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  • RGUHS MBBS 3rd Year Part 2 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Third Year Part II Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

     

    RGUHS MBBS Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers

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    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  June

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Mention causes of liver Cirrhosis. Describe clinical features, investigations and management of Cirrhosis of Liver.
    2. Describe clinical features, diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma. Add a note on paraneoplastic

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Beriberi
    2. Treatment of Acute Falciparum Malaria
    3. Management of septic shock
    4. Complications of chronic pancreatitis
    5. Addison’s disease
    6. Criteria to diagnose Acute rheumatic fever
    7. Indications of lumbar puncture
    8. Clinical features of SLE
    9. Hypoglycemia
    10. Complications of blood transfusion

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Carbamezapine
    2. Modes of transmission of HIV
    3. Tension headache
    4. Three causes of chronic diarrhea
    5. Drugs in Anaphylaxis
    6. Lepra reaction
    7. Name three organ which can be transplanted
    8. Antidotes in poisoning
    9. Causes of fall in elderly patient
    10. Name members of multidisciplinary team.

    1093 General Medicine Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks               1`
    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Mark!

    1. Define heart failure. Describe the etiology, classification, clinical features, investigations and management of heart failure.
    2. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of typhoid fever (enteric fever).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Mark!

    1. Status epilepticus
    2. Pulmonary embolism.
    3. Ulcerative colitis.
    4. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
    5. Treatment of bronchial asthma.
    6. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
    7. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
    8. Schizophrenia.
    11.       Scabies.

    12.       Down syndrome.

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.       Erythropoietin.

    14.       Management of rheumatoid arthritis.

    15.       Dissociative (conversion) disorder.

    16.       Tumour markers.

    17.       Indications and complications of lumbar puncture.

    18.       Prophylactic therapy of migraine.

    19.       Opportunistic infections.

    20.       Newer methods of diagnosis of tuberculosis.

    21.       Mountain sickness.

    22.       Implantable cardioverter defibrillator

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Mark!

    1093 General Medicine Paper II Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University  Health sciences

    M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Exammation – June 2017

    Time 3 Hrs                                                                                                 [Max. Marks: 100:

    OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY – Paper – I
    (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Hydatidiform mole. Mention the clinical features and management of hydatidiform mole.
    2. Mention the classification of hypertension in pregnancy. Describe the clinical features and

    management of Eciampsia.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Pregnancy in Rh-negative woman and prevention of Rh-immunisation
    2. Mechanism of labour in face presentation.
    3. Describe the classification of Heart disease in pregnancy and management during labour.
    4. Management of second stage of labour
    5. Physiology of Lactation.
    6. Clinical features and management of septic abortion.
    7. Haematological changes occurring during pregnancy.
    8. Management of Iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy.
    9. Define Episiotomy and types. Describe mediolateral episiotomy and its complications.
    10. Post Caesarean pregnancy.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Amniotic fluid index.
    2. Antenatal visits recommended in each trimester.
    3. Moulding and its degrees.
    4. Prophylactic ergometrine.
    5. Twin reversal arterial perfusion (TRAP).
    6. Caput succedaneum.
    7. Craniotomy.
    8. Goodell’s sign and Osiander’s sign.
    9. Fetal axis pressure.
    10. Lowe:– Uterine segment.

    1093 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – July 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         

    1. Define dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What are the type and how will you diagnose an
      ovulatory DUB?
    2. A 55 yr old multipara, post menopausal women, came with foul smelling blood stained
      discharge since 1 month. What is your most probable diagnosis, investigation and
      management?                                                                                                    
    1. Theories of endometriosis
    2. IUCD
    3. Semen analysis
    4. Pruritis vulva
    5. Metrorrhagia
    6. Complications of Radiotherapy in Gynaecology
    7. PCOD
    8. Choriocarcinoma
    9. Causes of Primary amenorrhoea
    10. Pap smear
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.      Uses of progesterone

    14.      Basal body temperature

    15.      Clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome

    16.      Lymphatic drainage of cervix

    17.      Causes of dysmenorrhoea

    18.      Structure of graffian follicle

    19.      Luteal phase

    20.      Progesterone only pill

    21.      Anatomy of perineal body

    22.      Lymphatic drainage of uterus

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper II Download

     

     

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Colles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Pott’s spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Foot drop
    2. Thomas splint
    3. Non union
    4. Fracture disease

    10    Genu varum deformity

     

    1096 Orthopaedics Download

     

    (PART “” II), III Professional Exan- JUNE 2017

    Time: 3 Hrs.                                                                                          [Max. Marks: 100]

    PAEDIATRICS (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What do you mean by the term growth? Write briefly about the changes in the parameters from birth to 5 years of age.
    2. Discuss approach towards a child who is 3 year old coming with haematuria and management of acute glomerular nephritis.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Infant mortality rate.
    2. about Acute Diarrhoe3l Disease control programme.
    3. Kwashiorkor- clinical features & complications.
    4. Measles-clinical features, prevention.
    5. When do you suspect pathological jaundice in the neonate?
    6. Serology as an aid to diagnosis in Hepatitis B infection.
    7. Management of status epilepticus.
    8. Lab work up in a child with nutritional anemia.
    9. Symptoms and signs of VSD below 1 year of age.
    10. Prevention of mother to child transmission of HIV.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. DPT vaccine “”constituents, type, schedule.
    2. When do you suspect severe pneumonia in a 10 month child? Write about the initial management.
    3. Clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism.
    4. Radiological features in rickets.
    5. Indications for work up of tuberculosis in a 2 year old child.
    6. Mention Apgar score criteria
    7. Enumerate the complications seen in a small for gestation age neonate.
    8. Criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.
    9. Breath holding spells.
    10. Urinary findings in Nephrotic syndrome.

    1092 Pediatrics Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University                   h Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define CoIles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Potts spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                       3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

     

    SHORT ANSWERS

    6.     Foot drop

    7.     Thomas splint

    8.     Non union

    9.     Fracture disease

    10.   Genu varum deformity

    		 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

                                                                                                                                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY “” Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                        2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiopathogenesis of Biliary Calculi. Write about clinical features and management of Biliary Stones.
    2. Carcinoma Stomach – Etiopathogenesis, diagnosis and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Wilm’s tumor
    2. Achalasia Cardia
    3. Hydatid cyst of liver
    4. Retractile Testis
    5. Surgical Lobes of Liver
    6. Hyper splenism
    7. Iliocaecal tuberculosis
    8. Sub Diaphragmatic Abscess
    9. Ischio Rectal Abscess
    10. Principles of Laparoscopy
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Mention complications of inguinal hernia.

    14.    Types and causes of Intussusception

    15.    Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disease

    16.    Mention the indications for Circumcision.

    17.    Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.

    18.    Mention various types of abdominal incisions.

    19.    Pilinoidal Sinus

    20.    Solitary Rectal Ulcer

    21.    Ranson’s Score

    22.    Mention the symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  December

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Tension Pneumothorax.
    2. Describe stages of HIV infecticin. Write briefly on highly active anti retroviral therapy (HAART).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical features of Diabetic ketoacidosis
    2. Ankylosing spondylitis
    3. DOTS therapy in pulmonary tuberculosis
    4. Parenteral nutrition therapy
    5. Accelerated hypertension
    6. Routine urine examination
    7. Crohn’s disease
    8. Vitamin A deficiency
    9. Pacemaker in heart diseases
    10. Multiple myeloma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Drugs in thyrotoxicosis
    2. Features of sickle cell crisis
    3. Causes of bilateral pitting edema
    4. Systolic murmer in aortic area causes
    5. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
    6. Three drugs in status epilepticus
    7. Three indications of plasmapheresis
    8. Drugs used in Migraine
    9. Hypersplenism
    10. Treatment of Gout

    1093 General Medicine Paper I   Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                              Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)

    CR Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Discuss causes, clinical features and investigations of Lung Abscess.
    2. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and laboratory findings of acute pancreatitis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Down syndrome
    2. Dementia in the elderly
    3. Erythema multiforme
    4. Kaposi sarcoma
    5. Delirium tremers
    6. Dermatomyositis
    7. Management of spontaneous pneumothorax
    8. MDR tuberculosis – management
    9. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    10. Lithium

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Uses of valproic acid
    2. Causes of urinary incontinence in the elderly
    3. Clinical features of Psoriasis
    4. Mention the laboratory tests for diagnosis of HIV infection.
    5. Lepra reaction
    6. Causes of methhaemoglobinemia
    7. Mention 3 causes of HIRSUTISM.
    8. Serological tests of syphilis
    9. Causes of central cyanosis
    10. Antiviral drugs for herpes infection

    1094 General Medicine Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Obstetrics and Gyneacology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define ante partum haemorrhage. Discuss the causes, clinical features, diagnosis and management of any one of it.
    2. Define PIH (Pregnancy induced hypertension). Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis, differential diagnosis and management of Eclampsia.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Management of third stage of labour
    2. HIV in pregnancy
    3. Parenteral iron therapy in anemia complicating pregnancy
    4. Complication of preterm baby
    5. Perineal tear
    6. Obstructed labour
    7. Forceps
    8. Polyhydramnios
    9. Asphyxia neonatorum
    10. Cervical incompetence SHORT ANSWERS X10 x 3 = 30 Marks
    11. Causes of maternal mortality
    12. Scar dehiscence
    13. Cephal haematoma
    14. Prophylactic Methergin
    15. Second pelvic grip
    16. Apgar scoring
    17. Antenatal visits
    18. Stages of labour
    19. Advantages of forceps over ventouse
    20. Baby friendly hospital

    1098 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper I      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination DEC 2017

    Time: Thiree Hours                                                                                                                                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper-II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                            2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infertility. Causes and treatment of male infertility
    2. Define endometriosis. Aetiology, signs and symptoms and treatment of endometriosis

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hysteroscopy in gynaecology
    2. Prophylaxis against PID
    3. FIGO staging of endometrial carcinoma
    4. Fothergill’s operation
    5. Define dysmenorrhoea. Types of dysmenorrhoea and treatment
    6. Methods of female sterilization write about laparoscopic Tubectomy
    7. Aetiology of vesico-vaginal fistula
    8. Myomectomy and its complications
    9. Define puberty menorrhagia and its treatment
    10. Invasive mole
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Post coital contraception

    14.    Decubitus ulcer

    15.    Polymenorrhoea

    16.    Cryptomenorrhoea

    17.    Mini pill

    18.    Symptoms and signs of menopause

    19.    PCOD

    20.    Wertheim’s hysterectomy

    21.    Vault prolapse

    22.    Candidial vaginitis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper II        Download

     

     

    QP Code: 1096 “” Section B “” ORTHOPAEDICS [50 Marks] (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of gaint cell tumor.
    2. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of posterior dislocation of hip.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Osteotomy
    2. Haemophilic arthropathy
    3. Galleazzia fracture

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Synovial fluid
    2. Foot drop
    3. Malunion
    4. Marble bone disease
    5. Skin traction

    1096 ORTHOPAEDICS          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Paediatrics (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the parameters used to assess growth and outline the importance o_f growth charts
    2. IMNCI: components and role in reducing mortality in children

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Approach to a child with short stature
    2. Clinical features of rickets
    3. Classical features of Kwashiorkar
    4. Complications of tubercular meningitis
    5. Treatment of cerebral malaria
    6. Aetiology of respiratory distress in the newborn
    7. Recognition of neonatal sepsis
    8. Management of lactation failure
    9. Phenytoin sodium: indications and toxicity
    10. Classifications of cerebral palsy

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Clinical features of severe hyponatremic dehydration
    2. Peripheral smear examination in acute lymphatic leukemia
    3. Management of breath holding spells
    4. Diagnosis of systemic onset juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
    5. BCG vaccine
    6. Investigations in recurrent urinary tract infections
    7. Epiglottitis: aetiology and clinical features
    8. Contraindications for bag and mask ventilation during neonatal resuscitation
    9. Mid-arm circumference as an age independent anthropometric index
    10. Interpretation of Widal test

    1092 Paediatrics     Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    General Surgery (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1095

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is a venous ulcer? Describe in detail etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Varicose Veins in the Lower Limb.
    2. Classify thyroid neoplasms and describe in detail about the papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Marjolin’s Ulcer
    2. Thyroid storm
    3. Diffuse Axonal injury

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Hilton’s method of Drainage
    2. Ranula
    3. Venesection
    4. Erysipelas
    5. Spinal Anaesthesia

    1095 General Surgery        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                                   Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY – Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate the causes of Renal Calculi and its management.
    2. Carcinoma Rectum – pathology, clinical features and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hypernephroma
    2. Seminoma testis
    3. Secondaries in liver
    4. Achalasia cardia
    5. Ischiorectal abscess
    6. Abdominal tuberculosis
    7. Appendicular mass
    8. Hirschsprung’s disease
    9. Sigmoid volvulus
    10. Management of gall stones

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Complications of inguinal hernia
    2. Ranson’s criteria
    3. Courvoisier’s Law
    4. Troisier’s Sign
    5. Mention causes of torsion testis
    6. Indications for circumcision
    7. Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.
    8. Reverse 3 sign
    9. Classify fistula-in-ano.
    10. Indications for Common Bile Duct (CBD) exploration

     

    1097 GENERAL SURGERY Paper II          Download

     

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  • RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Second Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year June

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination –

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Forensic Medicine (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1087

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infanticide. Describe methods usually adopted for carrying out infanticide. Add a note on macerated fetus.
    2. Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between ante mortem and post mortem burns? What are the causes of death due to burns?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Treatment of oxalic acid poisoning
    2. Chronic mercurial poisoning
    3. Narcoanalysis
    4. Botulism
    5. Hallucination
    6. Blood groups and medico legal importance
    7. Management of snake bite
    8. Judicial hanging
    9. Coup and Counter coup injury
    10. Res ipsa loquitor

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Impulse
    2. Conduct money
    3. Juvenile court
    4. Suspended animation
    5. Foot prints
    6. Negative autopsy
    7. Pseudo virgin
    8. Tribadism
    9. Euthanasia
    10. Locoparentis

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate Parasites found is–, Blood Describe life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum. (3+7)
    2. Enumerate Hepatitis Viruses Describe morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B Virus. (3+2+2+3)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Cryptococcus neoformans
    2. Immunoprophylaxis of Rabies
    3. Hydatid cyst
    4. Mycetoma
    5. Interferons
    6. Cultivation of Viruses
    7. Concentration methods for Stool
    8. Dermatophytes
    9. Japanese Encephalitis
    10. Giardia lamblia

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Classification of Fungi
    2. Oral thrush
    3. Antigenic shift and drift
    4. Structure of HIV
    5. Fungal slide culture
    6. Inclusion body
    7. Rhinosporidiosis
    8. NIH Swab
    9. Cysticercus Cellulosae
    10. Difference between Amoebic and Bacillary Dysentery

    1084 Microbiology Paper II            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Infection. Name the different types of Infection. Describe sources of Infection. (1+3+6)
    2. Enumerate the organisms causing Pyogenic meningitis. Describe in detail pathogenesis and

    laboratory diagnosis of Meningococcal meningitis. (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Plasmid
    2. Autoimmunity
    3. Precipitation reactions
    4. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    5. Methods of Anaerobiosis
    6. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    7. Standard tests for Syphilis
    8. Lepromin test
    9. Bacterial Spore
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Typhoid fever
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Heterophile Antigen

    14.    Differences between El Tor and Classical Vibrio

    15.    Classification of Staphylococci

    16.    Prevention of Tetanus

    17.    Draw a neat labeled diagram of IgM

    18.    Electron Microscope

    19.    Methods of obtaining pure culture of Bacteria

    20.    Selective Media

    21.    Significant Bacteriuria

    22. Non-suppurative infections of Streptococcus pyogenes *lc***

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                      Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is Metastasis? Describe the pathways of spread of tumours. Describe the mechanism of

    Cancer Metastasis.                                                                                          (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    1. A 58 years old pure vegetarian male presented with Pallor, weakness, red baldy tongue and
      numbness in the fingers. His Hb was 8gm°/13 and MCV was 11011.
    2. What is your diagnosis and why?
    3. What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
    4. What are the laboratory findings in such cases? (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Types of Necrosis with examples
    2. Laboratory findings in Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
    3. Role of Complements in Inflammation
    4. Vitamin C deficiency
    5. Laboratory diagnosis of Genetic diseases
    6. Bone Marrow Aspiration study
    7. Pathogenesis of Thrombosis
    8. Leukemoid reaction

    11,       Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology

    1. Klinefelter syndrome

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Give three examples for Free Radicals and Antioxidants.
    2. Diagnostic criteria for Multiple Myeloma
    3. Cardinal signs of Inflammation
    4. Causes for Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia
    5. Cytological findings in Malignant Pleural Effusion
    6. Basophilia
    7. Target cells
    8. Name different Cancers associated with Chronic Alcoholism.
    9. Special (Cytochemical) stains used in Acute Leukemias
    10. Give two examples each for different Mendelian Inheritance.

    1081 Pathology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Cycindili Universitv of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    You answers shout be specific to the questons asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of

    Ovary. (2+8)

    1. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10

    days, following episode of Pharyngitis.

    1. What is the probable diagnosis?
    2. Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Gastric Carcinoma
    2. Alcoholic Liver disease
    3. Bronchial Asthma
    4. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
    5. Complications of Gall Stones
    6. Thyrotoxicosis
    7. Intestinal Amoebiasis
    8. Lung Abscess
    9. Premalignant Lesions of Squarnous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
    10. Pyogenic Meningitis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

    14.    Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid

    15.    Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension

    16.    Classification of Hodgkin’s disease

    17.    Causes for Splenomegaly

    18.    Phaeochromocytoma

    19.    Colloid Goitre

    20.    Fibroadenoma – Breast

    21.    Leiomyoma – Uterus

    22.    Scar Endometriosis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1082 Pathology Paper II          Download

     JUNE 2017

    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify sympathomimetics Describe the cardiovascular actions and therapeutic uses of
    2. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of phenytoin sodium. Mention newer antiepileptic drugs.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Enzyme induction and its clinical significance
    2. Transdermal route of drug administration
    3. Treatment of Organophosphorus poisoning
    4. Uses of alpha adrenergic blockers
    5. Mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Ramipril
    6. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of Furosemide
    7. Fibrinolytic drugs
    8. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of morphine
    9. Clonidine
    10. Factors modifying drug action

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                           x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Three differences between Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines
    2. Succinyl choline
    3. Atropine substitutes
    4. Mention six uses of anti-platelet drugs_
    5. Name three uses of verapamil.
    6. Treatment of paracetamol poisoning
    7. Explain the pharmacological basis for combining Carbidopa with Levodopa.
    8. Six uses of centrally acting muscle relaxants
    9. Rosuvastatin
    10. Treatment of cardiogenic shock

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the antibacterial spectrum, mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
    2. Classify antithyroid drugs. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of (a) Carbimazole, (b) Radioactive Iodine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aminopenicillins
    2. Therapeutic uses of Metronidazole
    3. Drug treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria
    4. Griseofulvin
    5. Metformin
    6. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)
    7. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of H1 blockers
    8. Sodium chromoglycate
    9. Bulk purgatives
    10. Oxytocics

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Explain why chloroquine is effective in extra-intestinal amoebiasis but not effective in intestinal amoebiasis.
    2. What are adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
    3. Why ethambutol is not used in children below six years?
    4. Name two centrally acting cough suppressants. Why they are not used in a patient having productive cough?
    5. Explain how Sucralfate acts. Can it be used along with antacids? Give reason.
    6. Enumerate therapeutic uses of prostaglandins.
    7. What are indications for use of Dimercaprol? Where is it contraindicated?
    8. Name two uricosuric drugs. How do they produce uricosuric effect?
    9. How does Metoclopramide produce its antiemetic effect? What is its central toxicity?
    10. Explain the terms ‘Antiseptic’ and ‘Disinfectant’ with examples.

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II           Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year December

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    FORENSIC MEDICINE
    (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1087

    answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define live birth. Explain the various signs of live birth.
    2. Describe the clinical features and treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Morphine poisoning
    2. Hydrochloric acid poisoning
    3. Delusion
    4. McNaughten’s rule
    5. Consent
    6. Police inquest
    7. Postmortem lividity
    8. Laceration
    9. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    10. Dowry deaths

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                     10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Spectroscopy
    2. Direct examination
    3. Types of witnesses
    4. Scars
    5. Pathological postmortem examination
    6. Rifling
    7. Lynching
    8. Bansdola
    9. Masochism
    10. Sterility

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

    MBES (Phase – 11) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and Classify Culture Media with examples. (5+5)
    2. Define Immunoglobulin. Describe structure and function of the five classes of Immunoglobulins.

    (2+4+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Bacterial Capsule
    2. Enumerate organisms commonly causing Hospital Acquired infections.
    3. Mechanisms of Innate Immunity
    4. Precipitation reactions.
    5. Classify and enumerate Immunodeficiency diseases.
    6. Enumerate Lesions produced by Neisseria Gonorrhoea.
    7. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene
    8. Classification of Chlamydia
    9. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Non specific serological test for Syphilis

    14.    Laboratory diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever

    15.    Halophilic Vibrios

    16.    Methods to prevent Swarming of Proteus Species

    17.    Bacterial Zoonoses

    18.    Elek’s gel precipitation test

    19.    Hot Air Oven

    20.    Transposons (Jumping Genes)

    21.    Labelled diagram of Bacterial Growth Curve

    22.    Principle and uses of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    –

    Max, Marks: 100 Marks

    MICROBIOLOGY -Paper -II
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the morphology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of HIV. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)
    2. Enumerate Hemoparasites. Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium vivax. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aspergillosis
    2. Hydatld cyst
    3. Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B infection
    4. Viral Inclusion Bodies
    5. Free Living Amoebae
    6. Cryptococcosis
    7. Delhi Boil
    8. Laboratory diagnosis of Rabies
    9. Life cycle of Trichuris trichiura
    10. Otomycosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Baiantidium coli
    2. Sabouraud’s Dextrose Agar (SDA)
    3. Clinical manifestations of Rhinosporidiosis
    4. Serological tests for Kala-Azar
    5. Casoni’s test
    6. Chyluria
    7. Enumerate three Oncogenic viruses.
    8. Lassa fever
    9. Draw a neatly labelled diagram of a Bacteriophage.
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

    1084 Microbiology Paper II         Download

     

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology-Paper -I

    (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)

    QP Code: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify leukemias. Discuss the clinical manifestations and Laboratory diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
    2. Enumerate the features and causes of acute inflammation. Describe in detail the cellular events in acute inflammation.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Granulomatous inflammation.
    2. Causes of hemolytic anemia
    3. Paraneoplastic syndromes
    4. Down’s syndrome
    5. Pathogenesis of septic shock
    6. Differences between benign and malignant tumour
    7. Bone marrow findings in megalobasltic anemia
    8. Amyloidosis
    9. Enumerate the components of Virchow’s triad.What are the fates of thrombus?
    10. Haemochromatosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
    2. Name the chemical tests done in serum and urine examination to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis.
    3. Indications for bone marrow aspiration
    4. Name transfusion transmitted diseases
    5. Principle of direct and indirect Coomb’s test. Mention the conditions where these will be positive.
    6. Principle and advantages of Hemoglobin estimation by Cyanmethemoglobin method.
    7. Name two stains used in cytology and their applications.
    8. Name tests to diagnose hemolysis
    9. Semen analysis & findings in a normal semen
    10. Anticoagulants used in hematology.

    1081 Pathology Paper  I        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – Dec – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (R52 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                  2 x 1❑ = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic Liver disease.
    2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                 1❑ x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
    2. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
    3. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
    4. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
    5. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
    6. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
    7. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Maligr,ant Melanoma.
    8. Carcinoid syndrome
    9. Grave’s disease
    10. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
    2. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
    3. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
    4. Types of Renal Calculi
    5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    6. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
    7. Cryptorchidism
    8. Causes of Hydronephrosis
    9. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
    10. Importance of Reid index

    1082 Pathology Paper II      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Thre::: Hqurs                                                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (R52 & R53 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Antieholinergics. Describe the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Atropine. (4±3+3)
    2. Describe mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines as sedative and hypnotic and discuss its adverse

    effects and uses.                                                                                         (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical significance of Plasma Protein binding
    2. Drug Synergism
    3. Uses and adverse effects of Calcium Channel Blockers
    4. Clonidine
    5. Nasal decongestants
    6. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Organic Nitrates
    7. Uses and adverse effects of Thrombolytics
    8. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
    9. Advantages and disadvantages of Nitrous Oxide Anaesthesia
    10. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Lignocaine

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Placebo
    2. Disadvantages of Fixed Dose combinations
    3. Mechanism of action of Pralidoxime
    4. Naloxone
    5. Uses of Valproic Acid
    6. Advantages of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
    7. Mention Parenteral Iron preparations.
    8. Baclofen
    9. Plasma half life
    10. Bile Acid Binding Resins

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I        Download

     

     

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)

    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What are the common characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics? Describe the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effect of gentamicin.
    2. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills. What instructions should be given to the patient regarding their wse?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine
    2. Third generation cephalosporins
    3. Albendazole
    4. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INN)
    5. Insulin preparations
    6. Non-sedative H1 receptor blockers
    7. Drug treatment of status asthmaticus
    8. Passive immunization
    9. Proton pump inhibitors
    10. Allopurinol

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What are advantages of Azithromycin over Erythromycin?
    2. Write the mechanism of action of Dapsone and write two adverse effects.
    3. What is the rationale for combining Clavulanic acid with Amoxycillin?
    4. What are advantages and disadvantages of radioactive iodine as an antithyroid drug?
    5. What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids on bones and skeletal muscles?
    6. List two indications for use of Cndansetron? What is its mechanism of action?
    7. Name two emollient laxatives. Give two indications and two adverse effects.
    8. List three topical antifungal agents and write three uses.
    9. Explain why Ergometrine can not be used for induction of labour.
    10. What are the indications for use of Vitamin C?

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II         Download

     

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