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  • RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2017 June And December Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS June And December 2017 Second Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year June

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination –

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                        Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Forensic Medicine (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1087

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define infanticide. Describe methods usually adopted for carrying out infanticide. Add a note on macerated fetus.
    2. Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between ante mortem and post mortem burns? What are the causes of death due to burns?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Treatment of oxalic acid poisoning
    2. Chronic mercurial poisoning
    3. Narcoanalysis
    4. Botulism
    5. Hallucination
    6. Blood groups and medico legal importance
    7. Management of snake bite
    8. Judicial hanging
    9. Coup and Counter coup injury
    10. Res ipsa loquitor

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Impulse
    2. Conduct money
    3. Juvenile court
    4. Suspended animation
    5. Foot prints
    6. Negative autopsy
    7. Pseudo virgin
    8. Tribadism
    9. Euthanasia
    10. Locoparentis

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Enumerate Parasites found is–, Blood Describe life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum. (3+7)
    2. Enumerate Hepatitis Viruses Describe morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B Virus. (3+2+2+3)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Cryptococcus neoformans
    2. Immunoprophylaxis of Rabies
    3. Hydatid cyst
    4. Mycetoma
    5. Interferons
    6. Cultivation of Viruses
    7. Concentration methods for Stool
    8. Dermatophytes
    9. Japanese Encephalitis
    10. Giardia lamblia

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Classification of Fungi
    2. Oral thrush
    3. Antigenic shift and drift
    4. Structure of HIV
    5. Fungal slide culture
    6. Inclusion body
    7. Rhinosporidiosis
    8. NIH Swab
    9. Cysticercus Cellulosae
    10. Difference between Amoebic and Bacillary Dysentery

    1084 Microbiology Paper II            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define Infection. Name the different types of Infection. Describe sources of Infection. (1+3+6)
    2. Enumerate the organisms causing Pyogenic meningitis. Describe in detail pathogenesis and

    laboratory diagnosis of Meningococcal meningitis. (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Plasmid
    2. Autoimmunity
    3. Precipitation reactions
    4. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    5. Methods of Anaerobiosis
    6. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    7. Standard tests for Syphilis
    8. Lepromin test
    9. Bacterial Spore
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Typhoid fever
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Heterophile Antigen

    14.    Differences between El Tor and Classical Vibrio

    15.    Classification of Staphylococci

    16.    Prevention of Tetanus

    17.    Draw a neat labeled diagram of IgM

    18.    Electron Microscope

    19.    Methods of obtaining pure culture of Bacteria

    20.    Selective Media

    21.    Significant Bacteriuria

    22. Non-suppurative infections of Streptococcus pyogenes *lc***

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – II Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                      Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What is Metastasis? Describe the pathways of spread of tumours. Describe the mechanism of

    Cancer Metastasis.                                                                                          (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    1. A 58 years old pure vegetarian male presented with Pallor, weakness, red baldy tongue and
      numbness in the fingers. His Hb was 8gm°/13 and MCV was 11011.
    2. What is your diagnosis and why?
    3. What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition?
    4. What are the laboratory findings in such cases? (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Types of Necrosis with examples
    2. Laboratory findings in Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)
    3. Role of Complements in Inflammation
    4. Vitamin C deficiency
    5. Laboratory diagnosis of Genetic diseases
    6. Bone Marrow Aspiration study
    7. Pathogenesis of Thrombosis
    8. Leukemoid reaction

    11,       Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology

    1. Klinefelter syndrome

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Give three examples for Free Radicals and Antioxidants.
    2. Diagnostic criteria for Multiple Myeloma
    3. Cardinal signs of Inflammation
    4. Causes for Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia
    5. Cytological findings in Malignant Pleural Effusion
    6. Basophilia
    7. Target cells
    8. Name different Cancers associated with Chronic Alcoholism.
    9. Special (Cytochemical) stains used in Acute Leukemias
    10. Give two examples each for different Mendelian Inheritance.

    1081 Pathology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Cycindili Universitv of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – JUNE 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    You answers shout be specific to the questons asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Ovarian tumours. Describe the pathology of Papillary Serous Cyst-adenocarcinoma of

    Ovary. (2+8)

    1. A 10 year old boy developed Migratory Arthritis of Large Joints and features of Pancarditis, after 10

    days, following episode of Pharyngitis.

    1. What is the probable diagnosis?
    2. Describe the etiopathogenesis of underlying disorder. (2+8)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Gastric Carcinoma
    2. Alcoholic Liver disease
    3. Bronchial Asthma
    4. Germ Cell tumours of Ovary
    5. Complications of Gall Stones
    6. Thyrotoxicosis
    7. Intestinal Amoebiasis
    8. Lung Abscess
    9. Premalignant Lesions of Squarnous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
    10. Pyogenic Meningitis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

    14.    Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid

    15.    Kidney changes in Malignant Hypertension

    16.    Classification of Hodgkin’s disease

    17.    Causes for Splenomegaly

    18.    Phaeochromocytoma

    19.    Colloid Goitre

    20.    Fibroadenoma – Breast

    21.    Leiomyoma – Uterus

    22.    Scar Endometriosis

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1082 Pathology Paper II          Download

     JUNE 2017

    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                           2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify sympathomimetics Describe the cardiovascular actions and therapeutic uses of
    2. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of phenytoin sodium. Mention newer antiepileptic drugs.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Enzyme induction and its clinical significance
    2. Transdermal route of drug administration
    3. Treatment of Organophosphorus poisoning
    4. Uses of alpha adrenergic blockers
    5. Mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Ramipril
    6. Mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of Furosemide
    7. Fibrinolytic drugs
    8. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of morphine
    9. Clonidine
    10. Factors modifying drug action

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                           x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Three differences between Barbiturates and Benzodiazepines
    2. Succinyl choline
    3. Atropine substitutes
    4. Mention six uses of anti-platelet drugs_
    5. Name three uses of verapamil.
    6. Treatment of paracetamol poisoning
    7. Explain the pharmacological basis for combining Carbidopa with Levodopa.
    8. Six uses of centrally acting muscle relaxants
    9. Rosuvastatin
    10. Treatment of cardiogenic shock

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – June 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the antibacterial spectrum, mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
    2. Classify antithyroid drugs. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of (a) Carbimazole, (b) Radioactive Iodine.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aminopenicillins
    2. Therapeutic uses of Metronidazole
    3. Drug treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria
    4. Griseofulvin
    5. Metformin
    6. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)
    7. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of H1 blockers
    8. Sodium chromoglycate
    9. Bulk purgatives
    10. Oxytocics

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Explain why chloroquine is effective in extra-intestinal amoebiasis but not effective in intestinal amoebiasis.
    2. What are adverse effects of aminoglycosides?
    3. Why ethambutol is not used in children below six years?
    4. Name two centrally acting cough suppressants. Why they are not used in a patient having productive cough?
    5. Explain how Sucralfate acts. Can it be used along with antacids? Give reason.
    6. Enumerate therapeutic uses of prostaglandins.
    7. What are indications for use of Dimercaprol? Where is it contraindicated?
    8. Name two uricosuric drugs. How do they produce uricosuric effect?
    9. How does Metoclopramide produce its antiemetic effect? What is its central toxicity?
    10. Explain the terms ‘Antiseptic’ and ‘Disinfectant’ with examples.

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II           Download

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers Second Year December

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    M.B.B.S. PHASE II Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    FORENSIC MEDICINE
    (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1087

    answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define live birth. Explain the various signs of live birth.
    2. Describe the clinical features and treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Morphine poisoning
    2. Hydrochloric acid poisoning
    3. Delusion
    4. McNaughten’s rule
    5. Consent
    6. Police inquest
    7. Postmortem lividity
    8. Laceration
    9. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
    10. Dowry deaths

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                     10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Spectroscopy
    2. Direct examination
    3. Types of witnesses
    4. Scars
    5. Pathological postmortem examination
    6. Rifling
    7. Lynching
    8. Bansdola
    9. Masochism
    10. Sterility

    1087 Forensic Medicine             Download

     

    MBES (Phase – 11) Degree Examination – DEC-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Microbiology – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1083

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and Classify Culture Media with examples. (5+5)
    2. Define Immunoglobulin. Describe structure and function of the five classes of Immunoglobulins.

    (2+4+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Bacterial Capsule
    2. Enumerate organisms commonly causing Hospital Acquired infections.
    3. Mechanisms of Innate Immunity
    4. Precipitation reactions.
    5. Classify and enumerate Immunodeficiency diseases.
    6. Enumerate Lesions produced by Neisseria Gonorrhoea.
    7. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene
    8. Classification of Chlamydia
    9. Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Pulmonary Tuberculosis
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    Non specific serological test for Syphilis

    14.    Laboratory diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever

    15.    Halophilic Vibrios

    16.    Methods to prevent Swarming of Proteus Species

    17.    Bacterial Zoonoses

    18.    Elek’s gel precipitation test

    19.    Hot Air Oven

    20.    Transposons (Jumping Genes)

    21.    Labelled diagram of Bacterial Growth Curve

    22.    Principle and uses of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

     

    1083 Microbiology Paper I          Download

     

    –

    Max, Marks: 100 Marks

    MICROBIOLOGY -Paper -II
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1084

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the morphology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of HIV. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)
    2. Enumerate Hemoparasites. Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium vivax. (2+4+4 = 10 marks)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                         10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Aspergillosis
    2. Hydatld cyst
    3. Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B infection
    4. Viral Inclusion Bodies
    5. Free Living Amoebae
    6. Cryptococcosis
    7. Delhi Boil
    8. Laboratory diagnosis of Rabies
    9. Life cycle of Trichuris trichiura
    10. Otomycosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Baiantidium coli
    2. Sabouraud’s Dextrose Agar (SDA)
    3. Clinical manifestations of Rhinosporidiosis
    4. Serological tests for Kala-Azar
    5. Casoni’s test
    6. Chyluria
    7. Enumerate three Oncogenic viruses.
    8. Lassa fever
    9. Draw a neatly labelled diagram of a Bacteriophage.
    10. Laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

    1084 Microbiology Paper II         Download

     

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology-Paper -I

    (RS2 & R53 SCHEME)

    QP Code: 1081

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                    2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify leukemias. Discuss the clinical manifestations and Laboratory diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
    2. Enumerate the features and causes of acute inflammation. Describe in detail the cellular events in acute inflammation.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                  10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Granulomatous inflammation.
    2. Causes of hemolytic anemia
    3. Paraneoplastic syndromes
    4. Down’s syndrome
    5. Pathogenesis of septic shock
    6. Differences between benign and malignant tumour
    7. Bone marrow findings in megalobasltic anemia
    8. Amyloidosis
    9. Enumerate the components of Virchow’s triad.What are the fates of thrombus?
    10. Haemochromatosis

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                              10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
    2. Name the chemical tests done in serum and urine examination to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis.
    3. Indications for bone marrow aspiration
    4. Name transfusion transmitted diseases
    5. Principle of direct and indirect Coomb’s test. Mention the conditions where these will be positive.
    6. Principle and advantages of Hemoglobin estimation by Cyanmethemoglobin method.
    7. Name two stains used in cytology and their applications.
    8. Name tests to diagnose hemolysis
    9. Semen analysis & findings in a normal semen
    10. Anticoagulants used in hematology.

    1081 Pathology Paper  I        Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – Dec – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                    Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pathology – Paper II (R52 & RS3 Scheme)

    Q.P. CODE: 1082

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                  2 x 1❑ = 20 Marks

    1. Define and classify Cirrhosis. Describe the morphological features and complications of Alcoholic Liver disease.
    2. Classify tumours of Breast. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology of Infiltrating Duct

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                 1❑ x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Features and complications of Fallot’s Tetralogy
    2. Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis
    3. Morphology of Pleomorphic Adenoma
    4. Role of Helicobacter Pylori in Gastric Ulcer
    5. Pathogenesis and morphology of Crohn’s disease
    6. Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
    7. Discuss in brief etiopathogenesis of Maligr,ant Melanoma.
    8. Carcinoid syndrome
    9. Grave’s disease
    10. Pathogenesis, morphology and radiological features of Osteoclastoma

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Morphology of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia
    2. Gross and microscopic features of Dysgerminoma
    3. Tubercular Osteomyelitis
    4. Types of Renal Calculi
    5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
    6. Role of HbA1C estimation in Diabetes
    7. Cryptorchidism
    8. Causes of Hydronephrosis
    9. Leukoplakia of Oral Cavity
    10. Importance of Reid index

    1082 Pathology Paper II      Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Thre::: Hqurs                                                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper I (R52 & R53 Scheme)
    Q.P. CODE: 1085

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Classify Antieholinergics. Describe the therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Atropine. (4±3+3)
    2. Describe mechanism of action of Benzodiazepines as sedative and hypnotic and discuss its adverse

    effects and uses.                                                                                         (3+3+4)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Clinical significance of Plasma Protein binding
    2. Drug Synergism
    3. Uses and adverse effects of Calcium Channel Blockers
    4. Clonidine
    5. Nasal decongestants
    6. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Organic Nitrates
    7. Uses and adverse effects of Thrombolytics
    8. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
    9. Advantages and disadvantages of Nitrous Oxide Anaesthesia
    10. Mechanism of action and adverse effects of Lignocaine

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Placebo
    2. Disadvantages of Fixed Dose combinations
    3. Mechanism of action of Pralidoxime
    4. Naloxone
    5. Uses of Valproic Acid
    6. Advantages of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
    7. Mention Parenteral Iron preparations.
    8. Baclofen
    9. Plasma half life
    10. Bile Acid Binding Resins

    1085 Pharmacology Paper I        Download

     

     

    MBBS (Phase – II) Degree Examination – DEC 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                            Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Pharmacology – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)

    Q.P. CODE: 1086

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. What are the common characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics? Describe the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses and adverse effect of gentamicin.
    2. Describe the mechanism of action and adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills. What instructions should be given to the patient regarding their wse?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of chloroquine
    2. Third generation cephalosporins
    3. Albendazole
    4. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INN)
    5. Insulin preparations
    6. Non-sedative H1 receptor blockers
    7. Drug treatment of status asthmaticus
    8. Passive immunization
    9. Proton pump inhibitors
    10. Allopurinol

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What are advantages of Azithromycin over Erythromycin?
    2. Write the mechanism of action of Dapsone and write two adverse effects.
    3. What is the rationale for combining Clavulanic acid with Amoxycillin?
    4. What are advantages and disadvantages of radioactive iodine as an antithyroid drug?
    5. What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids on bones and skeletal muscles?
    6. List two indications for use of Cndansetron? What is its mechanism of action?
    7. Name two emollient laxatives. Give two indications and two adverse effects.
    8. List three topical antifungal agents and write three uses.
    9. Explain why Ergometrine can not be used for induction of labour.
    10. What are the indications for use of Vitamin C?

    1086 Pharmacology Paper II         Download

     

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  • RGUHS MBBS First Year 2017 Question Papers

    We uploaded RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences ) MBBS August And October 2017 First Year Question Papers. These papers are useful to all the Medical colleges which are affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences.

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers First Year August

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper I (Revised Scheme II)
    Q.P. CODE: 1075

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                        2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the Shoulder Joint under the following headings:
    2. Formation
    3. Ligaments
    4. Movements and muscles causing them
    5. Nerve and blood supply
    6. Applied Anatomy
    7. Describe the gross features, relations, blood supply and applied Anatomy of Thyroid gland.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Broncho Pulmonary segments of Right Lung
    2. Sulci and Gyri of supero-lateral surface of Cerebrum
    3. Histology of Lymph Node
    4. Notochord
    5. Typical Intercostal Nerve
    6. Corpus Callosum
    7. Development of Palate
    8. Lymphatic drainage of Mammary gland
    9. Nasal Septum
    10. Lateral Pterygoid Muscle

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Anastomosis around the knee joint
    2. Perichondrium
    3. Red Nucleus
    4. Name the branches of External Carotid Artery.
    5. Ligamentum Denticulatum
    6. Prime Movers with examples
    7. Anatomical Snuff box
    8. Coronary Sinus
    9. Mention the Derivatives of Third Branchial Arch.
    10. Dorsal Digital Expansion of Hand

    1075 Anatomy Paper I            Download

     

    Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1076

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe Anal. Canal under following headings: (3+3+4)
    2. Gross Anatomy
    3. Development
    4. Applied Anatomy
    5. Describe Hip Joint under the following headings: (2+3+2+3)
    6. Formation and Ligaments
    7. Movements and Muscles producing the Movements
    8. Neurovascular supply
    9. Applied Anatomy

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Recto Uterine Pouch of Douglas
    2. Describe the Microscopic structure of Kidney.
    3. Development of Pancreas
    4. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    5. Superficial Perinea’ Pouch
    6. Boundaries and Defensive mechPnism of Inguinal Cana!
    7. Femoral Nerve
    8. Cruciate Ligaments of Knee Joint
    9. Cloaca
    10. Biceps Femoris Muscle
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.    The Mesentery “” attachments and contents

    14.    Draw and label microscopic structure of Fallopian Tube.

    15.    Femoral Canal

    16.    Endometrium

    17.    Locking and unlocking of Knee Joint

    18.    Development of Extra Hepatic Biliary System

    19.    Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment with example

    20.    Thei moregulation of Testis

    21.    Vitellointestinal Duct

    22.    Prostatic Urethra

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1076 Anatomy Paper II          Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                                     Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Biochemistry – Paper I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1079

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Describe the metabolism of Phenyl Alanine. Add a note on its inborn errors.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Glycogen storage disorders
    2. Define Isoenzymes. Describe its biomedical importance citing any three examples.
    3. Describe the Decarboxylation reactions of Amino acids with four examples. Give its significance.
    4. Define Detoxification. Give any four reactions of Phase II Detoxification.
    5. What is HMP Shunt? Give its significance.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                   5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Pellagra
    2. ketosis
    3. Components of Electron Transport Chain
    4. Hartnup’s disease
    5. Lipoproteins

    1079 Biochemistry Paper I           Download

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – AUG – 2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1080 – Paper II (Max.Marks:50)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Discuss the process of protein biosynthesis. Name three inhibitors of protein biosynthesis.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                      5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Describe heme synthesis and add a note.on its regulation.
    2. Describe recombinant DNA-technology. Mention its applications.
    3. Define biological value of protein. What do you mean by complementary proteins? Give What is the requirement of protein in diet?
    4. Define codon. What are the salient features of a genetic code?
    5. List any three trace elements with their biological function.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                  5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Mutagens,
    2. Okazaki fragments.
    3. Provitamins.
    4. Cel! cycle.
    5. Tests to assess renal tubular function

    1080 Biochemistry Paper II            Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                  Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    PHSIOLOGY-PAPER I
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1077

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Name the important plasma proteins & explain their functions.
    2. Draw a labeled diagram of the conducting system of heart. Explain its importance

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                   10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Intercellular connections
    2. Timed vital capacity and its clinical significance
    3. Explain the pharyngeal phase of deglutition
    4. Classify Hypoxia. Explain any two of them
    5. Four functions of stomach
    6. Jugular Venous Pulse (J.V.P)
    7. Chloride shift
    8. Saliva
    9. Peculiarities of cerebral circulation
    10. Acidification of urine

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Explain exocytosis and endocytosis with an example for each
    2. Resting membrane potential
    3. Central cyanosis
    4. Cystometrogram
    5. List the factors influencing glomerular filtration rate
    6. Enumerate any two functions of juxtra glomerular apparatus
    7. Explain facilitated diffusion with an example
    8. Functions of T-Lymphocyte
    9. Functions of thrombocytes
    10. P R interval in ECG

    1077 Physiology Paper I        Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – AUG-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                         Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Physiology – Paper II (RS2 & R53)
    Q.P. CODE: 1078

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                          2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe any four functions of hypothalamus. Add a note on anorexia nervosa and hypothalamic
    2. Describe the endometrial changes during a normal menstrual cycle. Explain the role of different hormone in each phase. Add a note on tests for ovulation.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                        10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Accommodation reflex
    2. Aqueous humor
    3. Dark adaptation
    4. Complete transection of the spinal cord
    5. Differences between UMN and LMN lesions
    6. Functions of Oxytocin
    7. Functions of cortisol
    8. Functions of growth hormone
    9. Neuromuscular blocking agents
    10. Isotonic and isometric contraction in skeletal muscle
    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.      List the hormones of placenta.

    14.      What is a Motor unit?

    15.      Mechanisms of heat loss

    16.      Define chronaxie and rheobase.

    17.      What is Endocochlear potentials?

    18.      List the Thyroid function tests.

    19.      What is Inverse-stretch reflex?

    20.      List the functions of Aldosterone.

    21.      List the Endocrine functions of testis.

    22.      What is Addison’s disease?

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1078 Physiology Paper II           Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences MBBS 2017 Question Papers First Year October

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three H( sirs                                                                                                   Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper I (Revised Scheme II)
    Q.P. CODE: 1075

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe the Extraocular Muscles and discuss the movements of Eye Ball.
    2. Describe the Blood supply of Heart with development of Interatrial Septum.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                    10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Carotid Sheath
    2. Microscopic structure of Trachea
    3. Superior Colliculus
    4. Third Ventricle
    5. Lymphatic drainage of Breast
    6. Superior Mediastinum
    7. Implantation
    8. Pectoralis Minor
    9. Otic ganglion
    10. Rhomboideus Major Muscle

     

    SHORT ANSWERS

    13.   Frontal Sinus

    14.   Chordae Tendinae

    15.   Radial Nerve in Spiral Groove

    16.   Cephalic Vein

    17.   Sclerotome

    18.   Lung root

    19.   Nasion

    20.   Facial Vein

    21.   Spiral Septum

    22.   Draw a neat labeled diagram of Histology of Thymus.

    		 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1075 Anatomy Paper I         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three H-lurs                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Anatomy – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1076

    vrlur answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                             2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe boundaries and contents of Inguinal Canal. Add a note on its clinical importance. (3+3+4)
    2. Enumerate structures under cover of Gluteus Maximus. Describe in detail Sciatic Nerve and its

    applied Anatomy.                                                                                                 (4+3+3)

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Adductor Canal
    2. Portocaval Anastomosis
    3. Perineal Membrane
    4. Describe the Microscopic structure of Liver.
    5. Development of Kidney
    6. Supports of Uterus
    7. Karyotyping
    8. Lesser Sac
    9. Dorsalis Pedis Artery
    10. Development of Pancreas

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. Chromosome
    2. Positions of Appendix
    3. Trigone of Urinary Bladder
    4. Contents of Superficial Perineal Pouch
    5. Femoral Canal
    6. Cruciate Ligaments
    7. Boundaries and contents of Popliteal Fossa
    8. Draw and label microscopic structure of Testis.
    9. Derivatives of Foregut
    10. Development of Spleen

    1076 Anatomy Paper II         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    BIOCHEMISTRY (RS2 & RS3)
    QP Code: 1079 – Paper I (Max.Marks:50)

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    Use separate answer books for section A and Section B

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                     1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. Describe the reactions of glycolysis indicating the enzymes. Add a note on net yield of ATP uncle’

    aerobic and anaerobic conditions.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Describe the fate and formation of glycine. List four compounds formed from glycine.
    2. What are isoenzymes? Explain the clinical significance giving two
    3. What are nitrogen-producing substances in the body? Explain how they are excreted from the bod y.
    4. Describe the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.
    5. Name the ring structure present in cholesterol. Write the key regulatory step in the synthesis of Name four compounds derived from cholesterol.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 5 x 3 = 15 Mark$

    1. Detoxification.
    2. Chemiosmotic hypothesis.
    3. Von Gierkes disease.
    4. Multi enzyme complex.
    5. Rappaport-Leubring cycle.

    1079 Biochemistry Paper I         Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time Three Hours                                                                                                       Max. Marks: 50 Marks

    Biochemistry – Paper II (R52 & R53)
    Q.P. CODE: 1080

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
    (Note: Both QP Codes 1079 and 1080 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
    (Use separate Answer books for QP Code 1079 & 1080)

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                      1 x 10 = 10 Marks

    1. What are the sources, functions, deficiency manifestations and daily-recommended allowance of Thiamine?

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                       5 x 5 = 25 Marks

    1. Define Point Mutation. Explain the effects of Point Mutation.
    2. Briefly explain the Lac Operon concept.
    3. Discuss the features of Genetic Code.
    4. Discuss the regulation of Water by Rennin-Angiotensin system.
    5. What is Wilson’s disease? State the cause and the treatment policy.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                   5 x 3 = 15 Marks

    1. Hypoalbuminemia
    2. What are DNA probes? Mention the types of DNA probes.
    3. Describe how Plasma Proteins are separated in the Clinical laboratory.
    4. Discuss the nutritional role of Milk and Dairy products.
    5. Discuss the role of Carbonic Anhydrase in the Acid Base regulation.

    1080 Biochemistry Paper II          Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    MBBS Phase – I Degree Examination OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                             Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    Physiology – I (RS2 & RS3)
    Q.P. CODE: 1077

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                            2 x 10 = 20 Marks

    1. Describe in detail the digestion and absorption of fats. Add a note on Steatorrhea.
    2. Describe the leads of ECG, various waves, intervals and segments of a normal ECG

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                          10 x 5 = 50 Marks

    1. Factors affecting Venous return
    2. Functions of Gastric juice secretion
    3. Mismatched Blood transfusion reactions
    4. Functions of Reticulo – endothelial system
    5. Functions of T-Iymphocytes
    6. Counter current multiplier system in kidney
    7. Cystometrogram
    8. Lung compliance
    9. Locations and functions of centres of respiration
    10. Explain dyspnoea and apnoea with examples.

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                      10 x 3 = 30 Marks

    1. What is the physiological basis of Autorhythmicity?
    2. Define Frank-Starling’s law.
    3. What is the normal platelet count? Give two functions of platelets.
    4. List the functions of Neutrophils
    5. What are Chylomicrons? What are their functions?
    6. Secondary active transport
    7. Name the buffers of renal tubules.
    8. Sinus arrhythmia
    9. List three functions of saliva.
    10. What is Ventilation : Perfusion ratio (VA/Q)? Give its normal value.

    1077 Physiology Paper I        Download

     

     

    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

    First Phase MBBS Degree Examination – OCT-2017

    Time: Three Hours                                                                                 Max. Marks: 100 Marks

    PHSIOLOGY-PAPER II
    (RS2 & RS3 SCHEME)
    QP Code: 1078

    Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
    Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

    LONG ESSAYS                                                                                                                       2 x 10 = 20 Mark5

    1. Classify receptors. Explain their properties.
    2. Describe the physiological actions & regulation of secretion of aldosterone.

    SHORT ESSAYS                                                                                                                     10 x 5 = 50 Mark.

    1. Functions of semicircular canals.
    2. Describe the effects of cerebellar lesion.
    3. Explain the effect of lesion of a) dorsal nerve root, b).upper motor neuron on muscle tone
    4. Give the source, target organs and actions of ‘Follicle Stimulating Hormone’
    5. Functions of middle ear
    6. How the speech of a person is affected with a lesion in Vernicke’s area’
    7. Explain the electrical changes and ionic basis of different phases of a nerve action potential.
    8. Regulation of thyroid hormones
    9. Importance of maintaining normal intraocular pressure.
    10. Explain the regulation of secretion of Anti diuretic hormone

    SHORT ANSWERS                                                                                                                 10 x 3 = 30 Mark5

    1. Explain the image formation & the method of its correction in hypermetropia with the help of a diagram.
    2. Enumerate the factors affecting spermatogenesis.
    3. Indicators of ovulation
    4. Name the primary taste sensations. Explain the mechanism of perception of an’y one taste
    5. Functions of Sertoli cells
    6. Electromyogram (EMG)
    7. Eccrine sweat glands.
    8. Differences between skeletal muscle and smooth muscle
    9. Dwarfism
    10. Motor homunculus

     

    1078 Physiology Paper II        Download

     

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