Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2019 PhD in Biochemistry Previous Queston Papers
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
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1)
2)
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4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
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DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
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2)
3)
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DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
34)
35)
[Question ID = 15212]
1. S phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30846]
2. G2 /M phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30847]
3. G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
4. G0 phase of cell cycle [Option ID = 30848]
Correct Answer :-
G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
34)
35)
[Question ID = 15212]
1. S phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30846]
2. G2 /M phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30847]
3. G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
4. G0 phase of cell cycle [Option ID = 30848]
Correct Answer :-
G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
36)
37)
38)
39)
[Question ID = 15211]
1. I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
2. I ? a; II ? d; III ? c [Option ID = 30842]
3. I ? a; II ? c; III ? b [Option ID = 30844]
4. I ? a; II ? e; III ? c [Option ID = 30843]
Correct Answer :-
I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
For a FRET experiment, an oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy3 dye, which absorbs at 540 nm and
fluoresces at 590 nm. Another oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy5 dye, which absorbs at 590 nm and
emits fluorescence at 680 nm. Which of the following observations indicate a successful FRET
experiment, whereby the two oligonucleotides anneal?
[Question ID = 15190]
1. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30759]
2. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
3. Excitation at 540 nm results in no fluorescence emission [Option ID = 30760]
4. Excitation at 590 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30758]
Correct Answer :-
Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
What are the lin-4 and lin-14 genes of C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15178]
1. lin-4 and lin-14 are genes that are named for their control of the first division, and hence the lineage of the AB
and P1 cells [Option ID = 30710]
2. lin-4 and lin-14 both encode miRNAs that serve as cell-cell signaling molecules in C. elegans [Option ID = 30712]
3. lin-4 and lin-14 are C. elegans versions of the HOX genes [Option ID = 30711]
4. lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
Correct Answer :-
lin-4encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
What is the isoelectric point (pI) of the amino acid lysine with pK
a1
= 2.2, pK
a2
= 9.0 and pK
a3
=
10.8.
[Question ID = 15187]
1. 7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
2. 5.6 [Option ID = 30747]
3. 9.9 [Option ID = 30746]
4. 9 [Option ID = 30748]
Correct Answer :-
7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
What would happen to red blood cells if the haem group were removed from haemoglobin?
[Question ID = 15175]
1. White blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30699]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
34)
35)
[Question ID = 15212]
1. S phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30846]
2. G2 /M phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30847]
3. G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
4. G0 phase of cell cycle [Option ID = 30848]
Correct Answer :-
G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
36)
37)
38)
39)
[Question ID = 15211]
1. I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
2. I ? a; II ? d; III ? c [Option ID = 30842]
3. I ? a; II ? c; III ? b [Option ID = 30844]
4. I ? a; II ? e; III ? c [Option ID = 30843]
Correct Answer :-
I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
For a FRET experiment, an oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy3 dye, which absorbs at 540 nm and
fluoresces at 590 nm. Another oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy5 dye, which absorbs at 590 nm and
emits fluorescence at 680 nm. Which of the following observations indicate a successful FRET
experiment, whereby the two oligonucleotides anneal?
[Question ID = 15190]
1. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30759]
2. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
3. Excitation at 540 nm results in no fluorescence emission [Option ID = 30760]
4. Excitation at 590 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30758]
Correct Answer :-
Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
What are the lin-4 and lin-14 genes of C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15178]
1. lin-4 and lin-14 are genes that are named for their control of the first division, and hence the lineage of the AB
and P1 cells [Option ID = 30710]
2. lin-4 and lin-14 both encode miRNAs that serve as cell-cell signaling molecules in C. elegans [Option ID = 30712]
3. lin-4 and lin-14 are C. elegans versions of the HOX genes [Option ID = 30711]
4. lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
Correct Answer :-
lin-4encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
What is the isoelectric point (pI) of the amino acid lysine with pK
a1
= 2.2, pK
a2
= 9.0 and pK
a3
=
10.8.
[Question ID = 15187]
1. 7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
2. 5.6 [Option ID = 30747]
3. 9.9 [Option ID = 30746]
4. 9 [Option ID = 30748]
Correct Answer :-
7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
What would happen to red blood cells if the haem group were removed from haemoglobin?
[Question ID = 15175]
1. White blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30699]
40)
41)
42)
43)
2. Red blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30698]
3. Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
4. Blood clot formation would be inhibited. [Option ID = 30700]
Correct Answer :-
Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
Which of the following changes in the gene encoding a lysosomal protein is not expected to impair
the translocation of the protein across the ER membrane? [Question ID = 15188]
1. The conversion of the two leucine codons and one phenylalanine codon near the translation initiation codon to an
isoleucine codon, an aspartic acid codon and a glutamic acid codon, respectively [Option ID = 30752]
2. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an arginine codon [Option ID =
30750]
3. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an aspartic acid codon [Option ID =
30751]
4. The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID =
30749]
Correct Answer :-
The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID
= 30749]
Competitive inhibition is overcome by adding substrate shows that:
[Question ID = 15210]
1. enzymes are pH dependent [Option ID = 30839]
2. enzymes are specific in nature [Option ID = 30838]
3. enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
4. enzymes are made of proteins [Option ID = 30840]
Correct Answer :-
enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
The technique known as two-hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products depend on
[Question ID = 15218]
1. Direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter region. [Option ID = 30870]
2. Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
3. Stimulation of transcription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein sequences. [Option ID = 30872]
4. Having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose interactions is beingmeasured. [Option
ID = 30871]
Correct Answer :-
Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
The enzyme of E.coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by
homologous recombination
[Question ID = 15207]
1. RNA polymerase [Option ID = 30827]
2. DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 30825]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30826]
4. DNA polymerase [Option ID = 30828]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
34)
35)
[Question ID = 15212]
1. S phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30846]
2. G2 /M phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30847]
3. G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
4. G0 phase of cell cycle [Option ID = 30848]
Correct Answer :-
G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
36)
37)
38)
39)
[Question ID = 15211]
1. I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
2. I ? a; II ? d; III ? c [Option ID = 30842]
3. I ? a; II ? c; III ? b [Option ID = 30844]
4. I ? a; II ? e; III ? c [Option ID = 30843]
Correct Answer :-
I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
For a FRET experiment, an oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy3 dye, which absorbs at 540 nm and
fluoresces at 590 nm. Another oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy5 dye, which absorbs at 590 nm and
emits fluorescence at 680 nm. Which of the following observations indicate a successful FRET
experiment, whereby the two oligonucleotides anneal?
[Question ID = 15190]
1. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30759]
2. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
3. Excitation at 540 nm results in no fluorescence emission [Option ID = 30760]
4. Excitation at 590 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30758]
Correct Answer :-
Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
What are the lin-4 and lin-14 genes of C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15178]
1. lin-4 and lin-14 are genes that are named for their control of the first division, and hence the lineage of the AB
and P1 cells [Option ID = 30710]
2. lin-4 and lin-14 both encode miRNAs that serve as cell-cell signaling molecules in C. elegans [Option ID = 30712]
3. lin-4 and lin-14 are C. elegans versions of the HOX genes [Option ID = 30711]
4. lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
Correct Answer :-
lin-4encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
What is the isoelectric point (pI) of the amino acid lysine with pK
a1
= 2.2, pK
a2
= 9.0 and pK
a3
=
10.8.
[Question ID = 15187]
1. 7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
2. 5.6 [Option ID = 30747]
3. 9.9 [Option ID = 30746]
4. 9 [Option ID = 30748]
Correct Answer :-
7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
What would happen to red blood cells if the haem group were removed from haemoglobin?
[Question ID = 15175]
1. White blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30699]
40)
41)
42)
43)
2. Red blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30698]
3. Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
4. Blood clot formation would be inhibited. [Option ID = 30700]
Correct Answer :-
Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
Which of the following changes in the gene encoding a lysosomal protein is not expected to impair
the translocation of the protein across the ER membrane? [Question ID = 15188]
1. The conversion of the two leucine codons and one phenylalanine codon near the translation initiation codon to an
isoleucine codon, an aspartic acid codon and a glutamic acid codon, respectively [Option ID = 30752]
2. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an arginine codon [Option ID =
30750]
3. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an aspartic acid codon [Option ID =
30751]
4. The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID =
30749]
Correct Answer :-
The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID
= 30749]
Competitive inhibition is overcome by adding substrate shows that:
[Question ID = 15210]
1. enzymes are pH dependent [Option ID = 30839]
2. enzymes are specific in nature [Option ID = 30838]
3. enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
4. enzymes are made of proteins [Option ID = 30840]
Correct Answer :-
enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
The technique known as two-hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products depend on
[Question ID = 15218]
1. Direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter region. [Option ID = 30870]
2. Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
3. Stimulation of transcription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein sequences. [Option ID = 30872]
4. Having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose interactions is beingmeasured. [Option
ID = 30871]
Correct Answer :-
Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
The enzyme of E.coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by
homologous recombination
[Question ID = 15207]
1. RNA polymerase [Option ID = 30827]
2. DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 30825]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30826]
4. DNA polymerase [Option ID = 30828]
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
Correct Answer :-
DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 30825]
The putative interaction between two proteins was identified by yeast two hybrid assays. Which of
the following technique cannot be employed to further confirm the interaction?
[Question ID = 15182]
1. Electrophoretic Mobility Shift Assay [Option ID = 30728]
2. Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer analysis [Option ID = 30726]
3. Protein Microarray [Option ID = 30727]
4. Pull Down Assay [Option ID = 30725]
Correct Answer :-
Pull Down Assay [Option ID = 30725]
The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
[Question ID = 15216]
1. regulator [Option ID = 30863]
2. repressor [Option ID = 30861]
3. inhibitor [Option ID = 30864]
4. modulator [Option ID = 30862]
Correct Answer :-
repressor [Option ID = 30861]
The pluripotency of the inner cell mass in mammals is maintained by a core of three transcription
factors namely
[Question ID = 15214]
1. Oct 4, Cdx 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30856]
2. Oct 4, Sox 2 and Cdx 2 [Option ID = 30854]
3. Oct 4, Sox 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30853]
4. Sox 2, Nanog and Cdx 2 [Option ID = 30855]
Correct Answer :-
Oct 4, Sox 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30853]
The precursor of all N-linked oligosaccharides contains:
[Question ID = 15201]
1. Two glucose, nine mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30802]
2. Two glucose, eight mannose and four N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30804]
3. Three glucose, eight mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30801]
4. Three glucose, nine mannose and two N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30803]
Correct Answer :-
Three glucose, eight mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30801]
The most efficient way to turn off glycogen degradation is to:
[Question ID = 15203]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU PhD in Biochemistry
Topic:- DU_J19_PHD_BIOCHEM
Which of the following statement about protein structures and functions is likely to be False?
[Question ID = 15193]
1. Two proteins that share a significant degree of sequence similarity either with each other or with a third sequence
also share an evolutionary origin and should share some structural features also [Option ID = 30770]
2. Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
3. Ancient gene for a given protein structure may diverge in different species while maintaining the same basic
structural features [Option ID = 30771]
4. Proteins that are members of the same family are likely to have same three-dimensional structures but different
functions [Option ID = 30772]
Correct Answer :-
Two entirely different protein sequences from different evolutionary origins may fold into a similar structure
[Option ID = 30769]
Which of the following amino acid is not involved in the composition of glutathione?
[Question ID = 15189]
1. Glycine [Option ID = 30755]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30756]
3. Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
4. Cysteine [Option ID = 30754]
Correct Answer :-
Glutamate [Option ID = 30753]
Which of the following is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed for apoptosis?
[Question ID = 15208]
1. Cell swells and ultimately bursts [Option ID = 30831]
2. Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions [Option ID = 30832]
3. Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
4. DNA breaks into fragments [Option ID = 30830]
Correct Answer :-
Cytoskeleton collapses [Option ID = 30829]
Which of the following techniques is the most suitable for detecting a metabolite labelled with
13
C?
[Question ID = 15179]
1. Mass spectrometry [Option ID = 30716]
2. Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy [Option ID = 30714]
4. Scintillation counting (detection of radioactivity) [Option ID = 30715]
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
Correct Answer :-
Infra red spectroscopy [Option ID = 30713]
Which of the following properties is not associated with non-covalent interactions in proteins?
[Question ID = 15192]
1. Involves a chemical bond [Option ID = 30766]
2. Important for secondary and tertiary structural integrity [Option ID = 30768]
3. Weak interactions [Option ID = 30767]
4. Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Correct Answer :-
Interaction in space [Option ID = 30765]
Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially
expressed genes in tumor tissues in one experiment?
[Question ID = 15224]
1. RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
2. ChiP assay [Option ID = 30895]
3. Genome sequencing [Option ID = 30894]
4. Microarrays [Option ID = 30896]
Correct Answer :-
RAPD [Option ID = 30893]
Which one of the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 15221]
1. In all L-amino acids, only the C-terminal carbon atom is chiral [Option ID = 30882]
2. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active [Option ID = 30884]
3. Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
4. The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D-glucose and D-fructose [Option ID =
30883]
Correct Answer :-
Deoxyribose is optically active [Option ID = 30881]
Which is true for size exclusion chromatography?
[Question ID = 15196]
1. Sample volume affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30783]
2. Width of the column affects the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30782]
3. Only a mixture of five to ten proteins can be well separated [Option ID = 30784]
4. Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Correct Answer :-
Length of the column does not affect the resolution of separation of proteins [Option ID = 30781]
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
[Question ID = 15176]
10)
11)
12)
13)
1. Juvenile hormone [Option ID = 30702]
2. Auxin [Option ID = 30703]
3. Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
4. Cytokinin [Option ID = 30704]
Correct Answer :-
Ecdysone [Option ID = 30701]
Following are the list of some proteins:
1) BCL-2
2) BCL-XL
3) A1
4) BAX
Which of the protein(s) is/are NOT anti-apoptotic?
[Question ID = 15213]
1. 2 and 4 only [Option ID = 30852]
2. 3 only [Option ID = 30850]
3. 4 only [Option ID = 30849]
4. 1 and 2 only [Option ID = 30851]
Correct Answer :-
4 only [Option ID = 30849]
Following are statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants
[Question ID = 15223]
1. Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters [Option ID = 30892]
2. Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds [Option ID = 30890]
3. All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements [Option ID = 30891]
4. Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Correct Answer :-
Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes [Option ID = 30889]
Is there a difference between oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes?
[Question ID = 15177]
1. No, oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes both stimulate the development of cancer, even in the absence of
their becoming mutated. [Option ID = 30706]
2. Yes, oncogenes are genes that can cause cancer when they become mutated to become proto-oncogenes,
whereas tumor suppressor genes play no role in cancer. [Option ID = 30708]
3. Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas tumor
suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID = 30705]
4. Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division (such as ras and myc), whereas
tumor suppressor genes normally hold cell division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
[Option ID = 30707]
Correct Answer :-
Yes, oncogenes prevent cancer from forming unless they are mutated to become proto-oncogenes, whereas
tumor suppressor genes stimulate the formation of cancer even in the absence of mutation. [Option ID =
30705]
In biosynthesis of cholesterol
14)
15)
16)
[Question ID = 15180]
1. 3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
2. Condensation of two farnesyl pyrophosphates to form squalene is freely reversible [Option ID = 30720]
3. HMG CoA reductase catalyzes the rate limiting step [Option ID = 30718]
4. The conversion of mevalonic acid to farnesyl pyrophosphate proceeds via condensation of three molecules of
mevalonic acid [Option ID = 30719]
Correct Answer :-
3-hydroxy-3 methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) is synthesized by mitochondrial HMGCoAsynthetase [Option ID =
30717]
After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypovolemia and hypotension. Following are some of the
statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
I. Increased release of vasopressin
II. Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
III. Increased rate of afferent discharge from low pressure receptors of vascular system
IV. Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
[Question ID = 15222]
1. I and II [Option ID = 30886]
2. Only III [Option ID = 30887]
3. Only I [Option ID = 30885]
4. II and IV [Option ID = 30888]
Correct Answer :-
Only I [Option ID = 30885]
During the process of exocytosis, SNAREs are needed for membrane to:
[Question ID = 15199]
1. Induce Signaling [Option ID = 30795]
2. Flip Flop [Option ID = 30794]
3. Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
4. Fuse [Option ID = 30796]
Correct Answer :-
Undergo lateral diffusion [Option ID = 30793]
In a reticulocyte lysate the polynucleotide 5?-AUGUUUUUUUUU directs the synthesis of Met-Phe-
Phe-Phe . In the presence of farsomycin, a new antibiotic perfected by Fluhardy Pharmaceuticals, this
polymer directs synthesis of Met-Phe only. From this information, which of the following deductions
could you make about farsomycin?
[Question ID = 15220]
1. It blocks translocation of peptidyl tRNA from the A-site to the P-site of the ribosome. [Option ID = 30880]
2. It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal subunits.
[Option ID = 30877]
3. It inactivates peptidyl transferase activity on the large ribosomal unit. [Option ID = 30879]
4. It inhibits binding of aminoacyl ? tRNA s to the A site in the ribosome [Option ID = 30878]
Correct Answer :-
It prevents formation of the 80S initiation complex, which contains the initiator tRNA and both ribosomal
subunits. [Option ID = 30877]
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, how does V
max
and K
m
change if the enzyme concentration is
doubled while keeping all the reaction conditions unchanged, ensuring that substrate is not limiting?
[Question ID = 15186]
1. Both V
max
and K
m
are doubled [Option ID = 30744]
2. V
max
is unchanged, while K
m
is doubled [Option ID = 30742]
3. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is unchanged [Option ID = 30743]
4. V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Correct Answer :-
V
max
is doubled, while K
m
is halved [Option ID = 30741]
Cell types are usually identified by using immuno-histochemistry technique. In such case, antibody
has to be against:
[Question ID = 15202]
1. Cell surface proteins [Option ID = 30808]
2. Ribosomal proteins [Option ID = 30807]
3. Cytosolic proteins [Option ID = 30806]
4. Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
Correct Answer :-
Mitochondrial proteins [Option ID = 30805]
In flies, frogs and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior (A-P)
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the A-P axis determined in C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15184]
1. Opposing gradients of chordin and BMP-4 establish the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30736]
2. Sperm entry leads to reorganization of the cytoskeleton and redistribution of maternally packaged PAR proteins,
which in turn determine the A-P axis. [Option ID = 30734]
3. Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
4. Beta-catenin becomes localized to the nucleus in the future anterior cells after fertilization. [Option ID = 30735]
Correct Answer :-
Bicoid protein is translated in the anterior of the fertilized egg leading to a gradient that determines the A-P axis
[Option ID = 30733]
Dye injected into an epithelial celll might be able to enter into an adjacent cell through a :
[Question ID = 15209]
1. Desmosomes [Option ID = 30835]
2. Gap junction [Option ID = 30834]
3. Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
4. Tight junction [Option ID = 30836]
Correct Answer :-
Microtubule [Option ID = 30833]
22)
23)
24)
25)
A student is carrying out PCR-based site directed mutagenesis of a gene that is cloned in a cloning
vector plasmid. The total size of this plasmid is 8kb. The student had repeatedly tried to perform the
mutagenesis experiment, however, there is no success. Which option of the following can be tried
which will help in obtaining the mutants.
[Question ID = 15195]
1. the size of the primers may be decreased [Option ID = 30778]
2. the size of the primers may be increased [Option ID = 30779]
3. the gene can be cloned into a larger size plasmid [Option ID = 30780]
4. the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
Correct Answer :-
the gene can be cloned into a much smaller size plasmid [Option ID = 30777]
A study was conducted to compare the proteome of normal individuals and cancer patients to
identify new biomarkers for cancer. The study employed the use of 2D-DIGE by labeling the normal
samples with Cy3 and cancer patient samples with Cy5. The Cy2 labeling was also employed in the
experiment because:
[Question ID = 15194]
1. There is no use of Cy2 labeling. The experiment could have been performed the same way with only two tags.
[Option ID = 30776]
2. It will help in uniform labeling of the proteins from the cancer patient samples [Option ID = 30774]
3. Using three different colours will give rise to better analysis of the spots [Option ID = 30775]
4. It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
Correct Answer :-
It can act as an internal standard for normalization of all protein spots [Option ID = 30773]
?Heyflick?s limit? refers to which one of the following phenomena?
[Question ID = 15206]
1. Cellular senescence in vitro [Option ID = 30822]
2. RNA transport [Option ID = 30824]
3. DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
4. Protein synthesis [Option ID = 30823]
Correct Answer :-
DNA repair [Option ID = 30821]
?-lactoglobulin promoter is used for expression of gene in:
[Question ID = 15198]
1. Liver [Option ID = 30789]
2. Mammary gland [Option ID = 30791]
3. Spleen [Option ID = 30790]
4. Lymph node [Option ID = 30792]
Correct Answer :-
Liver [Option ID = 30789]
If association behaviour is to be evaluated for a aggregation prone protein by analytical
ultracentrifugation, which of the following is true?
26)
27)
28)
29)
[Question ID = 15197]
1. Sedimentation coefficient will decrease with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30786]
2. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with decreasing concentration [Option ID = 30788]
3. Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
4. Sedimentation coefficient will remain unchanged with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30787]
Correct Answer :-
Sedimentation coefficient will increase with increasing concentration [Option ID = 30785]
A mature human RBC:
[Question ID = 15205]
1. Does not divide [Option ID = 30818]
2. Divides under stressful condition [Option ID = 30820]
3. Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
4. Divides every 120 days [Option ID = 30819]
Correct Answer :-
Divides once a day [Option ID = 30817]
Catabolism of which of the following amino acids requires the direct involvement of O
2
?
[Question ID = 15191]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
2. Glutamine [Option ID = 30764]
3. Isoleucine [Option ID = 30763]
4. Phenylalanine [Option ID = 30762]
Correct Answer :-
Histidine [Option ID = 30761]
Anti-cancer vitamin is:
[Question ID = 15200]
1. Pyridoxine [Option ID = 30800]
2. Phylloquinone [Option ID = 30798]
3. Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
4. Thiamine [Option ID = 30799]
Correct Answer :-
Retinol [Option ID = 30797]
Contrast the process of involution, epiboly and convergent extension.
[Question ID = 15181]
1. Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of epithelial
cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells inside the
embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
2. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a flattening and spreading
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is movement of cells toward
an axis to extend that axis. [Option ID = 30722]
3. Involution is movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is movement of cells toward an axis
to extend that axis and convergent extension is a flattening and spreading epithelial cells to increase the amount of
30)
31)
32)
33)
surface they cover. [Option ID = 30724]
4. Involution is flattening of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover, epiboly is the movement of
cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to
extend that axis. [Option ID = 30723]
Correct Answer :-
Involution is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis, epiboly is flattening and spreading of
epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover and convergent extension is the movement of cells
inside the embryo as a coherent she [Option ID = 30721]
End labeling of a DNA fragment is a prerequisite for Maxam Gilbert method of DNA sequencing.
Which of the following enzymes is used to accomplish this?
[Question ID = 15217]
1. Restriction endonucleases [Option ID = 30868]
2. Polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 30867]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
4. Taq polymerase [Option ID = 30866]
Correct Answer :-
DNA ligase [Option ID = 30865]
Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to:
[Question ID = 15204]
1. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength [Option ID = 30816]
2. Absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength [Option ID = 30815]
3. Absorb light of many different wavelengths [Option ID = 30814]
4. Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
Correct Answer :-
Continuously emit light of a constant wavelength [Option ID = 30813]
A Bronsted acid becomes ___________________ upon losing a proton
[Question ID = 15185]
1. its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
2. its conjugate base [Option ID = 30738]
3. highly reactive [Option ID = 30740]
4. a hydronium ion [Option ID = 30739]
Correct Answer :-
its conjugate acid [Option ID = 30737]
In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalysed by:
[Question ID = 15215]
1. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30859]
2. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30860]
3. DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
4. DNA Pol ? and FEN1, respectively. [Option ID = 30858]
Correct Answer :-
DNA Pol ? and PCNA, respectively. [Option ID = 30857]
34)
35)
[Question ID = 15212]
1. S phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30846]
2. G2 /M phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30847]
3. G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
4. G0 phase of cell cycle [Option ID = 30848]
Correct Answer :-
G1 phase of the cell cycle [Option ID = 30845]
36)
37)
38)
39)
[Question ID = 15211]
1. I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
2. I ? a; II ? d; III ? c [Option ID = 30842]
3. I ? a; II ? c; III ? b [Option ID = 30844]
4. I ? a; II ? e; III ? c [Option ID = 30843]
Correct Answer :-
I ? b; II ? d; III ? e [Option ID = 30841]
For a FRET experiment, an oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy3 dye, which absorbs at 540 nm and
fluoresces at 590 nm. Another oligonucleotide was labeled with Cy5 dye, which absorbs at 590 nm and
emits fluorescence at 680 nm. Which of the following observations indicate a successful FRET
experiment, whereby the two oligonucleotides anneal?
[Question ID = 15190]
1. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30759]
2. Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
3. Excitation at 540 nm results in no fluorescence emission [Option ID = 30760]
4. Excitation at 590 nm results in fluorescence emission at 680 nm [Option ID = 30758]
Correct Answer :-
Excitation at 540 nm results in fluorescence emission at 590 nm [Option ID = 30757]
What are the lin-4 and lin-14 genes of C. elegans ?
[Question ID = 15178]
1. lin-4 and lin-14 are genes that are named for their control of the first division, and hence the lineage of the AB
and P1 cells [Option ID = 30710]
2. lin-4 and lin-14 both encode miRNAs that serve as cell-cell signaling molecules in C. elegans [Option ID = 30712]
3. lin-4 and lin-14 are C. elegans versions of the HOX genes [Option ID = 30711]
4. lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
Correct Answer :-
lin-4encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates the timing of larval development
[Option ID = 30709]
What is the isoelectric point (pI) of the amino acid lysine with pK
a1
= 2.2, pK
a2
= 9.0 and pK
a3
=
10.8.
[Question ID = 15187]
1. 7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
2. 5.6 [Option ID = 30747]
3. 9.9 [Option ID = 30746]
4. 9 [Option ID = 30748]
Correct Answer :-
7.3 [Option ID = 30745]
What would happen to red blood cells if the haem group were removed from haemoglobin?
[Question ID = 15175]
1. White blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30699]
40)
41)
42)
43)
2. Red blood cells would not be able to reproduce. [Option ID = 30698]
3. Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
4. Blood clot formation would be inhibited. [Option ID = 30700]
Correct Answer :-
Red blood cells would not be able to transport oxygen [Option ID = 30697]
Which of the following changes in the gene encoding a lysosomal protein is not expected to impair
the translocation of the protein across the ER membrane? [Question ID = 15188]
1. The conversion of the two leucine codons and one phenylalanine codon near the translation initiation codon to an
isoleucine codon, an aspartic acid codon and a glutamic acid codon, respectively [Option ID = 30752]
2. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an arginine codon [Option ID =
30750]
3. The conversion of the sole lysine codon after the translation initiation codon to an aspartic acid codon [Option ID =
30751]
4. The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID =
30749]
Correct Answer :-
The deletion of the nucleotide specifying the 25 amino acids following the translation initiation codon [Option ID
= 30749]
Competitive inhibition is overcome by adding substrate shows that:
[Question ID = 15210]
1. enzymes are pH dependent [Option ID = 30839]
2. enzymes are specific in nature [Option ID = 30838]
3. enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
4. enzymes are made of proteins [Option ID = 30840]
Correct Answer :-
enzymes are biocatalysts [Option ID = 30837]
The technique known as two-hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products depend on
[Question ID = 15218]
1. Direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter region. [Option ID = 30870]
2. Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
3. Stimulation of transcription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein sequences. [Option ID = 30872]
4. Having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose interactions is beingmeasured. [Option
ID = 30871]
Correct Answer :-
Activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes. [Option ID = 30869]
The enzyme of E.coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by
homologous recombination
[Question ID = 15207]
1. RNA polymerase [Option ID = 30827]
2. DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 30825]
3. DNA ligase [Option ID = 30826]
4. DNA polymerase [Option ID = 30828]
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
Correct Answer :-
DNA glycosylase [Option ID = 30825]
The putative interaction between two proteins was identified by yeast two hybrid assays. Which of
the following technique cannot be employed to further confirm the interaction?
[Question ID = 15182]
1. Electrophoretic Mobility Shift Assay [Option ID = 30728]
2. Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer analysis [Option ID = 30726]
3. Protein Microarray [Option ID = 30727]
4. Pull Down Assay [Option ID = 30725]
Correct Answer :-
Pull Down Assay [Option ID = 30725]
The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
[Question ID = 15216]
1. regulator [Option ID = 30863]
2. repressor [Option ID = 30861]
3. inhibitor [Option ID = 30864]
4. modulator [Option ID = 30862]
Correct Answer :-
repressor [Option ID = 30861]
The pluripotency of the inner cell mass in mammals is maintained by a core of three transcription
factors namely
[Question ID = 15214]
1. Oct 4, Cdx 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30856]
2. Oct 4, Sox 2 and Cdx 2 [Option ID = 30854]
3. Oct 4, Sox 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30853]
4. Sox 2, Nanog and Cdx 2 [Option ID = 30855]
Correct Answer :-
Oct 4, Sox 2 and Nanog [Option ID = 30853]
The precursor of all N-linked oligosaccharides contains:
[Question ID = 15201]
1. Two glucose, nine mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30802]
2. Two glucose, eight mannose and four N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30804]
3. Three glucose, eight mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30801]
4. Three glucose, nine mannose and two N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30803]
Correct Answer :-
Three glucose, eight mannose and three N-acetylglucosamine. [Option ID = 30801]
The most efficient way to turn off glycogen degradation is to:
[Question ID = 15203]
49)
50)
1. Increase the activity of phosphatase [Option ID = 30811]
2. Increase the activity of phosphodiestersae [Option ID = 30810]
3. Decrease the intracellular levels of cAMP [Option ID = 30812]
4. Decrease the activity of phosphorylase kinase [Option ID = 30809]
Correct Answer :-
Decrease the activity of phosphorylase kinase [Option ID = 30809]
The A
260
/A
280
ratio of a DNA sample was observed to be 1.2. An increase in this ratio can be
obtained by subjecting the DNA sample to
[Question ID = 15183]
1. Both A and B [Option ID = 30731]
2. TCA treatment [Option ID = 30730]
3. Saline treatment [Option ID = 30732]
4. Phenol extraction [Option ID = 30729]
Correct Answer :-
Phenol extraction [Option ID = 30729]
The phospholipids of plasma membranes routinely exhibit which of the following Forms of
movement?
I. Diffusion in the plane of the bilayer
II. Translocation from one side of the bilayer to the other side
III. Rotation of fatty-acid residues around saturated carbon atoms
[Question ID = 15219]
1. III only [Option ID = 30875]
2. I and III only [Option ID = 30876]
3. I only [Option ID = 30873]
4. II only [Option ID = 30874]
Correct Answer :-
I only [Option ID = 30873]
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This post was last modified on 19 June 2020