to appear in NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 Yes.

    The students educated abroad seeking admission into medical colleges in India must have passed in the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Bio-technology and English up to the 12th standard level with 50% marks and their equivalency determined by Association of Indian Universities (AIU) as per regulations of the Medical Council of India and the concerned University.
    40. Is     it        compulsory   to   take

    Maths if I want to appear in NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 Mathematics is not required for NEET (UG) – 2019.
    41. Is a candidate, appearing in Class XII in the year 2019, eligible to appear in NEET (UG) – 2019? Yes,

    A candidate who is appearing in the qualifying examination, i.e., 12th Standard in 2019, whose result is awaited, may apply and take up the said test but he/she shall not be eligible for admission to the MBBS or BDS, if he/she does not pass the qualifying examination with the required pass percentage of marks at the time of first round of Counselling.
    42. If a candidate was born in USA and studied in India and holds OCI Card and wants to apply for NEET (UG) – 2019 is he/she is eligible for NEET (UG) – 2019? Yes.

    Indian Nationals, Non Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) & Foreign Nationals are eligible for admission in Medical/Dental Colleges subject to rules and regulations framed by the respective State Governments, Institutions and the Government of India as the case may be.
    43. What      is    the    reservation

    criteria for seats falling under the jurisdiction of States?

    		 It is as per State Reservation Policy of the concerned State.
    44. What      are    the   reservation

    criteria     for    15%           All   India
    Quota seats?

    		 Reservation of seats in Government Medical Colleges under 15% All India Quota:

    (i)    15% seats are reserved for SC candidates,

    (ii)   7.5% seats are reserved for ST candidates,

    (iii)  27% seats in Central Educational Institutions are reserved for OBC candidates only as per Central          Educational

    Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006. Reservation would be applicable to the castes mentioned in the Central list of OBC. Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column in application form. Candidates from creamy layer and those who do not come under Central List of OBC are advised to mention their category as Unreserved (UR).
    45. What      are    the    qualifying

    criteria  of       NEET      (UG)     for
    preparing a merit list?

    		 The candidate must have passed any of the qualifying examinations as enumerated in Chapter 3 of Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) -2019 or appearing in the qualifying examination in 2019.

    Please go through Chapter 6 of the Information Bulletin of NEET

     

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        (UG) ± 2019, pertaining to Merit List and Qualifying criteria for complete details.
    46.   How will the National Testing Agency (NTA) declare the result? National Testing Agency (NTA) will declare the result based on the qualifying criteria provided by Medical/Dental Council of India and All India Rank based on the marks obtained in NEET (UG) – 2019.
    47.   What    is   the                      meaning     of

    percentile rank?

    		 A percentile rank is the percentage of score that falls below a given score in a group.

    The Percentile score of a Candidate will be calculated as follows:

    100xNumber of candidates appeared with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate
    Total number of the candidates appeared
    48.   How will   the                   merit    list       be

    prepared by the States?

    		 States will prepare their own merit list based on All India Rank keeping in view the category of candidates.
    49.   How will   the                   merit    list       be

    prepared for 15% All India Quota seats?

    		 Based on All India Rank and the reservation roster provided by DGHS, merit list for All India quota will be prepared.
    50.   When will be the result of NEET (UG) – 2019 be declared? By 5th June, 2019.
    51.   How does one know the complete

    guidelines/instructions            for

    NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 The                    Guidelines for         NEET     (UG)   –   2019      are         available  in   the

    Information Bulletin which is available on the website www.nta.ac.in
    and www.ntaneet.nic.in.
     
    52.   What do you mean by All- India quota seats? 15% seats surrendered by Government Medical/Dental Colleges run as per the approval of MCl/DCI are filled through the counselling conducted by DGHS are known as All India Quota seats.

    The merit list of the eligible and successful candidates who have
    opted for 15% All India quota seats will be prepared by the NTA on
    the basis of marks obtained in the NEET (UG) – 2019.     The list of

    successful candidates shall be forwarded to the Directorate General of Health Services (Medical Examination Cell), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India for the purpose of allotment of seats by Online Counselling to 15% All India Quota Seats
    53.   Will     there      be      negative

    marking        in           NEET    (UG)    –
    2019?

    		 Yes.

    Each correct answer will get 04 marks and for each incorrect response, 01 mark will be deducted from the total score.
    54.   How long will the result of NEET (UG) – 2019 be valid? The result of successful candidates of NEET (UG) – 2019 is valid for the academic session 2019-20 only.
    55.   Is   there      any          helpline      for

    NEET        (UG)      –       2019

    examination          for     the
    aspirants?

    		 Yes.

    Website          – www.ntaneet.nic.in
    Email                      ±      [email protected]
    Phone No.                 ± 8076535482 and 7703859909
    56.   Can    anyone      cancel    the

    application         submitted      for
    NEET (UG) – 2019?

    		 Online Application forms once submitted successfully cannot be cancelled/ withdrawn.
    57.   What do the candidates need to bring to the exam centre? Candidates MUST bring only the following documents on the day of
    examination at the test centre.              Candidates who will not bring these
    will not be allowed to sit in the examination and shall lead to his/her

     

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        disqualification:

    >            Print  copy RI 3 GP I n Dl IGRZ aRDG-12aLFP I 7 $11111-EMIND

    >               One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the

    online Application Form) for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet at Centre during NEET (UG) Examination.

    >          Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid

    and   non-expired)           ±     PAN               card/Driving  License/Voter
    ID/Passport/Aadhaar Card (with photograph)/Ration Card.
    58.   Can      the        candidate    bring

    anything other than that mentioned in S.No. 56 above to the examination centre?

    		 Candidates are not allowed to carry any material except the Admit Card, Passport Size photograph and valid Identity proof inside the Examination Hall.
    59.   Will any candidate be able to leave early if he finishes the test before the allocated test time? No candidate will leave his/her seat or the Examination Room/Hall
    until the Test concludes as per the schedule. Candidates should not

    leave the Room/Hall without handing over their OMR Sheets to the invigilator on duty.
    60.   If one does not get Admit Card, whom should he contact? Admit cards will not be sent to candidates. These will be uploaded on website by 15.04.2019. Candidates need to download the Admit Card from the website only.
    61.   How will one know the result of the NEET (UG) – 2019? The result of NEET (UG) – 2019 will be uploaded on the website www.ntaneet.nic.in as per schedule.
     
    62.   Can one see images of OMR sheets and Responses on website? The NTA will display the images of OMR Answer Sheets and
    Responses graded by the Machine of all the candidates on the
    website www.ntaneet.nic.in.            For exact date of display of the
    images of OMR Answer Sheets and Responses, candidates may remain in touch with NEET website.
    63.   Is there any provision for re- checking of answer sheet? No.
    64.   Is     there     any         provision     to

    challenge the       response(s)
    against the OMR grading?

    		 ·           Candidates will be given an opportunity to make online challenge against the Answer Key on payment of non-refundable       processing      fee    of                    Rs.1000/-    per     answer
    challenged.

    ·           Challenges made by the candidates will be verified by the

    NTA with the help of its subject experts. If found correct, the answer key will be revised accordingly. Based on the revised Answer Key, result will be prepared and declared.

    ·           No    individual       candidate will    be      informed       about the
    acceptance/non-acceptance of his/her challenge.
    65. What is the Entry time at the Examination Hall? Entry will be allowed from 11:30 A.M. However, no one is allowed to enter in the centre after 01:30 P.M.

     

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    66. What    to         do   in   following

    cases:

    a)     In case of incorrect e-mail ID & correct mobile number

    b)     I have given correct e-mail ID & incorrect mobile number

    c)     I have given e-mail ID & mobile number incorrect

    		 However, it has been observed that despite the best efforts, some candidates do not adhere to the instructions given by NTA which leads to incorrect submission of application form.

    Thereafter, the NTA will provide a window for correction in all fields from 14.01.2019 to 31.01.2019.
    67. In my State, my category is 3; <=”12KFKINIM1AFFP LQJICEI VII–Ii 1 ( ( 7 ❑ RSktf/CF 3; <=.❑ category candidates are

    given reservation in my State. How will I be eligible for the reserved seat against XYZ category as this is not coming in NEET application?

    		 NTA is considering only following categories:

    1. UR, 2. OBC, 3. SC, 4. ST and           5. Persons with Bench Mark

    disabilities.

    Such candidates will apply against the registration for counselling in their State. During registration, all desired information as per eligibility/reservation rules of the concerned State will be collected and accordingly merit list will be prepared by the State Admitting Authorities based on All India Rank issued by NTA.
    68. I am from Uttar Pradesh but
    residing in Delhi from past 10
    years. What should   I fill   in

    VII–Ii       &ROXP CFI 3State       of

    Eligibility    (For    15%    All
    India Quota)”.

    		 Such decisions need to be taken by the candidates themselves. However, it is clarified that such candidates can apply for counselling in both Uttar Pradesh and Delhi and during the counselling, his/her eligibility for the 85% Quota seats will be checked by the State Admitting Authorities and if found eligible, the candidate will be given admission.
    69. One    candidate   is    falling

    under OBC ± Creamy layer but the same candidate is eligible for OBC quota under State Quota system in the concerned State. Please clarify whether the candidate should fill his category as Unreserved or OBC category while filling the NEET (UG) -2019 application form.

    		 Such decisions need to be taken by the candidates themselves. However, it is clarified that the candidate will apply for counselling in the concerned State by giving the Category applicable in the State. His eligibility for the 85% Quota seats will be checked by the State Admitting Authorities and if he is found eligible, he will be given admission against reserved category otherwise not.
    70. Which dress code should be followed while appearing for the NEET examination? The candidates are instructed to follow the following dress code while appearing for NEET (UG) – 2019:

    (a)     Light clothes with half sleeves, long sleeves are not permitted. However in case, candidates come in cultural/ customary dress at the Examination Centre, they should report at least an hour before the last reporting time i.e.    12.30 p.m. so that there is
    enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the candidates while maintaining the sanctity of the Examination.

    (b)    Slippers, sandals with low heels are permitted. Shoes are not allowed.

     

    Page 11

    NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY

    Excellence in Assessment

    Section II : Online Application Forms

    SI.No. Question Reply
    1.   I have made the online payment but my confirmation page has not been generated. Such problem occurs because of drop in connectivity from (NCENAINI–L311–ILMANHD1 ,& 041–1011–1LIRCEZ KIFK❑ 7 $ 1Z FEMINIKDVI EH-IM KRNAN2E ,Q7A/XFKi FILIFXP NACCF14171%13CNAUM–Utl–U,1 DUHD sending the message to NIC server 2-3 times a day to ensure that the dropped communication cycle is completed. Once your payment communication reaches the NIC server, you will be able to generate the confirmation page. You are advised to wait for 24 hours if such problem has been faced by you.
    2.   Whether the examination will be offline or online? NEET (UG) – 2019 will be in offline mode (pen and paper test).
    3.   Is the availability of forms will be online or can it be purchased from any bank or institution. The application forms are available in online mode only. A
    candidate         can     apply        by     logging      into            website

    www.ntaneet.nic.in     and                        www.nta.ac.in.     Forms        are      not
    available in any bank or institution.
    4.   What are the duration/timings of NEET (UG) – 2019? The     detailed     pattern     of        examination     is                    mentioned     in

    information Bulletin available on website www.ntaneet.nic.in.
    and www.nta.ac.in.
     
    5.   + RZ AFULOIXSIMIEHIPSSIFDIVOil form for NEET (UG) – 2019? Are there    any        guidelines     for    the

    students     before        filling    the
    application form?

    		 Application form for NEET (UG) – 2019 can be submitted only
    online through website www.ntaneet.nic.in and www.nta.ac.in.
    Details are available under Chapter-4 “Mode of submission of Application Form and Payment of fee” as provided in the Information Bulletin of NEET (UG) – 2019.

    Keep the correct details ready before submission of form and after reading the Information Bulletin carefully.

    For more details please go through the Information Bulletin.
    6.   Can      one     send      confirmation

    Page of Application Form of NEET (UG) – 2019 and how to send it?

    		 No, the candidates are NOT REQUIRED TO SEND the
    Confirmation       Page of the online application form or any

    document (s) to National Testing Agency (NTA).
    7 What are the enclosures that should be attached with the confirmation page to be sent to the NTA? The candidates are NOT REQUIRED TO SEND the print out of the Confirmation Page or any document (s) to the National Testing Agency (NTA)
    8. If mistake occur during filling up of the form, like wrong particulars are filled in the online form, how it will be corrected. Candidates are requested to read the Information Bulletin carefully before submission of application. They should keep the entire information ready as per Replica of NEET (UG) –2019. The correction in certain fields is permitted from 14.01.2019 to 31.01.2019.

     

    hpiglNATIONAL TESTING AGENCY Excellence in Assessment

     

    9.            : KI:WkiKRX02RE1gIRCYLKRXW IIPI-RMIFICIEDIncwARxcecHunt occurs while filling online application form of NEET (UG)- 2019 Use Mozilla Firefox/Internet Explorer (above 9.0) and good internet connection while filling application form. In case of continuous time out clear cookies and history of the browser and fill in off-peak hours.
    10.         While submitting the application form, I have committed mistake by filling my category as UR in place of SC Candidates are requested to read the Information Bulletin carefully before submission of application. They should keep the entire information ready as per Replica of NEET (UG) –2019. An opportunity after a week of last date will be given to the candidates for such corrections, if any. No correction will be allowed thereafter. All the information (especially in category) which is filled on the date of submission of form will be considered valid and no change is allowed later.

    Correction in particulars of application form on website only: 14.01.2019 to 31.01.2019.
    11.         While filling the application form, I have interchanged the parents name i.e. mother name has El-HCIP HaLlialalCalANHLIKEPI-C Er al DAHLIMPHIIIP HC LITCHZt laSOFHERI P Rfil-LIVATCP H

     

    “¢

    NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY Excellence in Assessment

     

    Section III : Fee/Payment Queries

    SI. No. Question Reply
    1. How to remit fee for NEET (UG) – 2019? The examination fee for NEET (UG) – 2019 can be remitted in the following manner:

    ·           Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit card, Net Banking and Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in State Bank of India or ICICI Bank or HDFC Bank or Syndicate Bank

    ·           Cash Deposit through e-challan at State Bank of India Branches only
    2.   If            any         candidate      faces      any

    problem in remittance of fee, to whom can he/she approach?

    		 Candidates can approach the concerned Banks on contact numbers which are available on the website of the NEET (UG) – 2019.
    3.   If a candidate for any reason not appearing or appeared in the examination, is there any provision for fee refund? No. Once the online application form is submitted successfully by the candidate, it cannot be withdrawn. Claims for refund of application fee will not be entertained under any circumstances.
    4.   I      have             made    the     double

    payment when my additional fee will be refunded to me

    		 The fee     not updated        will        be       refunded     to you     by your

    bank/payment gateway within 7 working days in the same account from where the payment has been made. This is as SI-M-IrEEDCNIV–SRIF\ ❑
    5 I have submitted the fee but my confirmation page has not been generated The generation of confirmation page is linked with payment of fee.   If your fee has not been                     received            on                  NIC portal,

    confirmation page will not be generated. If you have paid the fee and confirmation page has not been generated, you are requested to make the efforts to take the print out of your confirmation page in next 24 hours as there could be delay in updation of fees on NIC server from your gateway payment. This updation is done within 24 hours maximum. Thereafter if your confirmation page is still not generated, pay the fee once again and take the printout of the confirmation page. The excess fee paid will be automatically refunded in your account.
    6. I have submitted the form and now I wish to make the payment of fee. However, the payment of fee i.e. step 3 page is not available The payment of fee is step 3. This could be reached through FDCOGANIVARJEFERNLIFEWILIJEX\A–InGEDCCESDVVZ RECZ KIRK’ has been generated by the candidate.
    7 How I will get proof of fee paid to NTA for NEET (UG) 2019? Once confirmation page is generated, it means that you have paid the fees.

    Further,     in      the confirmation        page, fee details,     transaction

    mode and the transaction id are provided.

     

     

     

     

  • RGUHS MBBS 3rd Year Part 2 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Third Year Part II Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

     

    RGUHS MBBS Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers

    Download Here

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  June

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Mention causes of liver Cirrhosis. Describe clinical features, investigations and management of Cirrhosis of Liver.
    2. Describe clinical features, diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma. Add a note on paraneoplastic

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Beriberi
    2. Treatment of Acute Falciparum Malaria
    3. Management of septic shock
    4. Complications of chronic pancreatitis
    5. Addison’s disease
    6. Criteria to diagnose Acute rheumatic fever
    7. Indications of lumbar puncture
    8. Clinical features of SLE
    9. Hypoglycemia
    10. Complications of blood transfusion

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Carbamezapine
    2. Modes of transmission of HIV
    3. Tension headache
    4. Three causes of chronic diarrhea
    5. Drugs in Anaphylaxis
    6. Lepra reaction
    7. Name three organ which can be transplanted
    8. Antidotes in poisoning
    9. Causes of fall in elderly patient
    10. Name members of multidisciplinary team.

    1093 General Medicine Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks               1`
    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Mark!

    1. Define heart failure. Describe the etiology, classification, clinical features, investigations and management of heart failure.
    2. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of typhoid fever (enteric fever).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Mark!

    1. Status epilepticus
    2. Pulmonary embolism.
    3. Ulcerative colitis.
    4. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
    5. Treatment of bronchial asthma.
    6. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
    7. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
    8. Schizophrenia.
    11.       Scabies.

    12.       Down syndrome.

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.       Erythropoietin.

    14.       Management of rheumatoid arthritis.

    15.       Dissociative (conversion) disorder.

    16.       Tumour markers.

    17.       Indications and complications of lumbar puncture.

    18.       Prophylactic therapy of migraine.

    19.       Opportunistic infections.

    20.       Newer methods of diagnosis of tuberculosis.

    21.       Mountain sickness.

    22.       Implantable cardioverter defibrillator

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Mark!

    1093 General Medicine Paper II Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University  Health sciences

    M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Exammation – June 2017

    Time 3 Hrs                                                                                                 [Max. Marks: 100:

    OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY – Paper – I
    (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Hydatidiform mole. Mention the clinical features and management of hydatidiform mole.
    2. Mention the classification of hypertension in pregnancy. Describe the clinical features and

    management of Eciampsia.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Pregnancy in Rh-negative woman and prevention of Rh-immunisation
    2. Mechanism of labour in face presentation.
    3. Describe the classification of Heart disease in pregnancy and management during labour.
    4. Management of second stage of labour
    5. Physiology of Lactation.
    6. Clinical features and management of septic abortion.
    7. Haematological changes occurring during pregnancy.
    8. Management of Iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy.
    9. Define Episiotomy and types. Describe mediolateral episiotomy and its complications.
    10. Post Caesarean pregnancy.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Amniotic fluid index.
    2. Antenatal visits recommended in each trimester.
    3. Moulding and its degrees.
    4. Prophylactic ergometrine.
    5. Twin reversal arterial perfusion (TRAP).
    6. Caput succedaneum.
    7. Craniotomy.
    8. Goodell’s sign and Osiander’s sign.
    9. Fetal axis pressure.
    10. Lowe:– Uterine segment.

    1093 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – July 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         

    1. Define dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What are the type and how will you diagnose an
      ovulatory DUB?
    2. A 55 yr old multipara, post menopausal women, came with foul smelling blood stained
      discharge since 1 month. What is your most probable diagnosis, investigation and
      management?                                                                                                    
    1. Theories of endometriosis
    2. IUCD
    3. Semen analysis
    4. Pruritis vulva
    5. Metrorrhagia
    6. Complications of Radiotherapy in Gynaecology
    7. PCOD
    8. Choriocarcinoma
    9. Causes of Primary amenorrhoea
    10. Pap smear
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.      Uses of progesterone

    14.      Basal body temperature

    15.      Clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome

    16.      Lymphatic drainage of cervix

    17.      Causes of dysmenorrhoea

    18.      Structure of graffian follicle

    19.      Luteal phase

    20.      Progesterone only pill

    21.      Anatomy of perineal body

    22.      Lymphatic drainage of uterus

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper II Download

     

     

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Colles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Pott’s spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Foot drop
    2. Thomas splint
    3. Non union
    4. Fracture disease

    10    Genu varum deformity

     

    1096 Orthopaedics Download

     

    (PART “” II), III Professional Exan- JUNE 2017

    Time: 3 Hrs.                                                                                          [Max. Marks: 100]

    PAEDIATRICS (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What do you mean by the term growth? Write briefly about the changes in the parameters from birth to 5 years of age.
    2. Discuss approach towards a child who is 3 year old coming with haematuria and management of acute glomerular nephritis.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Infant mortality rate.
    2. about Acute Diarrhoe3l Disease control programme.
    3. Kwashiorkor- clinical features & complications.
    4. Measles-clinical features, prevention.
    5. When do you suspect pathological jaundice in the neonate?
    6. Serology as an aid to diagnosis in Hepatitis B infection.
    7. Management of status epilepticus.
    8. Lab work up in a child with nutritional anemia.
    9. Symptoms and signs of VSD below 1 year of age.
    10. Prevention of mother to child transmission of HIV.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. DPT vaccine “”constituents, type, schedule.
    2. When do you suspect severe pneumonia in a 10 month child? Write about the initial management.
    3. Clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism.
    4. Radiological features in rickets.
    5. Indications for work up of tuberculosis in a 2 year old child.
    6. Mention Apgar score criteria
    7. Enumerate the complications seen in a small for gestation age neonate.
    8. Criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.
    9. Breath holding spells.
    10. Urinary findings in Nephrotic syndrome.

    1092 Pediatrics Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University                   h Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define CoIles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Potts spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                       3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

     

    SHORT ANSWERS

    6.     Foot drop

    7.     Thomas splint

    8.     Non union

    9.     Fracture disease

    10.   Genu varum deformity

    		 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

                                                                                                                                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY “” Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                        2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiopathogenesis of Biliary Calculi. Write about clinical features and management of Biliary Stones.
    2. Carcinoma Stomach – Etiopathogenesis, diagnosis and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Wilm’s tumor
    2. Achalasia Cardia
    3. Hydatid cyst of liver
    4. Retractile Testis
    5. Surgical Lobes of Liver
    6. Hyper splenism
    7. Iliocaecal tuberculosis
    8. Sub Diaphragmatic Abscess
    9. Ischio Rectal Abscess
    10. Principles of Laparoscopy
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Mention complications of inguinal hernia.

    14.    Types and causes of Intussusception

    15.    Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disease

    16.    Mention the indications for Circumcision.

    17.    Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.

    18.    Mention various types of abdominal incisions.

    19.    Pilinoidal Sinus

    20.    Solitary Rectal Ulcer

    21.    Ranson’s Score

    22.    Mention the symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  December

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Tension Pneumothorax.
    2. Describe stages of HIV infecticin. Write briefly on highly active anti retroviral therapy (HAART).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical features of Diabetic ketoacidosis
    2. Ankylosing spondylitis
    3. DOTS therapy in pulmonary tuberculosis
    4. Parenteral nutrition therapy
    5. Accelerated hypertension
    6. Routine urine examination
    7. Crohn’s disease
    8. Vitamin A deficiency
    9. Pacemaker in heart diseases
    10. Multiple myeloma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Drugs in thyrotoxicosis
    2. Features of sickle cell crisis
    3. Causes of bilateral pitting edema
    4. Systolic murmer in aortic area causes
    5. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
    6. Three drugs in status epilepticus
    7. Three indications of plasmapheresis
    8. Drugs used in Migraine
    9. Hypersplenism
    10. Treatment of Gout

    1093 General Medicine Paper I   Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                              Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)

    CR Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Discuss causes, clinical features and investigations of Lung Abscess.
    2. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and laboratory findings of acute pancreatitis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Down syndrome
    2. Dementia in the elderly
    3. Erythema multiforme
    4. Kaposi sarcoma
    5. Delirium tremers
    6. Dermatomyositis
    7. Management of spontaneous pneumothorax
    8. MDR tuberculosis – management
    9. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    10. Lithium

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Uses of valproic acid
    2. Causes of urinary incontinence in the elderly
    3. Clinical features of Psoriasis
    4. Mention the laboratory tests for diagnosis of HIV infection.
    5. Lepra reaction
    6. Causes of methhaemoglobinemia
    7. Mention 3 causes of HIRSUTISM.
    8. Serological tests of syphilis
    9. Causes of central cyanosis
    10. Antiviral drugs for herpes infection

    1094 General Medicine Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Obstetrics and Gyneacology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define ante partum haemorrhage. Discuss the causes, clinical features, diagnosis and management of any one of it.
    2. Define PIH (Pregnancy induced hypertension). Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis, differential diagnosis and management of Eclampsia.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Management of third stage of labour
    2. HIV in pregnancy
    3. Parenteral iron therapy in anemia complicating pregnancy
    4. Complication of preterm baby
    5. Perineal tear
    6. Obstructed labour
    7. Forceps
    8. Polyhydramnios
    9. Asphyxia neonatorum
    10. Cervical incompetence SHORT ANSWERS X10 x 3 = 30 Marks
    11. Causes of maternal mortality
    12. Scar dehiscence
    13. Cephal haematoma
    14. Prophylactic Methergin
    15. Second pelvic grip
    16. Apgar scoring
    17. Antenatal visits
    18. Stages of labour
    19. Advantages of forceps over ventouse
    20. Baby friendly hospital

    1098 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper I      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination DEC 2017

    Time: Thiree Hours                                                                                                                                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper-II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                            2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infertility. Causes and treatment of male infertility
    2. Define endometriosis. Aetiology, signs and symptoms and treatment of endometriosis

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hysteroscopy in gynaecology
    2. Prophylaxis against PID
    3. FIGO staging of endometrial carcinoma
    4. Fothergill’s operation
    5. Define dysmenorrhoea. Types of dysmenorrhoea and treatment
    6. Methods of female sterilization write about laparoscopic Tubectomy
    7. Aetiology of vesico-vaginal fistula
    8. Myomectomy and its complications
    9. Define puberty menorrhagia and its treatment
    10. Invasive mole
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Post coital contraception

    14.    Decubitus ulcer

    15.    Polymenorrhoea

    16.    Cryptomenorrhoea

    17.    Mini pill

    18.    Symptoms and signs of menopause

    19.    PCOD

    20.    Wertheim’s hysterectomy

    21.    Vault prolapse

    22.    Candidial vaginitis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper II        Download

     

     

    QP Code: 1096 “” Section B “” ORTHOPAEDICS [50 Marks] (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of gaint cell tumor.
    2. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of posterior dislocation of hip.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Osteotomy
    2. Haemophilic arthropathy
    3. Galleazzia fracture

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Synovial fluid
    2. Foot drop
    3. Malunion
    4. Marble bone disease
    5. Skin traction

    1096 ORTHOPAEDICS          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Paediatrics (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the parameters used to assess growth and outline the importance o_f growth charts
    2. IMNCI: components and role in reducing mortality in children

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Approach to a child with short stature
    2. Clinical features of rickets
    3. Classical features of Kwashiorkar
    4. Complications of tubercular meningitis
    5. Treatment of cerebral malaria
    6. Aetiology of respiratory distress in the newborn
    7. Recognition of neonatal sepsis
    8. Management of lactation failure
    9. Phenytoin sodium: indications and toxicity
    10. Classifications of cerebral palsy

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Clinical features of severe hyponatremic dehydration
    2. Peripheral smear examination in acute lymphatic leukemia
    3. Management of breath holding spells
    4. Diagnosis of systemic onset juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
    5. BCG vaccine
    6. Investigations in recurrent urinary tract infections
    7. Epiglottitis: aetiology and clinical features
    8. Contraindications for bag and mask ventilation during neonatal resuscitation
    9. Mid-arm circumference as an age independent anthropometric index
    10. Interpretation of Widal test

    1092 Paediatrics     Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    General Surgery (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1095

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is a venous ulcer? Describe in detail etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Varicose Veins in the Lower Limb.
    2. Classify thyroid neoplasms and describe in detail about the papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Marjolin’s Ulcer
    2. Thyroid storm
    3. Diffuse Axonal injury

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Hilton’s method of Drainage
    2. Ranula
    3. Venesection
    4. Erysipelas
    5. Spinal Anaesthesia

    1095 General Surgery        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                                   Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY – Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate the causes of Renal Calculi and its management.
    2. Carcinoma Rectum – pathology, clinical features and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hypernephroma
    2. Seminoma testis
    3. Secondaries in liver
    4. Achalasia cardia
    5. Ischiorectal abscess
    6. Abdominal tuberculosis
    7. Appendicular mass
    8. Hirschsprung’s disease
    9. Sigmoid volvulus
    10. Management of gall stones

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Complications of inguinal hernia
    2. Ranson’s criteria
    3. Courvoisier’s Law
    4. Troisier’s Sign
    5. Mention causes of torsion testis
    6. Indications for circumcision
    7. Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.
    8. Reverse 3 sign
    9. Classify fistula-in-ano.
    10. Indications for Common Bile Duct (CBD) exploration

     

    1097 GENERAL SURGERY Paper II          Download

     

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