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  • RGUHS MBBS 3rd Year Part 2 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Third Year Part II Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

     

    RGUHS MBBS Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers

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    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  June

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Mention causes of liver Cirrhosis. Describe clinical features, investigations and management of Cirrhosis of Liver.
    2. Describe clinical features, diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma. Add a note on paraneoplastic

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Beriberi
    2. Treatment of Acute Falciparum Malaria
    3. Management of septic shock
    4. Complications of chronic pancreatitis
    5. Addison’s disease
    6. Criteria to diagnose Acute rheumatic fever
    7. Indications of lumbar puncture
    8. Clinical features of SLE
    9. Hypoglycemia
    10. Complications of blood transfusion

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Carbamezapine
    2. Modes of transmission of HIV
    3. Tension headache
    4. Three causes of chronic diarrhea
    5. Drugs in Anaphylaxis
    6. Lepra reaction
    7. Name three organ which can be transplanted
    8. Antidotes in poisoning
    9. Causes of fall in elderly patient
    10. Name members of multidisciplinary team.

    1093 General Medicine Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks               1`
    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Mark!

    1. Define heart failure. Describe the etiology, classification, clinical features, investigations and management of heart failure.
    2. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of typhoid fever (enteric fever).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Mark!

    1. Status epilepticus
    2. Pulmonary embolism.
    3. Ulcerative colitis.
    4. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
    5. Treatment of bronchial asthma.
    6. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
    7. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
    8. Schizophrenia.
    11.       Scabies.

    12.       Down syndrome.

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.       Erythropoietin.

    14.       Management of rheumatoid arthritis.

    15.       Dissociative (conversion) disorder.

    16.       Tumour markers.

    17.       Indications and complications of lumbar puncture.

    18.       Prophylactic therapy of migraine.

    19.       Opportunistic infections.

    20.       Newer methods of diagnosis of tuberculosis.

    21.       Mountain sickness.

    22.       Implantable cardioverter defibrillator

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Mark!

    1093 General Medicine Paper II Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University  Health sciences

    M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Exammation – June 2017

    Time 3 Hrs                                                                                                 [Max. Marks: 100:

    OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY – Paper – I
    (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Hydatidiform mole. Mention the clinical features and management of hydatidiform mole.
    2. Mention the classification of hypertension in pregnancy. Describe the clinical features and

    management of Eciampsia.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Pregnancy in Rh-negative woman and prevention of Rh-immunisation
    2. Mechanism of labour in face presentation.
    3. Describe the classification of Heart disease in pregnancy and management during labour.
    4. Management of second stage of labour
    5. Physiology of Lactation.
    6. Clinical features and management of septic abortion.
    7. Haematological changes occurring during pregnancy.
    8. Management of Iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy.
    9. Define Episiotomy and types. Describe mediolateral episiotomy and its complications.
    10. Post Caesarean pregnancy.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Amniotic fluid index.
    2. Antenatal visits recommended in each trimester.
    3. Moulding and its degrees.
    4. Prophylactic ergometrine.
    5. Twin reversal arterial perfusion (TRAP).
    6. Caput succedaneum.
    7. Craniotomy.
    8. Goodell’s sign and Osiander’s sign.
    9. Fetal axis pressure.
    10. Lowe:– Uterine segment.

    1093 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper I Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – July 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         

    1. Define dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What are the type and how will you diagnose an
      ovulatory DUB?
    2. A 55 yr old multipara, post menopausal women, came with foul smelling blood stained
      discharge since 1 month. What is your most probable diagnosis, investigation and
      management?                                                                                                    
    1. Theories of endometriosis
    2. IUCD
    3. Semen analysis
    4. Pruritis vulva
    5. Metrorrhagia
    6. Complications of Radiotherapy in Gynaecology
    7. PCOD
    8. Choriocarcinoma
    9. Causes of Primary amenorrhoea
    10. Pap smear
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.      Uses of progesterone

    14.      Basal body temperature

    15.      Clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome

    16.      Lymphatic drainage of cervix

    17.      Causes of dysmenorrhoea

    18.      Structure of graffian follicle

    19.      Luteal phase

    20.      Progesterone only pill

    21.      Anatomy of perineal body

    22.      Lymphatic drainage of uterus

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS And GYNAECOLOGY Paper II Download

     

     

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Colles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Pott’s spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Foot drop
    2. Thomas splint
    3. Non union
    4. Fracture disease

    10    Genu varum deformity

     

    1096 Orthopaedics Download

     

    (PART “” II), III Professional Exan- JUNE 2017

    Time: 3 Hrs.                                                                                          [Max. Marks: 100]

    PAEDIATRICS (RS2 & RS3)

    QP Code: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

    LONG ESSAY                                                                                                                          2 X 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What do you mean by the term growth? Write briefly about the changes in the parameters from birth to 5 years of age.
    2. Discuss approach towards a child who is 3 year old coming with haematuria and management of acute glomerular nephritis.

    SHORT ESSAY                                                                                                                        10 X 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Infant mortality rate.
    2. about Acute Diarrhoe3l Disease control programme.
    3. Kwashiorkor- clinical features & complications.
    4. Measles-clinical features, prevention.
    5. When do you suspect pathological jaundice in the neonate?
    6. Serology as an aid to diagnosis in Hepatitis B infection.
    7. Management of status epilepticus.
    8. Lab work up in a child with nutritional anemia.
    9. Symptoms and signs of VSD below 1 year of age.
    10. Prevention of mother to child transmission of HIV.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

    1. DPT vaccine “”constituents, type, schedule.
    2. When do you suspect severe pneumonia in a 10 month child? Write about the initial management.
    3. Clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism.
    4. Radiological features in rickets.
    5. Indications for work up of tuberculosis in a 2 year old child.
    6. Mention Apgar score criteria
    7. Enumerate the complications seen in a small for gestation age neonate.
    8. Criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.
    9. Breath holding spells.
    10. Urinary findings in Nephrotic syndrome.

    1092 Pediatrics Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University                   h Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Orthopaedics (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1096

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define CoIles fracture. Mention clinical features, management and complication of Colles fracture.
    2. What is Potts spine? Describe its various types. mention the management of Pott’s spine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                       3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Simple bone cyst
    2. Compartment syndrome
    3. Montteggia fracture dislocation

     

    SHORT ANSWERS

    6.     Foot drop

    7.     Thomas splint

    8.     Non union

    9.     Fracture disease

    10.   Genu varum deformity

    		 5 x 3 = 15 Marks

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

                                                                                                                                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY “” Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                        2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiopathogenesis of Biliary Calculi. Write about clinical features and management of Biliary Stones.
    2. Carcinoma Stomach – Etiopathogenesis, diagnosis and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Wilm’s tumor
    2. Achalasia Cardia
    3. Hydatid cyst of liver
    4. Retractile Testis
    5. Surgical Lobes of Liver
    6. Hyper splenism
    7. Iliocaecal tuberculosis
    8. Sub Diaphragmatic Abscess
    9. Ischio Rectal Abscess
    10. Principles of Laparoscopy
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Mention complications of inguinal hernia.

    14.    Types and causes of Intussusception

    15.    Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disease

    16.    Mention the indications for Circumcision.

    17.    Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.

    18.    Mention various types of abdominal incisions.

    19.    Pilinoidal Sinus

    20.    Solitary Rectal Ulcer

    21.    Ranson’s Score

    22.    Mention the symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Third Year Part II  December

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1093

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Tension Pneumothorax.
    2. Describe stages of HIV infecticin. Write briefly on highly active anti retroviral therapy (HAART).

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical features of Diabetic ketoacidosis
    2. Ankylosing spondylitis
    3. DOTS therapy in pulmonary tuberculosis
    4. Parenteral nutrition therapy
    5. Accelerated hypertension
    6. Routine urine examination
    7. Crohn’s disease
    8. Vitamin A deficiency
    9. Pacemaker in heart diseases
    10. Multiple myeloma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Drugs in thyrotoxicosis
    2. Features of sickle cell crisis
    3. Causes of bilateral pitting edema
    4. Systolic murmer in aortic area causes
    5. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
    6. Three drugs in status epilepticus
    7. Three indications of plasmapheresis
    8. Drugs used in Migraine
    9. Hypersplenism
    10. Treatment of Gout

    1093 General Medicine Paper I   Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                              Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    General Medicine – Paper-II

    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)

    CR Code: 1094

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Discuss causes, clinical features and investigations of Lung Abscess.
    2. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and laboratory findings of acute pancreatitis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Down syndrome
    2. Dementia in the elderly
    3. Erythema multiforme
    4. Kaposi sarcoma
    5. Delirium tremers
    6. Dermatomyositis
    7. Management of spontaneous pneumothorax
    8. MDR tuberculosis – management
    9. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    10. Lithium

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Uses of valproic acid
    2. Causes of urinary incontinence in the elderly
    3. Clinical features of Psoriasis
    4. Mention the laboratory tests for diagnosis of HIV infection.
    5. Lepra reaction
    6. Causes of methhaemoglobinemia
    7. Mention 3 causes of HIRSUTISM.
    8. Serological tests of syphilis
    9. Causes of central cyanosis
    10. Antiviral drugs for herpes infection

    1094 General Medicine Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Obstetrics and Gyneacology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1098

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define ante partum haemorrhage. Discuss the causes, clinical features, diagnosis and management of any one of it.
    2. Define PIH (Pregnancy induced hypertension). Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis, differential diagnosis and management of Eclampsia.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Management of third stage of labour
    2. HIV in pregnancy
    3. Parenteral iron therapy in anemia complicating pregnancy
    4. Complication of preterm baby
    5. Perineal tear
    6. Obstructed labour
    7. Forceps
    8. Polyhydramnios
    9. Asphyxia neonatorum
    10. Cervical incompetence SHORT ANSWERS X10 x 3 = 30 Marks
    11. Causes of maternal mortality
    12. Scar dehiscence
    13. Cephal haematoma
    14. Prophylactic Methergin
    15. Second pelvic grip
    16. Apgar scoring
    17. Antenatal visits
    18. Stages of labour
    19. Advantages of forceps over ventouse
    20. Baby friendly hospital

    1098 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper I      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination DEC 2017

    Time: Thiree Hours                                                                                                                                           Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY
    Paper-II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1099

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                            2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infertility. Causes and treatment of male infertility
    2. Define endometriosis. Aetiology, signs and symptoms and treatment of endometriosis

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hysteroscopy in gynaecology
    2. Prophylaxis against PID
    3. FIGO staging of endometrial carcinoma
    4. Fothergill’s operation
    5. Define dysmenorrhoea. Types of dysmenorrhoea and treatment
    6. Methods of female sterilization write about laparoscopic Tubectomy
    7. Aetiology of vesico-vaginal fistula
    8. Myomectomy and its complications
    9. Define puberty menorrhagia and its treatment
    10. Invasive mole
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Post coital contraception

    14.    Decubitus ulcer

    15.    Polymenorrhoea

    16.    Cryptomenorrhoea

    17.    Mini pill

    18.    Symptoms and signs of menopause

    19.    PCOD

    20.    Wertheim’s hysterectomy

    21.    Vault prolapse

    22.    Candidial vaginitis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1099 OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY Paper II        Download

     

     

    QP Code: 1096 “” Section B “” ORTHOPAEDICS [50 Marks] (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of gaint cell tumor.
    2. Describe the clinical features, radiological appearance and management of posterior dislocation of hip.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Osteotomy
    2. Haemophilic arthropathy
    3. Galleazzia fracture

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Synovial fluid
    2. Foot drop
    3. Malunion
    4. Marble bone disease
    5. Skin traction

    1096 ORTHOPAEDICS          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Paediatrics (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1092

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                         2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the parameters used to assess growth and outline the importance o_f growth charts
    2. IMNCI: components and role in reducing mortality in children

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                       10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Approach to a child with short stature
    2. Clinical features of rickets
    3. Classical features of Kwashiorkar
    4. Complications of tubercular meningitis
    5. Treatment of cerebral malaria
    6. Aetiology of respiratory distress in the newborn
    7. Recognition of neonatal sepsis
    8. Management of lactation failure
    9. Phenytoin sodium: indications and toxicity
    10. Classifications of cerebral palsy

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                   10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Clinical features of severe hyponatremic dehydration
    2. Peripheral smear examination in acute lymphatic leukemia
    3. Management of breath holding spells
    4. Diagnosis of systemic onset juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
    5. BCG vaccine
    6. Investigations in recurrent urinary tract infections
    7. Epiglottitis: aetiology and clinical features
    8. Contraindications for bag and mask ventilation during neonatal resuscitation
    9. Mid-arm circumference as an age independent anthropometric index
    10. Interpretation of Widal test

    1092 Paediatrics     Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    General Surgery (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1095

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is a venous ulcer? Describe in detail etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Varicose Veins in the Lower Limb.
    2. Classify thyroid neoplasms and describe in detail about the papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      3 x 5 = 15 Marks

    1. Marjolin’s Ulcer
    2. Thyroid storm
    3. Diffuse Axonal injury

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Hilton’s method of Drainage
    2. Ranula
    3. Venesection
    4. Erysipelas
    5. Spinal Anaesthesia

    1095 General Surgery        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                                                   Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    GENERAL SURGERY – Paper II

    (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)

    QP Code: 1097

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate the causes of Renal Calculi and its management.
    2. Carcinoma Rectum – pathology, clinical features and management

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Hypernephroma
    2. Seminoma testis
    3. Secondaries in liver
    4. Achalasia cardia
    5. Ischiorectal abscess
    6. Abdominal tuberculosis
    7. Appendicular mass
    8. Hirschsprung’s disease
    9. Sigmoid volvulus
    10. Management of gall stones

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Complications of inguinal hernia
    2. Ranson’s criteria
    3. Courvoisier’s Law
    4. Troisier’s Sign
    5. Mention causes of torsion testis
    6. Indications for circumcision
    7. Mention transilluminant swellings in the body.
    8. Reverse 3 sign
    9. Classify fistula-in-ano.
    10. Indications for Common Bile Duct (CBD) exploration

     

    1097 GENERAL SURGERY Paper II          Download

     

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  • RGUHS MBBS First Year 2017 Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS August And October 2017 First Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers First Year August

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper I (Revised Scheme II)
    Q.P. CODE: 1075

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                        2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the Shoulder Joint under the following headings:
    2. Formation
    3. Ligaments
    4. Movements and muscles causing them
    5. Nerve and blood supply
    6. Applied Anatomy
    7. Describe the gross features, relations, blood supply and applied Anatomy of Thyroid gland.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Broncho Pulmonary segments of Right Lung
    2. Sulci and Gyri of supero-lateral surface of Cerebrum
    3. Histology of Lymph Node
    4. Notochord
    5. Typical Intercostal Nerve
    6. Corpus Callosum
    7. Development of Palate
    8. Lymphatic drainage of Mammary gland
    9. Nasal Septum
    10. Lateral Pterygoid Muscle

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Anastomosis around the knee joint
    2. Perichondrium
    3. Red Nucleus
    4. Name the branches of External Carotid Artery.
    5. Ligamentum Denticulatum
    6. Prime Movers with examples
    7. Anatomical Snuff box
    8. Coronary Sinus
    9. Mention the Derivatives of Third Branchial Arch.
    10. Dorsal Digital Expansion of Hand

    1075 Anatomy Paper I            Download

     

    Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1076

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe Anal. Canal under following headings: (3+3+4)
    2. Gross Anatomy
    3. Development
    4. Applied Anatomy
    5. Describe Hip Joint under the following headings: (2+3+2+3)
    6. Formation and Ligaments
    7. Movements and Muscles producing the Movements
    8. Neurovascular supply
    9. Applied Anatomy

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Recto Uterine Pouch of Douglas
    2. Describe the Microscopic structure of Kidney.
    3. Development of Pancreas
    4. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    5. Superficial Perinea’ Pouch
    6. Boundaries and Defensive mechPnism of Inguinal Cana!
    7. Femoral Nerve
    8. Cruciate Ligaments of Knee Joint
    9. Cloaca
    10. Biceps Femoris Muscle
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    The Mesentery “” attachments and contents

    14.    Draw and label microscopic structure of Fallopian Tube.

    15.    Femoral Canal

    16.    Endometrium

    17.    Locking and unlocking of Knee Joint

    18.    Development of Extra Hepatic Biliary System

    19.    Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment with example

    20.    Thei moregulation of Testis

    21.    Vitellointestinal Duct

    22.    Prostatic Urethra

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1076 Anatomy Paper II          Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Biochemistry – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1079

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Describe the metabolism of Phenyl Alanine. Add a note on its inborn errors.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Glycogen storage disorders
    2. Define Isoenzymes. Describe its biomedical importance citing any three examples.
    3. Describe the Decarboxylation reactions of Amino acids with four examples. Give its significance.
    4. Define Detoxification. Give any four reactions of Phase II Detoxification.
    5. What is HMP Shunt? Give its significance.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                   5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Pellagra
    2. ketosis
    3. Components of Electron Transport Chain
    4. Hartnup’s disease
    5. Lipoproteins

    1079 Biochemistry Paper I           Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – AUG – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Discuss the process of protein biosynthesis. Name three inhibitors of protein biosynthesis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Describe heme synthesis and add a note.on its regulation.
    2. Describe recombinant DNA-technology. Mention its applications.
    3. Define biological value of protein. What do you mean by complementary proteins? Give What is the requirement of protein in diet?
    4. Define codon. What are the salient features of a genetic code?
    5. List any three trace elements with their biological function.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Mutagens,
    2. Okazaki fragments.
    3. Provitamins.
    4. Cel! cycle.
    5. Tests to assess renal tubular function

    1080 Biochemistry Paper II            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    PHSIOLOGY-PAPER I
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1077

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Name the important plasma proteins & explain their functions.
    2. Draw a labeled diagram of the conducting system of heart. Explain its importance

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Intercellular connections
    2. Timed vital capacity and its clinical significance
    3. Explain the pharyngeal phase of deglutition
    4. Classify Hypoxia. Explain any two of them
    5. Four functions of stomach
    6. Jugular Venous Pulse (J.V.P)
    7. Chloride shift
    8. Saliva
    9. Peculiarities of cerebral circulation
    10. Acidification of urine

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Explain exocytosis and endocytosis with an example for each
    2. Resting membrane potential
    3. Central cyanosis
    4. Cystometrogram
    5. List the factors influencing glomerular filtration rate
    6. Enumerate any two functions of juxtra glomerular apparatus
    7. Explain facilitated diffusion with an example
    8. Functions of T-Lymphocyte
    9. Functions of thrombocytes
    10. P R interval in ECG

    1077 Physiology Paper I        Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                         Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Physiology – Paper II (RS2 & R53)
    Q.P. CODE: 1078

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe any four functions of hypothalamus. Add a note on anorexia nervosa and hypothalamic
    2. Describe the endometrial changes during a normal menstrual cycle. Explain the role of different hormone in each phase. Add a note on tests for ovulation.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Accommodation reflex
    2. Aqueous humor
    3. Dark adaptation
    4. Complete transection of the spinal cord
    5. Differences between UMN and LMN lesions
    6. Functions of Oxytocin
    7. Functions of cortisol
    8. Functions of growth hormone
    9. Neuromuscular blocking agents
    10. Isotonic and isometric contraction in skeletal muscle
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.      List the hormones of placenta.

    14.      What is a Motor unit?

    15.      Mechanisms of heat loss

    16.      Define chronaxie and rheobase.

    17.      What is Endocochlear potentials?

    18.      List the Thyroid function tests.

    19.      What is Inverse-stretch reflex?

    20.      List the functions of Aldosterone.

    21.      List the Endocrine functions of testis.

    22.      What is Addison’s disease?

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1078 Physiology Paper II           Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers First Year October

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three H( sirs                                                                                                   Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper I (Revised Scheme II)
    Q.P. CODE: 1075

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the Extraocular Muscles and discuss the movements of Eye Ball.
    2. Describe the Blood supply of Heart with development of Interatrial Septum.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Carotid Sheath
    2. Microscopic structure of Trachea
    3. Superior Colliculus
    4. Third Ventricle
    5. Lymphatic drainage of Breast
    6. Superior Mediastinum
    7. Implantation
    8. Pectoralis Minor
    9. Otic ganglion
    10. Rhomboideus Major Muscle

     

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.   Frontal Sinus

    14.   Chordae Tendinae

    15.   Radial Nerve in Spiral Groove

    16.   Cephalic Vein

    17.   Sclerotome

    18.   Lung root

    19.   Nasion

    20.   Facial Vein

    21.   Spiral Septum

    22.   Draw a neat labeled diagram of Histology of Thymus.

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1075 Anatomy Paper I         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three H-lurs                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1076

    vrlur answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                             2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe boundaries and contents of Inguinal Canal. Add a note on its clinical importance. (3+3+4)
    2. Enumerate structures under cover of Gluteus Maximus. Describe in detail Sciatic Nerve and its

    applied Anatomy.                                                                                                 (4+3+3)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Adductor Canal
    2. Portocaval Anastomosis
    3. Perineal Membrane
    4. Describe the Microscopic structure of Liver.
    5. Development of Kidney
    6. Supports of Uterus
    7. Karyotyping
    8. Lesser Sac
    9. Dorsalis Pedis Artery
    10. Development of Pancreas

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Chromosome
    2. Positions of Appendix
    3. Trigone of Urinary Bladder
    4. Contents of Superficial Perineal Pouch
    5. Femoral Canal
    6. Cruciate Ligaments
    7. Boundaries and contents of Popliteal Fossa
    8. Draw and label microscopic structure of Testis.
    9. Derivatives of Foregut
    10. Development of Spleen

    1076 Anatomy Paper II         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Describe the reactions of glycolysis indicating the enzymes. Add a note on net yield of ATP uncle’

    aerobic and anaerobic conditions.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Describe the fate and formation of glycine. List four compounds formed from glycine.
    2. What are isoenzymes? Explain the clinical significance giving two
    3. What are nitrogen-producing substances in the body? Explain how they are excreted from the bod y.
    4. Describe the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.
    5. Name the ring structure present in cholesterol. Write the key regulatory step in the synthesis of Name four compounds derived from cholesterol.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 5 x 3 = 15 Mark$

    1. Detoxification.
    2. Chemiosmotic hypothesis.
    3. Von Gierkes disease.
    4. Multi enzyme complex.
    5. Rappaport-Leubring cycle.

    1079 Biochemistry Paper I         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time Three Hours                                                                                                       Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Biochemistry – Paper II (R52 & R53)
    Q.P. CODE: 1080

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. What are the sources, functions, deficiency manifestations and daily-recommended allowance of Thiamine?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                       5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Define Point Mutation. Explain the effects of Point Mutation.
    2. Briefly explain the Lac Operon concept.
    3. Discuss the features of Genetic Code.
    4. Discuss the regulation of Water by Rennin-Angiotensin system.
    5. What is Wilson’s disease? State the cause and the treatment policy.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                   5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Hypoalbuminemia
    2. What are DNA probes? Mention the types of DNA probes.
    3. Describe how Plasma Proteins are separated in the Clinical laboratory.
    4. Discuss the nutritional role of Milk and Dairy products.
    5. Discuss the role of Carbonic Anhydrase in the Acid Base regulation.

    1080 Biochemistry Paper II          Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Physiology – I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1077

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                            2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe in detail the digestion and absorption of fats. Add a note on Steatorrhea.
    2. Describe the leads of ECG, various waves, intervals and segments of a normal ECG

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Factors affecting Venous return
    2. Functions of Gastric juice secretion
    3. Mismatched Blood transfusion reactions
    4. Functions of Reticulo – endothelial system
    5. Functions of T-Iymphocytes
    6. Counter current multiplier system in kidney
    7. Cystometrogram
    8. Lung compliance
    9. Locations and functions of centres of respiration
    10. Explain dyspnoea and apnoea with examples.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                      10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What is the physiological basis of Autorhythmicity?
    2. Define Frank-Starling’s law.
    3. What is the normal platelet count? Give two functions of platelets.
    4. List the functions of Neutrophils
    5. What are Chylomicrons? What are their functions?
    6. Secondary active transport
    7. Name the buffers of renal tubules.
    8. Sinus arrhythmia
    9. List three functions of saliva.
    10. What is Ventilation : Perfusion ratio (VA/Q)? Give its normal value.

    1077 Physiology Paper I        Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    PHSIOLOGY-PAPER II
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1078

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Mark5

    1. Classify receptors. Explain their properties.
    2. Describe the physiological actions & regulation of secretion of aldosterone.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Mark.

    1. Functions of semicircular canals.
    2. Describe the effects of cerebellar lesion.
    3. Explain the effect of lesion of a) dorsal nerve root, b).upper motor neuron on muscle tone
    4. Give the source, target organs and actions of ‘Follicle Stimulating Hormone’
    5. Functions of middle ear
    6. How the speech of a person is affected with a lesion in Vernicke’s area’
    7. Explain the electrical changes and ionic basis of different phases of a nerve action potential.
    8. Regulation of thyroid hormones
    9. Importance of maintaining normal intraocular pressure.
    10. Explain the regulation of secretion of Anti diuretic hormone

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Mark5

    1. Explain the image formation & the method of its correction in hypermetropia with the help of a diagram.
    2. Enumerate the factors affecting spermatogenesis.
    3. Indicators of ovulation
    4. Name the primary taste sensations. Explain the mechanism of perception of an’y one taste
    5. Functions of Sertoli cells
    6. Electromyogram (EMG)
    7. Eccrine sweat glands.
    8. Differences between skeletal muscle and smooth muscle
    9. Dwarfism
    10. Motor homunculus

     

    1078 Physiology Paper II        Download

     

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