Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2024 June 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 07 Jun 2024 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2024 June 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 07 Jun 2024 Previous Question Paper

QP CODE : 1030
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Jun-2024

Time: Three Hours




Max. Marks: 100
MICROBIOLOGY ? PAPER I (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1030
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
Three members of a family who attended a gathering in a village complained of passing
loose stools about 6 to 10 times per day. On examination all of them had signs of
dehydration and stool samples collected appears like rice water
a) Name the most probable causative bacterial agent
b) Describe pathogenesis of this condition
c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition
d) Outline the measures to manage this outbreak
2.
A commercial sex worker presents with intermittent fever, diarrhea and weight loss since
two months. On examination she has oral thrush and enlarged lymph nodes in neck and
axilla. Laboratory Investigation revealed that, serum was positive for P24 Antigen and her
CD4 Count is less than 200 /mm
a) Diagnose the most probable clinical condition and identify the causative agent of this
clinical condition
b) Describe pathogenesis of this clinical condition
c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of the underlying primary disease
d) Outline the medicolegal and ethical requirements that need to be met during
laboratory diagnosis of this condition
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Bacterial conjugation and its implications
4.
ELISA ? Principles, types and applications
5.
a.
Delayed type hypersensitivity
6.
An Intravenous drug abuser develops fever with chills, myalgia, cardiac murmur. Methicillin
Resistant Staphylococci aureus was isolated from Blood culture. Describe pathogenesis and
laboratory diagnosis of this condition
7.
Laboratory diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis
8.
b.
Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis E infection.
9.
c.
Superficial mycosis
10
d. . A middle-aged man presents with hypopigmented patches on his both forearms. On
examination the lesions were non-scaly and had reduced sensations. Describe laboratory
diagnosis of this condition
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Hot air oven ? Principle and application
12. Name three differences between exotoxin and endotoxin
13. Major Histocompatibility Complex
14. Differentiate primary and secondary immune response
15. Name the major criteria of modified Jone's criteria
16. Draw a labelled diagram of the diagnostic form of visceral leishmaniasis found in bone
marrow smears
17. Name three bacterial causes of food poisoning
18. Laboratory diagnosis of amoebic liver abscess
19. Etiopathogenesis of Actinomycosis
20. Name common infections caused by nonsporing anaerobes
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QP CODE : 1030
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Spores are formed in _______ phase of bacterial growth curve
A. Lag
B. Log
C. Stationary
D. Decline
21 ii
) Bacterium having polypeptide capsule is
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
21 ii
i) Commonest cause of septic arthritis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus Spp
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli
21 iv)
Molecular mimicry as a mechanism of autoimmune response is seen in
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Myasthenia gravis
21 v)
NOT a correct combination is
A. Autograft ? skin grafted to burn area
B. Allograft ? graft from genetically non-identical member of the same species
C. Isograft ? graft from heterozygous twin
D. Xenograft ? graft from different species
22 i) A bridge between innate and acquired immunity is
A. Complement components
B. Neutrophils
C. T lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
22
ii) All of the following are dimorphic fungi EXCEPT
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Sporothrix schenckii
22 iii) Germ Tube test is positive in which of the following organisms
A. C. albicans
B. C. tropicalis
C. C. parapsilosis
D. C. auris
22 iv)
A child aged 6 years vomited a white worm with cylindrical body measuring 20 cm.
Parents gave history of passing similar worm in feces a few months ago. Stool
examination showed many brown ova. Probable organism is
A. Necator americanus
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Taenia saginata
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
22 v)
True about Strongyloides stercoralis is
A. It can complete the life cycle independent of any host
B. Infection is acquired by ingestion of embryonated ova
C. Diagnosis is done by demonstrating ova in stool sample
D. Commonly produces Loeffler syndrome
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This post was last modified on 02 December 2024