Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2024 June 1031 Microbiology Paper II Rs 4 Previous Question Paper
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 10-Jun-2024
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100
MICROBIOLOGY ? PAPER II (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1031
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
A lady aged 26 years presented with high grade fever with chills, headache since 4 days. On
examination she had neck stiffness and Kernig's sign was positive. CSF gram stain showed
gram negative diplococci with adjacent flat surfaces.
a) Identify the causative agent
b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition
c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition
d) Suggest methods of prevention
2.
An adult man presented with fever, breathlessness, dry cough and loss of smell since 4 days.
He had fever, sore throat and running nose in the previous week. RTPCR of nasopharyngeal
swab showed presence of N and RdRp genes.
a) Identify the causative agent
b) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition
c) Describe methods of prevention
d) Suggest appropriate management of common biomedical waste generated while
caring for this patient
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Japanese encephalitis
4.
Laboratory diagnostic strategy of pulmonary tuberculosis as per National Tuberculosis
Elimination Program
5.
a.
A lady aged 28 years presented with recurrent multiple painful vesicular lesions of external
genitalia. Giemsa-stained smear of the base of the lesions showed multinucleated giant cells
with faceted nuclei. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition
6.
Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis
7.
Clinical features, complications and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue
8.
b.
Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid cyst disease
9.
c.
Risk factors and prevention of CAUTI
10
d. . Oncogenic viruses
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Describe the reasons for epidemics and pandemics of influenza
12. Diagnosis of neurocysticercosis
13. Morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
14. Name common infections caused by Aspergillus Spp
15. Significant bacteriuria
16. Laboratory diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum
17. Draw a labelled diagram of Trichomonas vaginalis
18. Name three organisms causing nongonococcal urethritis
19. Malignant pustule
20. Describe the ethical considerations while testing for HIV
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QP CODE : 1031
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) All the following are effective in preventing pharyngoconjunctival fever caused by
Adenovirus EXCEPT
A. Effective hand washing
B. 70% ethanol to disinfect environmental surfaces
C. Chlorination of swimming pools and waste water
D. Strict asepsis during eye examinations
21 ii
) True about tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is
A. Microfilariae are not detected in peripheral smear
B. Caused by migrating larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Hyaline septate acutely-branching hyphae are seen in sputum
D. Productive cough with blood-tinged purulent sputum is characteristic
21 ii
i) An immunocompromised individual has dry cough and breathlessness. Gomori's
methenamine silver stain of bronchoalveolar lavage showed black structures resembling
crushed ping-pong balls. The probable causative agent is
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii
B. Talaromyces marneffei
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
21 iv)
An adult man has fever and purulent urethral discharge. Gram stain of the discharge
showed gram negative diplococci with adjacent concave surfaces. Treatment of choice is
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Azithromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Acyclovir
21 v)
True about standard tests for syphilis is
A. Detect antibodies to treponemal antigens
B. Can not differentiate recent and past infection
C. Positive results irrespective of titers are significant
D. Help in assessing response to treatment
22 i) A lady has multiple painless dome-shaped, pink pearly wart-like umbilicated lesions, with a
dimple at the center in perigenital area. Most useful test in this case is
A. Demonstration of Molluscum bodies in biopsied lesion
B. Leishman stained smear of the lesion to show Guarneri bodies
C. Iodine-stained smear of lesion to demonstrate inclusion bodies
D. Gram stain of lesion to show gram negative bacilli with safety-pin appearance
22
ii) Urine wet mount of a man with hematuria showed oval and elongated, non-operculated
eggs measuring 150 ? 50 m, with a terminal spine. It is suggestive of
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Schistosoma urealyticum
22 iii) True about Kyasanur Forest Disease is
A. Endemic in central African countries
B. Transmitted by soft tick
C. Monkeys are amplifier hosts
D. Encephalitis is the characteristic feature
22 iv)
True about human infection by Taenia solium is that
A. Man can be definitive or intermediate host
B. Non-bile-stained eggs
C. Scolex is quadrangular without rostellum and hooklets
D. Adult worm has cylindrical body
22 v)
True about infections caused by zoophilic dermatophytes is
A. Commonest organism is Trichophyton rubrum
B. Mild symptoms
C. Resolve more quickly
D. Can be grown only by using experimental animals
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This post was last modified on 02 December 2024