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  • RGUHS MBBS 3rd Year Part 1 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Third Year Part I Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part I June

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – I) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                                     Max, Marks: 100 Marks

    Ophthalmology (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1091

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Discuss clinical features and management of Acute Iridocyclitis.
    2. Discuss clinical features of Senile Cataract and its management with recent developments.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Discuss factors for Corneal transparency.
    2. Mention fundus picture of Hypertensive Retinopathy/
    3. State indications for Iridectomy
    4. Discuss Eale’s disease.
    5. Discuss Blepharitis.
    6. Afferent Pupillary defect
    7. Symblenepharon and its management
    8. Orbital Cellulitis
    9. Hyphaema and its management
    10. Retinoblastoma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                               10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Lagophthalmos
    2. Miotics
    3. Cherry red spot at the macula
    4. Iris nodules
    5. Radial keratotomy
    6. Tubular vision
    7. Mooren’s ulcer
    8. Membranous conjunctivitis
    9. Colour vision
    10. Horner’s syndrome

    1091 Ophthalmology      Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – I) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OTO-RHINO-LARYNGOLOGY – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1090

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                   2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Cholesteatoma.
    2. Describe the etiology, clinical features and management of Carcinoma Maxilla.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Etiology and management of malignant otitis externa
    2. Causes and management of sudden sensorineural hearing loss
    3. Etiology and management of Nasal polyposis
    4. Describe in detail the surgical approaches to nasopharynx.
    5. Describe the anatomy of nasal septum. Discuss septa! surgeries.
    6. Discuss the types, procedure and complications of tracheostomy.
    7. Discuss the management of an adult patient presenting with hoarseness of voice.
    8. Discuss the differential diagnosis of a membranous lesion over the tonsil.
    9. Describe the anatomy of parapharyngeal space and its surgical approaches.
    10. Indications, contraindications and complications of Bronchoscopy

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Caloric tests
    2. Acoustic reflex tests
    3. Management of Otomycosis
    4. Management of BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo)
    5. Rhinolith
    6. Management of Rhinosporidiosis
    7. Causes of Septal perforation
    8. Indications for Caldwell Luc operation
    9. Treatment of salivary calculi
    10. Ludwig’s angina

    1090 OTO RHINO LARYNGOLOGY       Download

     

     

    PHASE -III Part I Decree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    COMMUNITY MEDICINE – PAPER I

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1088

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Mario.

    1. Define Health Education. Enumerate the Principles of Health Education. Write briefly about the Communication
    2. Define Classify Epidemiological Study Designs. Write about the Advantages and Disadvantages of Cohort study.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Mark_

    1. Child Guidance Clinic
    2. Sampling methods
    3. Sickness Absenteeism
    4. Disability Indicators
    5. Uses of Screening
    6. Bar Charts
    7. Simple Random Sampling
    8. Define Family. What are the functions of the Family?
    9. What is Lathyrism? What are the steps taken for its Prevention?
    10. Prevention of Iodine Deficiency Disorders

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                      10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Human Development Index
    2. Criteria for selection of Anganwadi worker
    3. Enumerate job responsibilities of ‘ASHA’.
    4. Properties of ‘Normal curve’.
    5. Discuss the effects of Tobacco use. What are the Preventive measures?
    6. What is ‘Triage’
    7. Write briefly about Beri-beri
    8. List out 6 Contraindications for Oral Contraceptive Pills
    9. Measles vaccine
    10. Chi-Square Test

    1088 Community Medicine Paper I       Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE -III Part I Degree Examination -JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    COMMUNITY MEDICINE – PAPER II
    (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1089

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the Epidemiology, Clinical Features, Prevention and Control of Measles in a
    2. Describe the causes of Maternal Mortality in India. Suggest Preventive and Control Measures for reduction of MMR.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Describe the Epidemiology and Prevention of Accidents.
    2. What are the Principles and Elements of Primary Health Care?
    3. What are the different types of Hormonal Contraceptives? Write a note on Mode of Action, Contraindications and Complications of Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills.
    4. Briefly explain the Modes of Transmission of Hepatitis B infection
    5. Mention the steps involved in Eradication of Poliomyelitis
    6. What are the measures for Control of Sexually Transmitted Diseases?
    7. Cancer Registries
    8. Write a note on Cold Chain Equipment present in Primary Health Centre.
    9. Describe the case finding tool for diagnosis of Tuberculosis under Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP). Add a note on reasons for ‘False Positivity’ and ‘False Negativity’.
    10. Describe the salient epidemiological features of Dengue Syndrome.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What is Exclusive Breast Feeding? Enumerate the Advantages.
    2. What is a Blocked Flea?
    3. Mass drug administration for Filariasis
    4. What is Network Analysis?
    5. Treatment for Leprosy
    6. Case definition used for diagnosis of AIDS
    7. What is Chandler’s index?
    8. What is rule of Halves in Hypertension?
    9. Preventive measures in Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) – Disease Transmission.
    10. juvenile Delinquency

    1089 Community Medicine Paper II       Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE -III Part I Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                               Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OPHTHALMOLOGY

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1091

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1.          Describe the aetiology, clinical features and management of senile immature cataract.

    2.          Describe the clinical features, risk factors and management of rhegmatogenous retinal detachMent.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    3.          Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

    4.          Episcleritis

    5.          Acanthamoeba keratitis

    6.          Antiviral drugs in eye disorders

    7.          Infantile glaucoma

    8.          Discuss the signs, symptoms and management of optic neuritis

    9.          Discuss the diagnosis and management of a dry eye

    10.        Sympathetic Ophthalmitis

    11.        Discuss the clinical features and treatment of orbital cellulitis

    12.        Discuss the clinical presentation and optical correction of hypermetropia

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.        Cycloplegic mydriatics

    14.        Note on Adie’s pupil

    15.        Management of acute anterior uveitis

    16.        Legal blindness

    17.        Asteroid hyalosis

    18.        Discuss aetiology and management of lagophthalmos

    19.        Indications for enucleation

    20.        Keratoplasty

    21.        Discuss fundus picture in diabetic retinopathy

    22.        National programmes for control of blindness

     

    1090 OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY   Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part I December

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE “”III Part I Degree Examination “” DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OTORHINOLARYNGOLOGY
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1090

    our answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1.       Describe the etiology, clinical features and management of Meniere’s disease.

    2.       Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of ethmoidal polyposis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    3.       Mucociliary blanket of nose

    4.       Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis

    5.       Management of dysphagia

    6.       Nasal bone fractures

    7.       Ototoxicity

    8.       Pre-auricular sinus

    9.       Fungal sinusitis

    10.     Clinical features and management of acute epiglottitis

    11.     Malignant otitis externa

    12.     Ludwig’s angina

    SHORT ANSWERS’                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    13.     Fistula test

    14.     Septal hematoma

    15.     Olfactory area

    16.     Laryngocele

    17.     Leukoplakia of oral cavity

    18.     Tonsilloliths

    19.     Glue ear

    20.     Ramsay Hunt syndrome

    21.     Blood supply of nasal septum

    22.     Vocal nodule

    1091 OPHTHALMOLOGY  Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – I) Degree Examination – DEC – 2017

    Time: Three H burs                                                                                                                                          Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Community Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1088

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                               2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1.      Describe in detail, the various health problems due to industrialization.

    2.      Classify and describe the various methods of health communication. Enlist the advantages and disadvantages of the different methods.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    3.      Characteristics of a Normal distribution curve.

    4.      Attributable Risk and Population Attributable Risk.

    5.      Prevention of Indoor air pollution in India.

    6.      Sampling techniques.

    7.      Role of legislation in reducing alcoholism in the society.

    8.      Methods of pasteurization of milk.

    9.      Modes of transmission of diseases.

    10.    Define Rate, Ratio and Proportion using appropriate examples.

    11.    Implications of False Positive and False Negative results in clinical practice.

    12.    Different types of association.

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.   Herd immunity.

    14.   Social security.

    15.   Epidemic.

    16.   Define silicosis. How is it diagnosed?

    17.   List four micronutrient deficiency disorders in India.

    18.   Occupational hazards of healthcare professionals.

    19.   Recommend solution for the problem of drug abuse in India.

    20.   Sample Registration System in India.

    21.   Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI).

    22.   Residual chlorination.

     

    1089 Community Medicine Paper I Download

     

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – I) Degree Examination – Dee – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Community Medicine – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1089

    Your answers should De specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                               2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1.      Enumerate the Maternal and Child Health Indications. Define Perinatal Mortality Rate. Write the causes and measures to reduce Perinatal Mortality Rate in India.

    2.      Define accident. Enumerate the types of accident. Give an account of primary factors associated with accidents.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    3.      Intra Uterine Device (IUD)

    4.      Prevention of Industrial Accidents

    5.      Postnatal care

    6.      National Leprosy Eradication Programme

    7.      Disaster management in floOds

    8.      Categories of biomedical waste in India

    9.      Prevention of Hook worm infestation

    10.    Post-exposure prophylaxis in Rabies

    11.    National Population Policy

    12.    Juvenile Justice Act

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    13.    Body Mass Index

    14.    Congenital Rubella

    15.    Influenza A (H11\11)

    16.    Screening for breast cancer

    17.    Mopping up in polio eradication

    18.    Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)

    19.    Health education in schools

    20.    Assessment of nutritional status

    21.    Community health centre

    22.    Blocked flea

     

    1089 Community Medicine Paper II   Download

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  • RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Second Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year June

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination –

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Forensic Medicine (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1087

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infanticide. Describe methods usually adopted for carrying out infanticide. Add a note on macerated fetus.
    2. Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between ante mortem and post mortem burns? What are the causes of death due to burns?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Treatment of oxalic acid poisoning
    2. Chronic mercurial poisoning
    3. Narcoanalysis
    4. Botulism
    5. Hallucination
    6. Blood groups and medico legal importance
    7. Management of snake bite
    8. Judicial hanging
    9. Coup and Counter coup injury
    10. Res ipsa loquitor

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Impulse
    2. Conduct money
    3. Juvenile court
    4. Suspended animation
    5. Foot prints
    6. Negative autopsy
    7. Pseudo virgin
    8. Tribadism
    9. Euthanasia
    10. Locoparentis

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate Parasites found is–, Blood Describe life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum. (3+7)
    2. Enumerate Hepatitis Viruses Describe morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B Virus. (3+2+2+3)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Cryptococcus neoformans
    2. Immunoprophylaxis of Rabies
    3. Hydatid cyst
    4. Mycetoma
    5. Interferons
    6. Cultivation of Viruses
    7. Concentration methods for Stool
    8. Dermatophytes
    9. Japanese Encephalitis
    10. Giardia lamblia

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Classification of Fungi
    2. Oral thrush
    3. Antigenic shift and drift
    4. Structure of HIV
    5. Fungal slide culture
    6. Inclusion body
    7. Rhinosporidiosis
    8. NIH Swab
    9. Cysticercus Cellulosae
    10. Difference between Amoebic and Bacillary Dysentery

    1084 Microbiology Paper II            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Infection. Name the different types of Infection. Describe sources of Infection. (1+3+6)
    2. Enumerate the organisms causing Pyogenic meningitis. Describe in detail pathogenesis and

    laboratory diagnosis of Meningococcal meningitis. (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Plasmid
    2. Autoimmunity
    3. Precipitation reactions
    4. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    5. Methods of Anaerobiosis
    6. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    7. Standard tests for Syphilis
    8. Lepromin test
    9. Bacterial Spore
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Typhoid fever
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Heterophile Antigen

    14.    Differences between El Tor and Classical Vibrio

    15.    Classification of Staphylococci

    16.    Prevention of Tetanus

    17.    Draw a neat labeled diagram of IgM

    18.    Electron Microscope

    19.    Methods of obtaining pure culture of Bacteria

    20.    Selective Media

    21.    Significant Bacteriuria

    22. Non-suppurative infections of Streptococcus pyogenes *lc***

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                      Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is Metastasis? Describe the pathways of spread of tumours. Describe the mechanism of

    Cancer Metastasis.                                                                                          (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    1. A 58 years old pure vegetarian male presented with Pallor, weakness, red baldy tongue and
      numbness in the fingers. His Hb was 8gm°/13 and MCV was 11011.
    2. What is your diagnosis and why?
    3. What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
    4. What are the laboratory findings in such cases? (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Types of Necrosis with examples
    2. Laboratory findings in Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
    3. Role of Complements in Inflammation
    4. Vitamin C deficiency
    5. Laboratory diagnosis of Genetic diseases
    6. Bone Marrow Aspiration study
    7. Pathogenesis of Thrombosis
    8. Leukemoid reaction

    11,       Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology

    1. Klinefelter syndrome

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Give three examples for Free Radicals and Antioxidants.
    2. Diagnostic criteria for Multiple Myeloma
    3. Cardinal signs of Inflammation
    4. Causes for Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia
    5. Cytological findings in Malignant Pleural Effusion
    6. Basophilia
    7. Target cells
    8. Name different Cancers associated with Chronic Alcoholism.
    9. Special (Cytochemical) stains used in Acute Leukemias
    10. Give two examples each for different Mendelian Inheritance.

    1081 Pathology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Cycindili Universitv of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    You answers shout be specific to the questons asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of

    Ovary. (2+8)

    1. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10

    days, following episode of Pharyngitis.

    1. What is the probable diagnosis?
    2. Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Gastric Carcinoma
    2. Alcoholic Liver disease
    3. Bronchial Asthma
    4. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
    5. Complications of Gall Stones
    6. Thyrotoxicosis
    7. Intestinal Amoebiasis
    8. Lung Abscess
    9. Premalignant Lesions of Squarnous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
    10. Pyogenic Meningitis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

    14.    Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid

    15.    Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension

    16.    Classification of Hodgkin’s disease

    17.    Causes for Splenomegaly

    18.    Phaeochromocytoma

    19.    Colloid Goitre

    20.    Fibroadenoma – Breast

    21.    Leiomyoma – Uterus

    22.    Scar Endometriosis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1082 Pathology Paper II          Download

     JUNE 2017

    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify sympathomimetics Describe the cardiovascular actions and therapeutic uses of
    2. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of phenytoin sodium. Mention newer antiepileptic drugs.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Enzyme induction and its clinical significance
    2. Transdermal route of drug administration
    3. Treatment of Organophosphorus poisoning
    4. Uses of alpha adrenergic blockers
    5. Mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Ramipril
    6. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of Furosemide
    7. Fibrinolytic drugs
    8. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of morphine
    9. Clonidine
    10. Factors modifying drug action

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                           x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Three differences between Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines
    2. Succinyl choline
    3. Atropine substitutes
    4. Mention six uses of anti-platelet drugs_
    5. Name three uses of verapamil.
    6. Treatment of paracetamol poisoning
    7. Explain the pharmacological basis for combining Carbidopa with Levodopa.
    8. Six uses of centrally acting muscle relaxants
    9. Rosuvastatin
    10. Treatment of cardiogenic shock

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the antibacterial spectrum, mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
    2. Classify antithyroid drugs. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of (a) Carbimazole, (b) Radioactive Iodine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aminopenicillins
    2. Therapeutic uses of Metronidazole
    3. Drug treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria
    4. Griseofulvin
    5. Metformin
    6. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)
    7. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of H1 blockers
    8. Sodium chromoglycate
    9. Bulk purgatives
    10. Oxytocics

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Explain why chloroquine is effective in extra-intestinal amoebiasis but not effective in intestinal amoebiasis.
    2. What are adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
    3. Why ethambutol is not used in children below six years?
    4. Name two centrally acting cough suppressants. Why they are not used in a patient having productive cough?
    5. Explain how Sucralfate acts. Can it be used along with antacids? Give reason.
    6. Enumerate therapeutic uses of prostaglandins.
    7. What are indications for use of Dimercaprol? Where is it contraindicated?
    8. Name two uricosuric drugs. How do they produce uricosuric effect?
    9. How does Metoclopramide produce its antiemetic effect? What is its central toxicity?
    10. Explain the terms ‘Antiseptic’ and ‘Disinfectant’ with examples.

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II           Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year December

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    FORENSIC MEDICINE
    (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1087

    answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define live birth. Explain the various signs of live birth.
    2. Describe the clinical features and treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Morphine poisoning
    2. Hydrochloric acid poisoning
    3. Delusion
    4. McNaughten’s rule
    5. Consent
    6. Police inquest
    7. Postmortem lividity
    8. Laceration
    9. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    10. Dowry deaths

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                     10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Spectroscopy
    2. Direct examination
    3. Types of witnesses
    4. Scars
    5. Pathological postmortem examination
    6. Rifling
    7. Lynching
    8. Bansdola
    9. Masochism
    10. Sterility

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

    MBES (Phase – 11) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and Classify Culture Media with examples. (5+5)
    2. Define Immunoglobulin. Describe structure and function of the five classes of Immunoglobulins.

    (2+4+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Bacterial Capsule
    2. Enumerate organisms commonly causing Hospital Acquired infections.
    3. Mechanisms of Innate Immunity
    4. Precipitation reactions.
    5. Classify and enumerate Immunodeficiency diseases.
    6. Enumerate Lesions produced by Neisseria Gonorrhoea.
    7. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene
    8. Classification of Chlamydia
    9. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Non specific serological test for Syphilis

    14.    Laboratory diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever

    15.    Halophilic Vibrios

    16.    Methods to prevent Swarming of Proteus Species

    17.    Bacterial Zoonoses

    18.    Elek’s gel precipitation test

    19.    Hot Air Oven

    20.    Transposons (Jumping Genes)

    21.    Labelled diagram of Bacterial Growth Curve

    22.    Principle and uses of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    –

    Max, Marks: 100 Marks

    MICROBIOLOGY -Paper -II
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the morphology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of HIV. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)
    2. Enumerate Hemoparasites. Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium vivax. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aspergillosis
    2. Hydatld cyst
    3. Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B infection
    4. Viral Inclusion Bodies
    5. Free Living Amoebae
    6. Cryptococcosis
    7. Delhi Boil
    8. Laboratory diagnosis of Rabies
    9. Life cycle of Trichuris trichiura
    10. Otomycosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Baiantidium coli
    2. Sabouraud’s Dextrose Agar (SDA)
    3. Clinical manifestations of Rhinosporidiosis
    4. Serological tests for Kala-Azar
    5. Casoni’s test
    6. Chyluria
    7. Enumerate three Oncogenic viruses.
    8. Lassa fever
    9. Draw a neatly labelled diagram of a Bacteriophage.
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

    1084 Microbiology Paper II         Download

     

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology-Paper -I

    (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)

    QP Code: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify leukemias. Discuss the clinical manifestations and Laboratory diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
    2. Enumerate the features and causes of acute inflammation. Describe in detail the cellular events in acute inflammation.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Granulomatous inflammation.
    2. Causes of hemolytic anemia
    3. Paraneoplastic syndromes
    4. Down’s syndrome
    5. Pathogenesis of septic shock
    6. Differences between benign and malignant tumour
    7. Bone marrow findings in megalobasltic anemia
    8. Amyloidosis
    9. Enumerate the components of Virchow’s triad.What are the fates of thrombus?
    10. Haemochromatosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
    2. Name the chemical tests done in serum and urine examination to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis.
    3. Indications for bone marrow aspiration
    4. Name transfusion transmitted diseases
    5. Principle of direct and indirect Coomb’s test. Mention the conditions where these will be positive.
    6. Principle and advantages of Hemoglobin estimation by Cyanmethemoglobin method.
    7. Name two stains used in cytology and their applications.
    8. Name tests to diagnose hemolysis
    9. Semen analysis & findings in a normal semen
    10. Anticoagulants used in hematology.

    1081 Pathology Paper  I        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – Dec – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (R52 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                  2 x 1❑ = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic Liver disease.
    2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                 1❑ x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
    2. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
    3. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
    4. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
    5. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
    6. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
    7. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Maligr,ant Melanoma.
    8. Carcinoid syndrome
    9. Grave’s disease
    10. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
    2. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
    3. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
    4. Types of Renal Calculi
    5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    6. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
    7. Cryptorchidism
    8. Causes of Hydronephrosis
    9. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
    10. Importance of Reid index

    1082 Pathology Paper II      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Thre::: Hqurs                                                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (R52 & R53 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Antieholinergics. Describe the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Atropine. (4±3+3)
    2. Describe mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines as sedative and hypnotic and discuss its adverse

    effects and uses.                                                                                         (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical significance of Plasma Protein binding
    2. Drug Synergism
    3. Uses and adverse effects of Calcium Channel Blockers
    4. Clonidine
    5. Nasal decongestants
    6. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Organic Nitrates
    7. Uses and adverse effects of Thrombolytics
    8. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
    9. Advantages and disadvantages of Nitrous Oxide Anaesthesia
    10. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Lignocaine

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Placebo
    2. Disadvantages of Fixed Dose combinations
    3. Mechanism of action of Pralidoxime
    4. Naloxone
    5. Uses of Valproic Acid
    6. Advantages of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
    7. Mention Parenteral Iron preparations.
    8. Baclofen
    9. Plasma half life
    10. Bile Acid Binding Resins

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I        Download

     

     

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)

    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What are the common characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics? Describe the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effect of gentamicin.
    2. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills. What instructions should be given to the patient regarding their wse?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine
    2. Third generation cephalosporins
    3. Albendazole
    4. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INN)
    5. Insulin preparations
    6. Non-sedative H1 receptor blockers
    7. Drug treatment of status asthmaticus
    8. Passive immunization
    9. Proton pump inhibitors
    10. Allopurinol

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What are advantages of Azithromycin over Erythromycin?
    2. Write the mechanism of action of Dapsone and write two adverse effects.
    3. What is the rationale for combining Clavulanic acid with Amoxycillin?
    4. What are advantages and disadvantages of radioactive iodine as an antithyroid drug?
    5. What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids on bones and skeletal muscles?
    6. List two indications for use of Cndansetron? What is its mechanism of action?
    7. Name two emollient laxatives. Give two indications and two adverse effects.
    8. List three topical antifungal agents and write three uses.
    9. Explain why Ergometrine can not be used for induction of labour.
    10. What are the indications for use of Vitamin C?

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II         Download

     

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