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  • BPT 2019 Spetember Question Papers (Bachelor of Physio Therapy) – 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th year

    We uploaded all BPT (Bachelor of Physio Therapy) -First,Second,Third And Fourth year  Latest 2019 August-September Question Papers.

    We will keep on updating this post with latest papers. So, please bookmark this link and please do share this link with your friends

     

    Click on the below links to Download the Question Papers

    BPT 2019 Question Papers First Year September Bachelor-of-Physiotherapy 

    Anatomy Download
    Basic And Applied Physics For Physiotherapy Download
    Physiology And Applied Physiology Download
    Psychology And Sociology Download

    BPT 2019 Question Papers Second Year September Bachelor-of-Physiotherapy

    Biomechanics Applied Anatomy And Kinesiology Download
    Exercise Therapy Download
    General Medicine General Surgery Paediatrics And Geriatrics Download
    Including Soft Tissue Manipulation Download
    Microbiology And Pathology Download

     

    BPT 2019 Question Papers Third Year September Bachelor-of-Physiotherapy

    Cardio Respiratory Conditions Download
    Clinical Cardio Respiratory Diseases Download
    Community Medicine Download
    Electrotherapy I Lmf Download
    Electrotherapy II Hf Download

     

    BPT 2019 Question Papers Fourth Year September Bachelor-of-Physiotherapy

    Clinical Neurology Download
    Clinical Orthopaedics Download
    Neurology Download
    Orthopaedics Download

     

    If you face trouble opening any of the question paper or if you need any other paper, please drop us a mail to [email protected] with subject, university, semester  details. We will send you the papers.

     

    Above BPT question papers are applicable for below universities

    BPT Pondicherry University
    BPT NTR University of Health Sciences, VijayWada
    BPT Gandhi Institute of Technology and Management (GITAM University) Deemed, Visakhapatnam
    BPT Sri Venkateswara Institute of Medical Sciences (SVIMS), Tirupati
    BPT-Srimanta Shankardeva University of Health Sciences
    Statutory Autonomous, AIIMS
    Aryabhatta Knowledge University, Patna
    Indira Gandhi Instt of Medical Sciences (Deemed University), Patna
    B.N. Mandal University
    Veer Kunwar Singh University,Bihar
    Ayush and Health Sciences University, Raipur
    Punjab University
    Chhattisgarh Ayush and Health Sciences University, Raipur
    Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University
    University of Jamia Hamdard (Hamdard University)
    Delhi University
    Goa University
    Gujarat University
    Saurashtra University
    Hemchandracharya North Gujarat University,Patan
    MS University of Baroda
    Veer Narmad South Gujarat University
    Maharaja Krishnakumarsinghji Bhavnagar University
    KSKV Kachchh University, Bhuj
    Parul University, Vadodara
    Sardar Patel University
    Sumandeep Vidyapeeth University (Deemed), Vadodra
    PT. B.D. Sharma University of Health Sciences, Rohtak
    Maharishi Marakandeshwar University (Deemed), Ambala
    Himachal Pradesh University
    Maharishi Marakandeshwar University, Kumarhatti, Solan
    Jammu University
    Kashmir University
    Deemed University, Jammu & Kashmir
    Kolhan University, Chaibasa
    Vinoba Bhave University
    Ranchi University
    Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences
    KLE Academy of Higher Education & Research (Deemed), Belgaum
    JSS University, Mysore
    Manipal Academy of Higher Education (Deemed University), Manipal
    Nitte University (Deemed), Mangalore
    Sri Devaraj Urs Academy of Higher Education and Research (Deemed University), Kolar
    Sri Siddhartha Academy of Higher Education, Tumkur
    Yenepoya University of Health Sciences (Deemed), Mangalore
    Kerala University of Health Sciences, Thrissur
    Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham University (Deemed), Coimbatore
    Calicut University
    Mahatma Gandhi University, Kerala
    Barkatullah University
    Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
    Dr. Harising Gour University,Sagar
    Jiwaji University
    Devi Ahilya Vishwa Vidyalaya
    Rani Durgavati Vishwa Vidyalaya, Jabalpur
    Peoples University, Bhopal
    Vikram University, Ujjain
    AP Singh University
    Maharashtra University of Health Sciences, Nashik
    Bharati Vidyapeeth University (Deemed), Pune
    Dr. D Y Patil University (Deemed), Pimpri, Pune
    D.Y. Patil Education Society (Deemed University), Kolhapur
    Datta Meghe Instt. of Medical Sciences (Deemed University), Nagpur
    Krishna Institute of Medical Sciences University (Deemed), Karad
    MGM Institute of Health Sciences (Deemed University), Navi Mumbai
    Padmashree Dr. D Y Patil University (Deemed), Navi Mumbai
    Pravara Institute of Medical Sciences (Deemed University), Ahmednagar
    Manipur University
    North Eastern Hill University, Shillong
    Utkal University
    Sambalpur University
    KIIT University (Deemed), Bhubaneswar
    Berhampur University
    North Odisha University, Baripada, Odisha
    Vinayaka Missions University (Deemed), Salem
    Statutory Autonomous, Puducherry
    Sri Balaji Vidyapeeth (Deemed University), Pondicherry
    Bharath University (Deemed), Chennai
    Adesh University, Bathinda
    Baba Farid University of Health Sciences,Faridkot
    Rajasthan University of Health Sciences
    Rajasthan University
    Jaipur National University (Private Univ.)
    NIMS University (Deemed), Jaipur
    Pacific Medical University, Udaipur
    Sikkim Manipal Univ. of Health,Medical & Tech. Scs
    Dr. MGR Educational and Research Institute (Deemed University), Chennai
    The Tamilnadu Dr. MGR Medical University,Chennai
    Chettinad Academy of Research and Education (Deemed University), Chettinad
    Meenakshi University (Deemed), Chennai
    Annamalai University
    Saveetha University (Deemed), Chennai
    Sri Ramachandra University (Deemed), Chennai
    SRM Institute of Science & Technology
    Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences, Warangal
    Tripura University
    Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna Uttarakhand Medical Education University
    Kumaon University, Nainital
    Swami Rama Himalayan University, Dehradun
    H. N. B Garhwal University
    Uttrakhand Technical University, Dehradun
    Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gorakhpur University, Gorakhpur
    Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad
    King Georges Medical University,Lucknow
    Dr B R Ambedkar University,Agra, U.P.
    Glocal University, Saharanpur
    Ch. Charan Singh Universitiy, Meerut
    C.S.J.M. University, Kanpur
    Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapith, Varanasi
    Banaras Hindu University
    Integral University, Lucknow
    Aligarh Muslim University
    Bundelkhand University
    M J P Rohilkhand University
    Santosh University
    Sharda University, Greater Noida
    Swami Vivekanand Subharti University, Meerut
    Teerthanker Mahaveer University, Moradabad
    Dr. Shakuntala Misra National Rehabilitation University, Lucknow
    Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Rohilkhand University
    Shri Venkateshwara University, Gajraula
    West Bengal University of Health Sciences, Kolkata

  • B.Sc (MT) Radiography Question Paper With Answer Key – University of Delhi

    B.Sc (MT) Radiography Question Paper With Answer Key – University of Delhi 2019

     

    DU B.Sc 2019 Question Papers Radiography (University of Delhi)

    B.Sc (MT) Radiography Question Paper     Download

     

    DU B.Sc 2019 Question Papers Radiography (University of Delhi)

    B.Sc (MT) Radiography Question Paper Answer Key    Download

     

     

     

    Q 1, Match the items in column I with the column 2 and choose the correct option Column I        Column 2

    a       Binary fission                               1.                                Algae

    1. Zoospore Amoeba
    2. Conidia 3,                            Hydra
    3. Budding    Penipillium

    Gem mules                              5, Sponge

    • a-1, b-4, c-5, d-3, e-2
    • a-2, b- 1, c-4,d-3, e-5
    • a-1, b-2, c-3, d-2, e-5

    [0] a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5, e-2

    Q2. A haploid plant produces male or female gametes by [A]   Binary fission         [B] Mitosis

    [C] Meiosis                           [D] Amitosis

    Q3  A cross between two tall plants resulted in off spring having few dwarf plants. What

    would be the genotypes of both the parents?

    [A] TT and Tt                              [B] It and Tt

    [C] TT and TT                               [D] It and tt

    Q4. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testes is :

    • Spermatocyte ->Spermatogonia -> Spermatid -> Sperms
    • Spermatogonia -> Spermatocyte -> Spermatid -> Sperms
    • Spermatid -> Spermatocyte ->Spermatogonia -> Sperms
    • Spermatogonia -> Spermatid -> Spermatocyte -> Sperms

    Q5. The method of directly injecting a sperm Into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called

    [A] GIFT                                          [B] ZIFT

    [C] ICSI                                         [D] None of these

    Q6. The net electric charge on DNAand histones is :

    • Bothpositive
    • Bothnegative
    • Negative and positive, respectively
    • Zero

    Q7. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when :

    • Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
    • Repressor binds to operator
    • RNA polymerase binds to the operator

    [ID] Lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase

     

    Q8. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female anopheles mosquito bites a human being are produced and developed in

    [A] Liver of human                                 [B] Stomach of mosquito

    [C] Salivary glands of mosquitc! [D] Intestine of human

    Q9, Fungi used as bio control agent for plant pathogen is :

    [A] Claviceps                            [B] Neu rospora

    [C] Microsporum                        [0] Trichoderma

    1. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in Size with aging?
    [A]              Pineal

    [C] Thymus

    Peyer’s patches produce: [A] Trypsin

    [C] Leucocytes

    [B]     Pituitary

    [Di Thyroid

    [B] Mucus

    [D] Lymphocytes

     

    • Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :

    [A]                Chilli                                            [B] Maize

    [C] Sugarcane                              [D] Wheat

    • Recombinants are separated from non recombinants by insertional in activation of

    DNAas they produce

    [A]                   BLUE colour colonies                          [B] Black colour colonies

    [C] Colourless colonies                    [D] none of these

    1. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is :
    • Australopithecus ->ramapithecus -> homo sapiens -> homo habilis
    • Homo erectus -> homo habilis -> Australopithecus -> homo sapiens
    • Ramapithecus -> homo habilis -> homo erectus -> homo sapiens [0] Australopithecus ->ramapithecus -> homo erectus -> homo habilis
    • Which one of the following is a living fossil?

    [A] Saccharomyces                       [B] Spirogyra

    [C] Cycas                                                  [D] Moss

    • In the presence of high concentration of oxygen, RuBP CARBOXYLASE CONVERT RuBP to

    [A] Malic acid and PEP                       [B] PGA AND PEP

    [C] PGA AND MALIC ACID                 [ID] PGA AND Phosphoglycolate

     

    Ci! I                      atc-h       following and choose the correct option:

    1. Family I)                  tuberosum
    2. ingdoni ii)             polirnoniales
    3. Order iii)            solanum
    4. Species iv) plantae

    e        Genus                                   v) solanaceae

     

    Options:

    • i-d, ii-c, iv-b, v-a
    • i-e, ii-d, iv-a, v-c
    • i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
    • i-e, ii-c, v-b
    • Bioluminescence is found in

    [A]                           Chlorella

    [C]                Hirudinaria

    • Vascular plants lacking seeds are [A] Algae

    [C] Pteridophytes

    • Young one of cockroach is called [A] Maggot

    [C] Nymph

     

    • A plant having butterfly “” shaped flowers with one standard, two wings-like petals and two keel-like petals belong to

    [A] Fabaceae                                      [B] Asteraceae

    [C] Malvaceae                                    [D] Solanaceae

    Q22           Jute fibres are anatomically [A] Xylem fibres

    [C]                                      Sclereids

    [B] Phloem fibres [D] Trichomes

     

    • Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of large blood vessels?

    [A]                                Cuboidal epithelium                          [B] Columnar epithelium

    [C] Squamous epithelium                [D] Stratified epithelium

    Q24           Cilia and Flagella are composed of

    [A]                      Microtubules

    [C]                   Micro fibrils

    [B] Microfilaments [D] Microvilli

     

    Page 5 of 14

     

    1. Common rnonosaccharide present in nucleus is

    [A] Those                                                 [B] Tetrose

    [C] Pentose                                   [EY; Hexose

    ’26. In which stage are the chromosomes arranged in equatorial plate.

    [A] Metaphase                              [B] Telophase

    [C] Anaphase                              [D] Prophase

    1. Number ofATP molecules produced by one NADH [A] 3 [B] 4

    [C]              5                                                     [D] 6

    • Hormone that help in secretion of HCI in stomach is [A] Renin   [B] Gastrin

    [C] Secretin                               [D] Somatostatin

    • One molecule of haemoglobin carries molecules of oxygen

    [A] One                                                   [B] Two

    [C] Three                               [D] Four

    1. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotion is
      [A] Cerebral cortex [B] Cerebellum

    [C] Limbic system                     [D] Medulla oblongata

    Q31. A 50,000 W radio station transmits waves of wavelength 4 m. Which of the following

    is the best estimate of the number of photons it emits per second?

    [A]                   108                                              [B]      1022

    [C]        10                                                             [D]     10

    1. A scientist in the Space Station experiences “weightlessness” because
    • there is no gravitational force from the Earth acting on her.
    • the gravitational pull of the Moon has canceled the pull of the Earth on her.
    • she is in free fall along with the Space Station and its contents.
    • at an orbit of 500 km above the Earth, the gravitational force of the Earth on

    her is 2% less than on its surface.

    Q33. Consider an object that has a mass, m, and a weight, W, at the surface of the moon. If we assume the moon has a nearly uniform density, which of the following would be closest to the object’s mass and weight at a distance halfway between Moon’s center and its surface?

    [A] 1/2m8,%W                           [B] Ihm&Y4W

    [C] irn&lW                          [D] 1m8,1/2W

    Page 6 of 14

     

    Q34. If the unit for force is F, the unit for velocity v and the unit for time t, then the unit for momentum is

    [Al     Ft                                                    [BI Ftv

    [G] Ft2v                                                      [D1 Riv

    Q35. Two pucks moving on a frictionless air table are about to collide, The 1.5 kg puck is moving directly east at 2.0 m/s. The 4.0 kg puck is moving directly north at 1.0 m/s. What is the total kinetic energy of the two-puck system before the collision?

    [A]      3.61J                                   [B] 5.0

    [C]        7.0J                                              [D] 10 J

    Q36. Two fire trucks have sirens that emit waves of the same frequency. As the fire trucks approach a person, the person hears a higher frequency from truck X than from truck Y. Which of the following statements about truck X can be correctly inferred from this information?

    1. It is traveling faster than truck Y.
    2. It is closer to the person than truck Y.
    • It is slowing down and truck Y is speeding up.

    [A]        I only                                           [B]   III only

    [C]        I and II only                                               [D]  II and III only

    Q37. Of the following, which represents the larger charge? [A]             1×1012e                                                      [B]      1 x10-4‘ C

    [C] 1 pC                                                 [D] 1 nC

    Q38. A cricket ball is thrown with a spinning motion. Its total kinetic energy is a function of

    • its linear velocity only
    • its angular velocity only
    • both its linear and angular velocities
    • the induced torque

    Q39. Acircular hole is cut in a sheet of copper. When the sheet is heated, the area of the hole

    • remains constant
    • decreases
    • increases

    [0] decreases only if the hole was located at the exact center of the sheet

    Q40. In orderfor a Carnot engine to operate at 100% efficiency, the exhaust temperature is [A] 0 K        [B] 100 K

    [C]     infinite                                      [D] equal to the input temperature

     

     

    Decreasing the potential difference across the two plates of a parallel capacitor causes what effect?

    [ik] the capacitance increases

    • the capacitance decreases
    • charge on the plates increases.
    • charge on the plates decreases

    0,49, Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current conductor?

    • Drift velocity alone.
    • Thermal velocity alone.
    • Both drift velocity and thermal velocity.
    • Neither drift nor thermal velocity.
    1. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B such that
    • B ilv.
    • it obeys inverse cube law.
    • it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation.

    Q44. A wire current is running through a wire from right to left. The wire is placed in a magnetic field that is running from left to right. What is the direction of the force on the wire?

    • The force is pushing the wire downwards.
    • The force is pushing the wire to the right.
    • The force is pushing the wire to the left.
    • Either the answer cannot be determined from situation.

    Q45. When a voltage measuring device is connected to AC mains, the, meter shows the steady input voltage of 220V. This means

    • input voltage cannot beAC voltage, but a DC voltage.
    • maximum input voltage is 220V.
    • the meter reads not V but <V2> and is calibrated to read 1< V2> .
    • the pointer of the meter is stuck by some mechanical defect.

    Q46. The focal ratio of a lens or mirror is the ratio of its

    [A]                                       Diameter to thickness                         [B] Focal length to diameter .

    [C] magnification to diameter       pj focal length to thickness

     

     

    Q47. You stand in front of a mirror, How tall does the mirror have to be so that you can see yourself entirely?

    • any size will do
    • less than your half height but more than one fourth of your height
    • half of your height
    • one fourth of your height
    1. Which type of radiation goes farther in matter before losing all of its energy’ [A] alpha radiation                                                                  [B] beta radiation

    [C] gamma radiation                         [D] all about the same distance

    1. The blue color of our sky is due to
    • scattering of light
    • water vapor in the atmosphere
    • optical activity
    • diffraction as light filters through the atmosphere

    Q50. A photon is associated with a wavelength of 6400 A. What is its energy?

    [A] 3.4 eV                                              [B] 2.9 eV

    [C] 2.3 eV                                              [D] 1.9 eV

    Q51. One nucleus of radioactive disintegration per second is defined as the [A]      curie     [B] roentgen

    [C] gray                                                  [D] becquerel

    Q52. The conduction band of a semiconductor is

    • The range of electron energies enough to free an electron from binding with its atom
    • Generally located on the top of the crystal
    • Generally located on the bottom of the crystal
    • Same as Valance energy gap

    Q53. Ethyl alcohol has about one-half the specific heat of water. Assume equal amounts of energy are transferred by heat into equal-mass liquid samples of alcohol and water in separate insulated containers. The water rises in temperature by 20°C. How much will the alcohol rise in temperature?

    • It will rise by 10°C.
    • It will rise by 25°C.
    • It will rise by 40°C.
    • It depends on the rate of energy transfer

     

     

    Q54. The velocity of a mass attached to a :spring is given by v = (3crri/s) sin(wt where w = 3.0 radis. What is the corresponding expression for x?

    [A]       x         cm) sin(wt 4- Tr/2)                    [B] x = (9 cm) cos(cot + Tr/2)

    [C]      x = -(1 cm) cos(wt Trii2)           [0] x = -(1 cm) cos(i.ot Tr/2)

    A hunter in a forest walks 800 m west. He then turns south and walks 400 m beforE­1.1rning west again and walking a final 300 m. At the end of the walk, what is the magnitude of the hunter’s displacement from the beginning?

    [A]   640.5 rn

    [C]   1170.5

    [B] 890.5 m

    [D] 1500 m

     

    1. A 50-kg student stands on a scale in an elevator. At the instant the elevator has a downward acceleration of 1.0 m/s2 and an upward velocity of 3.0 mls, the scale reads approximately

    [A] 350 N                                                [B] 450 N

    [C] 500 N                                                  [D] 550 N

    Q57. A simple pendulum has a period of 2 s for small amplitude oscillations. The length of the pendulum is most nearly

    [A]      1/4 m                                           [B]     1/2 m

    [C]      1 m                                                [D] 2 m

    Q58. As a solid block sinks deeper and deeper into water of constant density, what happens to the buoyant force on it?

    • It remains constant
    • It increases.
    • It decreases.
    • It may increase or decrease, depending on the shape of the block.

    Q59. If an ideal Carnot engine takes in 500 kJ of heat at 1500 K and expels 300 kJ of heat to the low temperature reservoir during each cycle, which of the following would be closest to the temperature of the low temperature reservoir?

    [A] 500K

    [C] 200K

    [B] 900K

    [D] 700K

     

    • Which air temperature feels coldest?

    [A] -40 °C                                    [B] -40 °F

    [C] 233 K                                                 [D] All three are equal.

    • Acidified water is electrolysed by 1 A current for 16 minutes and 5 seconds using inert electrodes. The volume of gases liberated at STP will be

    [A]       168 ml                                         [B] 336 ml

    [C]      112 ml                                        [D] 224 ml

     

     

    1. The colour of potassium dichromate changes from red orange to lemon yellow on treatment with aqueous KOH because
    • Reduction of Cr(VI) to Cr(ill)
    • Conversion of dichromate ion to chromate ion
    • Formation of chromium hydroxide
    • Both (a) and (b)
    • Which molecule f on out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons ? [A] N2+                     [C] 02

    [C]     022-                                                             [D]

    • In which of the following pairs, both species have similar geometry?

    [A] CH4, BF3                                          [B] NH3, BH,

    [C]            CO2, H2O                                      [D] PCI5 , ICI,

    1. H2S in the presence of HCI precipitate group II but not group IV because
    • HCI activates H2S
    • HCI increases concentration of CI
    • HCI decreases concentration of S2
    • HCI lowers the solubility of H2S in solution

    Q66. Which of the following will give cinnamic acid ? [A] C6H5CHO + (CH3C0)20 / CH3COONa

    • C6H5CHO + CH3CH 0 / OH°
    • C6H5CHO + C2H5CHO / pyridine
    • All of these

    Q67. Acidified KMnO4 oxidizes oxalic acid to CO2 . What is the volume of 10-4 M KMnO4 required to completely oxidize 0.5 litre of 102 M oxalic acid in acid medium ?

    [A] 125 L                                     [B] 1250 L

    [C] 200 L                                      [D] 20 L

    1. What in the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 10 ml of 0.1 M HCI and 40 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4?

    [A]      0.74                                     [B] 7.4

    [C]        4.68                                               [D] 0.468

     

     

    Q6’9. During preparation of ice-creams, gelatine is added in ice- creams. What could be the role of gelatin in the process ?

    • ice-creams are emulsions which get stabiiised by gelatin which acts as an emulfying agent.
    • Gelatine is added to the ice-cream to make it sweet.
    • Gelatine acts as coagulating agent and helps the ice-cream to become solid.
    • Gelatine is adsorbed on milk particles which are later converted to solids.
    • A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10 minutes. What is the specific rate constant for the reaction ?

    [A]              0.0970 min-1                                 [B] 0.009 min

    [C] 0.0223 min                            [D] 2.223 min-1

    • in a crystalline solid , anions B are arranged in a cubic close packing. Cations A are equally distributed between octahedral and tetrahedral voids if all the octahedral voids are occupied , what is the formula of the solid?

    [A] AB,                                        [B] A2B

    [C] A3B                                        [D] none of these

    1. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules. Their chirality is due to

    [A]             chiral bases                             [B] chiral phosphate ester units

    [C] D-sugar component             [D] L-sugar component

    Q73. An organic compound A has molecular formula C81-1″žN and is optically active. The compound A dissolves in dil. HCl and gives effervescence of nitrogen gas with HNO2. Suggest a structural formula of compound A.

    [A]         NH2                                                                                             [B] C6H5NH(C2H5)

     

    C2H5

     

    [C] C6H5CH(CH3)( NH2)                           [D] C61-15(CH2)2 NH2

    Q74. The pH at the equivalence point of a titration may differ from 7.0 because of

    • The self ionisation of water
    • Hydrolysis of the salt formed
    • The indicator used
    • The concentration of the standard solution
    1. Fluorine is not tested by Beilstein ‘ s test because
    • It doesn’t react with copper
    • copper fluoride is not volatile
    • F2 is evolved as a gas
    • The statement is wrong as it is well tested by Beilstein’s test.

     

     

    075 NaCI type crystal ( with coordination no. 6:6 can be converted into CsCI type crystal (with coordination no. 8:8) by applying

    [A] high temperature                           [B] high pressure

    [C] both (a) and (b)                           [D] low temperature and low pressure

    1. The oxidation states of suiphur in Caross and marshal!’ s acid are

    [A]                +6,-!-6                                                          [B] +4,+6

    [C] +6,-6                                    [D] +6, +4

    1. Siderite and sphalerite are the ore of the metals

    [A] Al and Zn                                 [B] Fe and Cu

    [C] Cu and Zn                                       [D] Fe and Zn

    1. Polymerisation of caprolactum yields

    [A] terylene                                             [B] nylon-6

    [C] nylon-6,6                                         [D] polyethene

    1. Which of the following will not undergo cannizaro’s reaction on heating with an alkali solution?

    [A] CCI3CHO                                           [B] (CH3)3CCHO

    [C] HCHO                                               [D] C6l-15CHO

    Q81. The product of oxymercuration of but-1-yne with HgSO4 and H2SO4 will be :

    [A] Butanone                                          [B] Butanal

    [C] Propanal and Methanal            [D] Propanoic acid and methanoic acid

    Q82. Ammonia is used in detection of Cu’ ion because

    • Solution of NH3 reacts with Cu” ion to form deep blue coloured complex
    • NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to give blue precipitate of CuO
    • solution of NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to form white complex
    • NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to give green precipitate

     

    Q83. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at room temperature gives :

    • m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxybenzyl alcohol.
    • Potassium m- chlorobenzoate and m- chlorobenzyl alcohol

    [B] mHydroxybenzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol.

    [A] Potassium m- chlorobenzoate and m-hydroxybenzaldehyde.

    1″¢

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    Q84. Phenyl methyl ether reacts with HI to give phenol and methyl iodide and not iodobenzene and methyl alcohol because

    • I ion prefers to combine with the smaller group in order to minimise steric hindrance
    • I ion is not reactive towards benzene
    • phenol is formed as a result of hydrolysis of iodobenzene
    • methyl alcohol formed during reaction reacts with I to form methyl iodide
    1. What is the test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3- one?

    [A]      lodoform test                                         [B] Benedict’s test

    [C]               Fehling’s test                                      [D] Aldol condensation test

    Q86. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of basicity: CH3NH2 ; (CH3)2NH ; NH3 ; C6H5N1H2

    • C6H5NH2 < NH3 <(CH3)2NH < CH,NH,
    • CH3NH2< (CH3)2NH < NH,< C6H5NH2
    • C6115NH2< NH3< CH,NH, < (CH3)2NH [ID] (CH3)2NH < CH,NH, < NH3 < C6H5NH2
    1. Which of the following is wrong ?
    • cathode rays have constant e/m ratio
    • elm ratio of anode rays is not constant
    • e/m ratio of protons is not constant
    • e/m ratio offl”” particles is constant
    1. Order of esterification of alcohols is

    [A]               3°> 2°>                                                          [B] 2°>3©> 1°

    [C] 1°> 2°> 3°                                        [D] none of these

    • Composition of Ziegler”” Natta catalyst is [A] (Et3)3TiCl2                                           [B]   (Me),AI.TiCI,

    [C]       (Et),AI.TiCI,                            [D] (Et)3ALPtC14

    • Which of the following antibiotics is bactericidal ? [A] erythyromycin [B] tetracycline

    [C]             penicillin                                                  [ID] chloramphenicol

     

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