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Exam Date: 07-Oct-2020
Exam Time: 09:00-12:00
Examination: 1. Course Code - Ph.D.
2. Field of Study - Computaional Biology &
Bioinformatics Track -1 (TROH)
SECTION 1 - PART A
Question No.1 (Question Id - 8)
If 120 is 20% of a number then 120% of that number will be :
(A)
740
(B)
720 (Correct Answer)
(C)
660
(D)
120
Question No.2 (Question Id - 4)
An unbiased die is tossed. The probability of getting an outcome of multiple of 3 :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
Question No.3 (Question Id - 5)
In a simultaneous throw of two coins, the probability of getting at least one head is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.4 (Question Id - 10)
A playground has 64 meters long and 48 meters wide and in a rectangular shape. Another
playground has the same area of rectangular shape with 24 meters wide. Then what is the perimeter
of the later ?
(A)
304 (Correct Answer)
(B)
152
(C)
256
(D)
224
Question No.5 (Question Id - 9)
If 5x + 32 = 4 - 2x, then what is the value of x ?
(A)
- 3
(B)
- 4 (Correct Answer)
(C)
4
(D)
7
Question No.6 (Question Id - 2)
The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is :
(A)
42
(B)
40
(C)
30 (Correct Answer)
(D)
36
Question No.7 (Question Id - 6)
If the circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the diameter is equal to :
(A)
(B)
2
(C)
4 (Correct Answer)
(D)
2
Question No.8 (Question Id - 3)
(A)
90?
(B)
45?
(C)
60? (Correct Answer)
(D)
30?
Question No.9 (Question Id - 7)
The three sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm respectively. Then, its area is :
(A)
(B)
30 cm2 (Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
20 cm2
Question No.10 (Question Id - 1)
Assume numbers in a data set S have a standard deviation of 5. If a new data set is formed by
adding 3 to each number in S, then what is the standard deviation of the numbers in the new data set
?
(A)
3
(B)
2
(C)
5 (Correct Answer)
(D)
8
SECTION 2 - Physics
Question No.1 (Question Id - 21)
A planet of mass m moves in the inverse square central force field of the sun of mass M. If the semi-
major and semi-minor axes of the orbit are `a' and `b' respectively, the total energy of the planet is :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.2 (Question Id - 38)
(A)
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
Question No.3 (Question Id - 29)
(A)
= eika (Correct Answer)
(B)
= e-ika
(C)
= 2cos hka
(D)
= 2sin hka
Question No.4 (Question Id - 18)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.5 (Question Id - 34)
A narrow beam of x-rays with wavelength 1.5 ? is reflected from an ionic crystal with an fcc lattice
structure with a density of 3.32 gcm-3. The molecular weight is 108 amu.
(1 amu 1.66 x 10-24 g). The lattice constant is :
(A)
6.00 ? (Correct Answer)
(B)
4.56 ?
(C)
4.00 ?
(D)
2.56 ?
Question No.6 (Question Id - 27)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.7 (Question Id - 22)
Let v, p and E denote the speed, magnitude of the momentum and the energy of a free particle of
rest mass m. Then, which of the following holds true ?
(A)
(B)
p = mv
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
E = mc2
Question No.8 (Question Id - 15)
(A)
0, 1, 2
(B)
0, 0, 3 (Correct Answer)
(C)
1, 1, 1
(D)
- 1, 1, 3
Question No.9 (Question Id - 16)
The area of a disc in its rest frame S is equal to 1 (in some units). The disc will appear distorted to an
observer O moving with a speed `u' with respect to S along the plane of the disc. The area of disc
measured in the rest frame of the observer O is : (c speed of light in vacuum)
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.10 (Question Id - 14)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
None of the above
Question No.11 (Question Id - 35)
Consider that m gram of water at 0?C is mixed with an equal amount of water at 80?C. Consequently,
the total change in entropy is given by :
(A)
0.1367 m cal g-1 K-1
(B)
- 0.1203 m cal g-1 K-1 (Correct Answer)
(C)
0.0164 m cal g-1 K-1
(D)
- 0.2570 m cal g-1 K-1
Question No.12 (Question Id - 32)
(A)
A only
(B)
B only
(C)
Both A and B (Correct Answer)
(D)
Neither A nor B
Question No.13 (Question Id - 11)
(A)
0
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
1
Question No.14 (Question Id - 19)
For the transformations :
A. Q = p, P = - q
B. Q = q tan p, P = ln sin p, whether :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
Only A is canonical
(B)
Only B is canonical
(C)
Both A and B are canonical (Correct Answer)
(D)
Neither A nor B are canonical
Question No.15 (Question Id - 37)
Consider a one-dimensional Ising model with N spins, at very low temperatures when almost all the
spins are aligned parallel to each other. There will be a few spin flips with each flip costing an energy
2 J.
In a configuration with r spin flips, the energy of the system is E = - NJ + 2rJ and the number of
configuration is NCr ; where r varies from 0 to N. The partition function is :
(A)
(B)
e - NJ/KBT
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.16 (Question Id - 39)
Bose condensation occurs in liquid He4 kept at ambient pressure at 2.17 K. At which temperature
will Bose condensation occur in He4 gaseous state, the density of which is 1000 times smaller than
that of liquid He4 ?
(Assume that it is a perfect Bose gas)
(A)
2.17 mK
(B)
21.7 mK (Correct Answer)
(C)
21.7 K
(D)
2.17 K
Question No.17 (Question Id - 23)
Four equal point charges are kept fixed at the four vertices of a square. How many neutral points
(i.e., points where electric field vanishes) will be found inside the square ?
(A)
3
(B)
4
(C)
5 (Correct Answer)
(D)
7
Question No.18 (Question Id - 17)
(A)
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
Question No.19 (Question Id - 40)
Consider a system of N particles and phase space consisting of only two states with energies 0 and
(>0). The internal energy is given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
1 + e-/KBT
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.20 (Question Id - 26)
A permanently deformed even-even nucleus with JP = 2+ has rotational energy 93 keV. The energy
of the next excited state is :
(A)
372 keV
(B)
310 keV (Correct Answer)
(C)
273 keV
(D)
186 keV
Question No.21 (Question Id - 12)
(A)
(B)
-
(C)
- 1 (Correct Answer)
(D)
0
Question No.22 (Question Id - 36)
At what temperature is the rms speed of hydrogen molecules equal to twice of that of oxygen
molecules at 63?C ?
(Given that oxygen molecule is about 16 times heavier than a hydrogen molecule)
(A)
- 179?C
(B)
- 189?C (Correct Answer)
(C)
- 199?C
(D)
- 209?C
Question No.23 (Question Id - 30)
(A)
T is hermitian
(B)
T has real eigen values
(C)
T is diagonalizable
(D)
All of the above (Correct Answer)
Question No.24 (Question Id - 31)
(A)
x, y, z are Hermitian (Correct Answer)
(B)
y, z are Hermitian, x is not Hermitian
(C)
x, z are Hermitian, y is not Hermitian
(D)
x, y, z are not Hermitian
Question No.25 (Question Id - 13)
The area of the ellipse where x = a cos and y = b sin is :
(A)
ab cos sin
(B)
2
(C)
ab
(D)
ab (Correct Answer)
Question No.26 (Question Id - 24)
(A)
0
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
Question No.27 (Question Id - 33)
The magnetic energy Vm for an electron in the 2p state of a hydrogen atom using the Bohr model,
whose n = 2 state corresponds to the 2p state is :
(A)
2.3 x 10-3 eV
(B)
2.3 x 10-5 eV (Correct Answer)
(C)
3.2 x 10-3 eV
(D)
3.2 x 10-5 eV
Question No.28 (Question Id - 28)
(A)
V0/2
(B)
V0/4 (Correct Answer)
(C)
V0/6
(D)
V0/8
Question No.29 (Question Id - 25)
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
2q
(D)
4q
Question No.30 (Question Id - 20)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
SECTION 3 - Chemistry
Question No.1 (Question Id - 63)
Term symbol for the ground electronic state of O2 molecule is :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.2 (Question Id - 52)
Different gases having the same equation of state while described in terms of dimensionless reduced
variables is called :
(A)
Franck-Condon principle
(B)
Law of corresponding state (Correct Answer)
(C)
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(D)
de-Broglie equation
Question No.3 (Question Id - 53)
The coefficient of compressibility () is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.4 (Question Id - 42)
(A)
A Ph - CH2NH2/H+, B H3O+, C t-BuOK
(B)
A H3O+, B Ph - CH2NH2/H+ , C t-BuOK
(C)
A H3O+, B t-BuOK, C Ph - CH2NH2/H+
(D)
A PhCH2NH2/H+, B t-BuOK, C H3O+ (Correct Answer)
Question No.5 (Question Id - 58)
What is the value of square integrable quantum wave function at boundaries ?
(A)
i
(B)
(C)
-
(D)
0 (Correct Answer)
Question No.6 (Question Id - 48)
The entropy of a crystalline substance at 0 K is found to be Rln(2). What is degeneracy of ground
state of the crystalline substance ?
(A)
2 (Correct Answer)
(B)
1
(C)
4
(D)
0
Question No.7 (Question Id - 47)
What is degree of freedom of triple point for systems in phase equilibrium ?
(A)
2
(B)
0 (Correct Answer)
(C)
1
(D)
3
Question No.8 (Question Id - 65)
Calculate the proportions of I2 molecules in their first excited vibrational state at 25?C. The
vibrational wave number is 214.6 cm-1.
(A)
0.229 (Correct Answer)
(B)
1/0.229
(C)
0.0229
(D)
1/0.0229
Question No.9 (Question Id - 56)
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.10 (Question Id - 50)
In Boltzmann statistics, what is the possible number of microstates, given that total energy = 3 and
total number of particles = 3 among energy levels 0, , 2 ?
(A)
1
(B)
2 (Correct Answer)
(C)
4
(D)
Infinite
Question No.11 (Question Id - 67)
Under the harmonics approximation, what is the force constant (K) for HCl molecule, if it shows a
strong infrared absorption at 2991 cm-1 ?
(mH = 1.0078250 amu, C = 2.998 x 108 ms-1, 1 amu =1.661 x 10-27 kg,
mCl = 34.9688527 amu)
(A)
516.3 Nm-1 (Correct Answer)
(B)
0.717 Nm-1
(C)
575 Nm-1
(D)
577 Nm-1
Question No.12 (Question Id - 54)
At 700 K, CO2 and H2 react to form CO and H2O, where Kc is 0.64. If a mixture of 0.45 mole of CO2
and 0.45 mole of H2 is heated to 700 K, what is the amount of each gas at equilibrium ?
(A)
1 mole
(B)
0.025 mole
(C)
0.25 mole (Correct Answer)
(D)
40 mole
Question No.13 (Question Id - 60)
Heisenberg Uncertainty principle becomes significant when :
(A)
size of object exceeds de-Broglie wave of object
(B)
de-Broglie wave exceeds size of object (Correct Answer)
(C)
de-Broglie wave becomes negligible in comparison to size of object
(D)
de-Broglie wave and object both are absent
Question No.14 (Question Id - 64)
The oxidation number of S in S8, S2F2 and H2S respectively are :
(A)
0, + 1 and - 2 (Correct Answer)
(B)
+ 2, + 1 and - 2
(C)
0, + 1 and + 2
(D)
- 2, + 1 and - 2
Question No.15 (Question Id - 66)
The values of (n
2
2
1 + n2) and (n2 - n1 ) for He+ ion in atomic spectra are 4 and 8 respectively. The
wavelength of emitted photon when e- jumps from n2 to n1 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
Question No.16 (Question Id - 44)
The expression for the reversible isothermal work of an expansion of one mole of Vander Waals gas
is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
Question No.17 (Question Id - 45)
Under what conditions heat of reaction equal to enthalpy change ?
(A)
Isobaric (Correct Answer)
(B)
Isochoric
(C)
Isothermal
(D)
Adiabatic
Question No.18 (Question Id - 62)
Arrange the following compounds in the order of increasing conductance :
HCl, LiCl, NaCl, KCl :
(A)
m(HCl) < m(KCl) < m(NaCl) < m(LiCl)
(B)
m(NaCl) < m(LiCl) < m(KCl) < m(HCl)
(C)
m(LiCl) < m(NaCl) < m(KCl) < m(HCl) (Correct Answer)
(D)
m(LiCl) < m(HCl) < m(NaCl) < m(KCl)
Question No.19 (Question Id - 69)
The absorbance, A of a sample at a given frequency of radiation is related to the percentage
transmittance T% :
(A)
A = 2 - log (T) (Correct Answer)
(B)
A = log (T)
(C)
(D)
Question No.20 (Question Id - 51)
The Maxwell distribution as a function of energy can be graphically depicted at a fixed temperature
as :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.21 (Question Id - 46)
(A)
A and B only (Correct Answer)
(B)
A and C only
(C)
B and C only
(D)
A, B and C only
Question No.22 (Question Id - 61)
(A)
0.324 V
(B)
- 0.324 V
(C)
- 0.041 V
(D)
0.041 V (Correct Answer)
Question No.23 (Question Id - 59)
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
6 (Correct Answer)
(D)
12
Question No.24 (Question Id - 57)
(A)
Hermitian Operator (Correct Answer)
(B)
Non-hermitian Operator
(C)
Anti-hermitian Operator
(D)
Anti-linear Operator
Question No.25 (Question Id - 55)
Unit of rate constant for nth order reaction is :
(A)
moln Ln-1 S-n
(B)
mol Ln-1 S-1
(C)
mol1-n L(n-1) S-1 (Correct Answer)
(D)
mol1-n L(1-n) S-1
Question No.26 (Question Id - 70)
The spin-quantum number of 13C is :
(A)
1
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
- 1
Question No.27 (Question Id - 49)
Energy levels of a system is raised by 1 a.u., while internal energy of the system is raised by 1 a.u.,
change in entropy is :
(A)
Negative
(B)
Zero (Correct Answer)
(C)
Positive
(D)
Imaginary
Question No.28 (Question Id - 43)
Arrange the following molecules in order of increasing standard molar entropy for CH2Cl2(g),
CHCl3(g) and CH3Cl(g).
(A)
S0[CH3Cl(g)] = S0[CH2Cl2(g)] = S0[CHCl3(g)]
(B)
S0[CH2Cl2(g)] > S0[CH3Cl(g)] > S0[CHCl3(g)]
(C)
S0[CH3Cl(g)] > S0[CH2Cl2(g)] > S0[CHCl3(g)]
(D)
S0[CH3Cl(g)] = S0[CH2Cl2(g) ]> S0[CHCl3(g)] (Correct Answer)
Question No.29 (Question Id - 68)
The rotational microwave spectrum constant (B) for HCl is 10.59342 cm-1. What is the bond length of
HCl ? Given : h = 6.626 x 10-34 Js, C = 2.998 x 108 ms-1, 1 amu = 1.661 x 10-27 kg, mH =
1.0078250 amu, mCl = 34.96885270 amu.
(A)
1.27455 x 10-10 m (Correct Answer)
(B)
7 x 10-10 m
(C)
1.274551 m
(D)
1.27455 x 10-15 m
Question No.30 (Question Id - 41)
Which carbocation is the most stable among them ?
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION 4 - Mathematics - Statistics
Question No.1 (Question Id - 78)
(A)
- (2 + log y) / log z
(B)
- (1 + log y) / (1 +log z) (Correct Answer)
(C)
- (1 + log x) / (1 +log z)
(D)
(1 + log y) / (1 +log x)
Question No.2 (Question Id - 88)
(A)
log-normal
(B)
normal
(C)
exponential (Correct Answer)
(D)
binomial
Question No.3 (Question Id - 90)
If a vector space V has a basis of n elements then any set of n + 1 vectors is :
(A)
Also a basis of V
(B)
Linearly independent
(C)
Linearly dependent (Correct Answer)
(D)
Linear combination does not exists
Question No.4 (Question Id - 73)
Let Pn(x) be the Legendre Polynomial of degree n, then using Rodrigue's formula, values of P3(x),
P4(x) are :
(A)
(5x3 - 3x), (35x4 - 30x2 - 3)
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
Question No.5 (Question Id - 98)
The number of odd degree vertices in a finite, simple, undirected graph is :
(A)
Even (Correct Answer)
(B)
Odd
(C)
Always a multiple of 3
(D)
Can be odd or even
Question No.6 (Question Id - 100)
A conic combination of a set of vectors v1, ........, vn Rd is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.7 (Question Id - 85)
A machine part is produced by three factories A, B and C. Their proportional production is 25, 35 and
40 percent, respectively. Also, the percentage defectives manufactured by three factories are 5, 4
and 3 respectively.A part is taken at random and is found to be defective. The probability that the
selected part belongs to factory B is :
(A)
28/503
(B)
14/276
(C)
4/11 (Correct Answer)
(D)
None of the above
Question No.8 (Question Id - 74)
The form of the Legendre's differential equation is :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.9 (Question Id - 84)
The probability distribution of a random variable X is given in the adjoining table.
x : -2 3 1
p(x) : 1/3 1/2 1/6
If Y = (2X + 5), what is the variance of Y ?
(A)
5
(B)
20 (Correct Answer)
(C)
25
(D)
0
Question No.10 (Question Id - 75)
(A)
C1 tan-1x + C2
(B)
C1 (x - e-x) + C2 (Correct Answer)
(C)
x2 + C2x + C1
(D)
C
x
1e1 + C2e2x
Question No.11 (Question Id - 97)
Every graph G = (V, E) with m = |E| satisfies the following inequality on its chromatic number (G) :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.12 (Question Id - 83)
(A)
43.48%
(B)
56.52%
(C)
81.10% (Correct Answer)
(D)
18.90%
Question No.13 (Question Id - 81)
The kinematic viscosity of a liquid is 6 stokes and specific gravity is 1.9. The viscosity of the liquid is
:
(A)
1.14 poise
(B)
11.04 poise
(C)
11.40 poise (Correct Answer)
(D)
11.10 poise
Question No.14 (Question Id - 96)
Let D be a set of n disks drawn in the plane, such that no point in the plane is contained in more than
two disks. The minimum number of colors required to color the disks such that any point in the plane
covered by two disks is not covered by disks of the same color is :
(A)
4 (Correct Answer)
(B)
5
(C)
6
(D)
n
Question No.15 (Question Id - 99)
Which of the following are equivalent to the following statement ?
T = (V, E) is a tree.
(A)
Any two vertices of T are connected by a simple path.
(B)
|V(T)| = |E(T)| - 1.
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
T is a minimally connected graph, i.e., T is connected, but T \ e is disconnected for any e
E(T).
(Correct Answer)
Question No.16 (Question Id - 77)
(A)
C1 log x + C2 + 2 log x3
(B)
C1 + C2 log x + 2 (log x)3 (Correct Answer)
(C)
C1 + xC2 + (log x)3
(D)
C1x + x2C2 + (log x)
Question No.17 (Question Id - 86)
The first four moments of a distribution about the origin are 1, 4, 10 and 46 respectively. The value of
Karl Pearson's Coefficient 1 is :
(A)
100/64
(B)
100/46
(C)
0 (Correct Answer)
(D)
16/46
Question No.18 (Question Id - 89)
Let, W = {(x, y, z)R3 : x - 4y + 3z = 0}. The dimension of W is :
(A)
1
(B)
2 (Correct Answer)
(C)
3
(D)
4
Question No.19 (Question Id - 79)
(A)
Hyperbola
(B)
Ellipse
(C)
Parabola
(D)
Circle (Correct Answer)
Question No.20 (Question Id - 87)
(A)
2Y = 5X - 28 (Correct Answer)
(B)
3Y = 2X - 1
(C)
8Y = 4X + 42
(D)
None of the above
Question No.21 (Question Id - 93)
Let T : R2 R2 be the transformation that rotates each point in R2 through an angle , with counter
clockwise rotation for a positive angle. The standard matrix for this transformation is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
Question No.22 (Question Id - 92)
The quadratic surface whose equation is 4x2 + 9y2 - z2 - 54y - 50z = 544 is described by :
(A)
Hyperboloid of two sheets
(B)
Hyperboloid of one sheet
(C)
Elliptic cone (Correct Answer)
(D)
Elliptic paraboloid
Question No.23 (Question Id - 71)
The value of x Jn'(x) is, when Jn(x) is Bessel function of first kind and order n :
(A)
x Jn-1(x) - n Jn(x) (Correct Answer)
(B)
x Jn+1(x) - n2 Jn(x)
(C)
x2 Jn-1(x) + n Jn(x)
(D)
x Jn-1(x) - (n+1) Jn(x)
Question No.24 (Question Id - 94)
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.25 (Question Id - 72)
First order derivative of x J1(x) is given by :
Where J1(x) is the Bessel function of the first kind with order one.
(A)
x J0(x) (Correct Answer)
(B)
- x J0(x)
(C)
x2 J1(x)
(D)
- x2 J1(x)
Question No.26 (Question Id - 80)
Solve (1 + x2)y'' + 2xy' = 0.
(A)
y = C1 cos-1x + C2
(B)
y = C1 tan-1x + C2 (Correct Answer)
(C)
y = C1 sin-1x + C2
(D)
y = C1 tan x + C2
Question No.27 (Question Id - 82)
The motion in which the velocity potential is single-valued is called :
(A)
Laminar
(B)
Turbulent
(C)
Cyclic
(D)
Acyclic (Correct Answer)
Question No.28 (Question Id - 76)
(A)
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
(D)
Question No.29 (Question Id - 95)
The tightest upper bound on the maximum number of edges in a planar bipartite graph with n vertices
is at most :
(A)
2n - 6
(B)
3n - 6
(C)
2n - 4 (Correct Answer)
(D)
2n - 3
Question No.30 (Question Id - 91)
(A)
A is not diagonalizable (Correct Answer)
(B)
A is diagonalizable
(C)
The eigen space of A is 2-dimensional
(D)
A has two distinct eigen values
SECTION 5 - Computer Science - Programming
Question No.1 (Question Id - 118)
Non-left recursive version of the following grammar
S S + A A
A A - B C
C (S) a
wil be :
(A)
S AS, S + AS , A CA, A - B A , C (S) a
(B)
S AS', S' + AS', A CA', A' - BA', C (S) a
(C)
S AS', S' + AS' , A CA', A' - BA', C (S) a (Correct Answer)
(D)
S AS', S' + AS' , A CA, A - BA, C (S) a
Question No.2 (Question Id - 115)
Which one of the following is a top-down parser ?
(A)
Recursive descend parser (Correct Answer)
(B)
Operator precedence parser
(C)
An LR (K) parser
(D)
An LALR (K) parser
Question No.3 (Question Id - 122)
(A)
2
(B)
20 (Correct Answer)
(C)
10
(D)
8
Question No.4 (Question Id - 114)
Which set represents the language generated by the following grammar ?
S 1A0
A 1A0
Where S is the starting symbol, set of terminals is {0, 1}, set of non-terminals is {S, A}, is the null
symbol.
(A)
{1n 0n n 0}
(B)
{1n 0n n > 0} (Correct Answer)
(C)
{1m 0n m 0, n 0}
(D)
{1m 0n m > 0, n > 0}
Question No.5 (Question Id - 105)
Which problem can't be solved efficiently using dynamic programming ?
(A)
Matrix-Chain Multiplication
(B)
Longest Common Subsequence
(C)
Huffman Coding (Correct Answer)
(D)
Optimal Binary Search Tree
Question No.6 (Question Id - 119)
Which of the CPU scheduling algorithm is suitable for multi-user system ?
(A)
Shortest Job First
(B)
Round Robin (Correct Answer)
(C)
Priority Algorithm
(D)
First Come First Serve
Question No.7 (Question Id - 116)
(A)
A II, B III, C IV, D I
(B)
A II, B I, C III, D IV
(C)
A III, B IV, C I, D II (Correct Answer)
(D)
A I, B IV, C II, D III
Question No.8 (Question Id - 113)
Which string belong to the regular expression (1 + 01)* ?
(A)
1010
(B)
1001
(C)
1011 (Correct Answer)
(D)
0011
Question No.9 (Question Id - 128)
Total number of keys required for a set of 25 persons to be able to communicate with each other
securely using symmetric key cryptosystem and public key cryptosystem, respectively are :
(A)
600, 50
(B)
600, 25
(C)
300, 50 (Correct Answer)
(D)
300, 25
Question No.10 (Question Id - 104)
How many comparisons will be done in insertion sort for the following input ?
2 4 6 8 9 7 5 3 1
(A)
24
(B)
28
(C)
30
(D)
27 (Correct Answer)
Question No.11 (Question Id - 130)
Person X is sending secure message to person Y. X encrypts message M, using Y's public key and
also attaches his digital signature to the encrypted message. We have four security goals to achieve
I. Confidentiality
II. Authentication
III. Integrity
IV. Non-repudiation
Which security goals are achieved using given form of communication ?
(A)
Only I and II
(B)
Only I, II and III (Correct Answer)
(C)
Only II and III
(D)
Only I, III and IV
Question No.12 (Question Id - 106)
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
1
(D)
4 (Correct Answer)
Question No.13 (Question Id - 127)
A bit-stuffing based protocol uses an 8-bit delimeter pattern 01111110. If the output bit string after bit-
stuffing is 01111011111011101, then the input bit string is :
(A)
0111101111101101
(B)
0111101111111101 (Correct Answer)
(C)
011111011111011101
(D)
01111111111011101
Question No.14 (Question Id - 120)
Assume that the current head position of the disk lies at track 30 and there are requests to process
I/O operations at tracks - 36, 25, 40, 60, 55, 78 in queue. Find the total seek time for shortest seek
time first algorithm, assuming that time taken to move head between two consecutive track is 1
millisecond :
(A)
58 milliseconds (Correct Answer)
(B)
50 milliseconds
(C)
78 milliseconds
(D)
36 milliseconds
Question No.15 (Question Id - 117)
Transformation of the following grammar
SiEtS iEtSeS iEtSeiEtS a
into equivalent grammar using left factoring will be :
(A)
S iEtSeSeiEtSa
(B)
S iEtS eiEtSeSa
(C)
S iEtSS' a
S' eS eiEtS
(D)
S iEtSS'a
S' eiEtSeS
(Correct Answer)
Question No.16 (Question Id - 112)
(A)
0
(B)
(000)*
(C)
(00)*0 (Correct Answer)
(D)
(00)*
Question No.17 (Question Id - 110)
Characters a, b, c, d of string "abcd" are pushed on to a stack in the same order, but character on
stack top can be popped out at any time. Which one of the following strings cannot be generated as
output ?
(A)
abdc
(B)
dcba
(C)
cbda
(D)
cabd (Correct Answer)
Question No.18 (Question Id - 129)
In Selective Repeat Protocol with window size 8, assume a sender sends 6 packets 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and
5. The sender receives on ACK with ack No = 3. What is the interpretation ?
(A)
packets 0, 1, and 2 have been received uncorrupted.
(B)
packets 0, 1, 2, and 3 have been received uncorrupted.
(C)
packet 3 has been received uncorrupted, but packets 0, 1, 2 are corrupted.
(D)
packet 3 has been received uncorrupted, but status of packets 0, 1, 2 are unknown.
(Correct Answer)
Question No.19 (Question Id - 126)
Let R1 & R2 are two relation schemas such that R2 R1. An schema R3 = R1 - R2 is defined so that
R3 x R2 R1. Then what is the relationship between schemas R1, R2 & R3 ?
(A)
R3 = R1 ? R2 (Correct Answer)
(B)
R3 = R1 x R2
(C)
R3 = R1 R2
(D)
R3 = R1 - R2
Question No.20 (Question Id - 124)
(A)
The schedule is serializable as T2; T3; T1
(B)
The schedule is serializable as T2; T1; T3
(C)
The schedule is serializable as T3; T2; T1
(D)
The schedule is not serializable (Correct Answer)
Question No.21 (Question Id - 108)
(A)
ABCDEFGHIJ
(B)
ABDEHCFIGJ (Correct Answer)
(C)
DHEBIFJGCA
(D)
DBEHAIFCJG
Question No.22 (Question Id - 101)
Von Neumann computers belong to which one of the following classes of computer ?
(A)
SIMD
(B)
MIMD
(C)
MISD
(D)
SISD (Correct Answer)
Question No.23 (Question Id - 123)
The mapping cardinality between Student and Subject entity sets is an example of :
(A)
one to one relationship
(B)
one to many relationship
(C)
many to one relationship
(D)
many to many relationship (Correct Answer)
Question No.24 (Question Id - 125)
Let R = (A, B, C, D, E, F) be a relation schema with the functional dependencies
C F, E A, EC D & A B. Which of the following is a key of R ?
(A)
CD
(B)
EC (Correct Answer)
(C)
AE
(D)
AC
Question No.25 (Question Id - 109)
Which of the following stack configuration is not possible to solve the arithmetic expression - ((4 x 5) -
(6 + 7)) ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(Correct Answer)
Question No.26 (Question Id - 111)
Which statement is true about Turing Machine ?
(A)
It has read head only.
(B)
It has write head only.
(C)
It has read/write head. (Correct Answer)
(D)
It requires extra tape (storage) other than input tape.
Question No.27 (Question Id - 121)
Assume that main memory access time is 1 millisecond and associative memory access time is 1
microsecond, then find an estimated probability of associative memory hit if the effective main
memory access time is not more than 100 microseconds :
(A)
0.01
(B)
0.001
(C)
0.1 (Correct Answer)
(D)
0.0001
Question No.28 (Question Id - 103)
Time complexity of matrix multiplication is :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.29 (Question Id - 102)
When an interrupt occurs, which one of the following take place ?
(A)
Execution of the current instruction is completed and the address of the next
instruction is saved before the interrupt service program starts.
(Correct Answer)
(B)
Execution of the current instruction is aborted and its address is saved before the interrupt
service program starts.
(C)
Execution of the current instruction is completed and the interrupt service program starts.
(D)
Execution of current instruction is aborted and the interrupt service program starts.
Question No.30 (Question Id - 107)
What is the worst case time required to search a given element in a sorted linked list of
length n ?
(A)
O(1)
(B)
O(log2n)
(C)
O(n) (Correct Answer)
(D)
O(n log2n)
SECTION 6 - Life Science - Biotechnology
Question No.1 (Question Id - 147)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
In two-dimensional gel electrophoresis, first dimension is SDS - PAGE.
Statement II :
In two-dimensional gel electrophoresis, the second dimension is Iso-electric Focusing (IF).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false (Correct Answer)
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question No.2 (Question Id - 138)
Which of the following is a consequence of incomplete removal of topological links during DNA
replication ?
(A)
Ligation
(B)
Catenation (Correct Answer)
(C)
Fragmentation
(D)
Crossing Over
Question No.3 (Question Id - 152)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
RNA polymerase I synthesizes mRNA in the nucleoplasm.
Statement II :
RNA polymerase II synthesizes rRNA in the nucleolus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false (Correct Answer)
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question No.4 (Question Id - 143)
How many base pairs per turn are present in B form of DNA ?
(A)
~10 (Correct Answer)
(B)
~20
(C)
~50
(D)
~100
Question No.5 (Question Id - 146)
Which of the following organelles could be engineered for multienzyme metabolic pathways in plants
?
(A)
Peroxisomes and Lysosomes
(B)
Pyrenoids and Lysosomes
(C)
Lysosomes and Mitochondria
(D)
Peroxisomes and Pyrenoids (Correct Answer)
Question No.6 (Question Id - 150)
The position of particular genes on the cytological map can be determined directly by the following
technique :
(A)
TILLING
(B)
Chromosomal staining
(C)
In situ hybridization (Correct Answer)
(D)
Nuclease treatment
Question No.7 (Question Id - 142)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Guide RNA is complementary to the sequence of DNA to be edited.
Statement II :
Protospacer Adjacent Motif (PAM) is essential for recognition of target sequence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question No.8 (Question Id - 157)
DNA fragmentation for genome sequencing can be done by :
A. Sonication
B. Chemical treatment
C. UV - treatment
D. EMS - treatment
E. Temperature treatment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A and B only (Correct Answer)
(B)
C only
(C)
C and D only
(D)
C and E only
Question No.9 (Question Id - 149)
DNA is attached to nuclear matrix at a site called :
(A)
Chromosome territories
(B)
Scaffold attachment regions (Correct Answer)
(C)
Chromocenter
(D)
Centromeric regions
Question No.10 (Question Id - 132)
Which of the following represent correct order of results obtained after assembly of sequenced reads
?
(A)
Nucleotide, read, contig, scaffold, pseudomolecule (Correct Answer)
(B)
Contig, read, nucleotide, scaffold, pseudomolecule
(C)
Scaffold, contig, nucleotide, read, pseudomolecule
(D)
Nucleotide, pseudomolecule, read, contig, scaffold
Question No.11 (Question Id - 154)
Which of the following is the likely reason of origin and expansion of multigene families ?
(A)
Horizontal gene transfer
(B)
Endosymbiosis
(C)
Gene duplication (Correct Answer)
(D)
None of the above
Question No.12 (Question Id - 131)
Which of the following statements are correct ?
A. Nucleases hydrolize an ester bond within a phosphodiester bond.
B. Phosphatases hydrolize an ester bond in a phosphomonoester bond.
C. Restriction endonucleases can cleave DNA without sequence specificity.
D. Name of restriction endonucleases are typically derived from the bacterium from which they are
discovered.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A, B and C only
(B)
A, B and D only (Correct Answer)
(C)
B, C and D only
(D)
A, C and D only
Question No.13 (Question Id - 136)
At which of the following steps of protein synthesis GTP is required ?
(A)
Attachment of mRNA to ribosomes
(B)
Translocation of tRNA - nascent protein complex from A to P bit (Correct Answer)
(C)
Attachment of ribosome to endoplasmic reticulum
(D)
Amino acyl-tRNA synthetase activation of amino acid
Question No.14 (Question Id - 135)
Which of the following methods provide a rapid route to optimize plant metabolic engineering and
could act as a production platform ?
(A)
Transient expression in Arabidopsis
(B)
Transient expression in Nicotiana (Correct Answer)
(C)
Transient expression in Rice
(D)
Transient expression in Catharanthus
Question No.15 (Question Id - 155)
T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for :
(A)
Labeling 5' end of DNA (Correct Answer)
(B)
Labeling 3' end of DNA
(C)
Ligation of two DNA fragments
(D)
Restriction digestion of double stranded DNA
Question No.16 (Question Id - 140)
For which of the following crops, barnase/barstar based hybrid production system is available in India
?
(A)
Rice
(B)
Mustard (Correct Answer)
(C)
Maize
(D)
Sorghum
Question No.17 (Question Id - 144)
In e-value, what does `e' stand for ?
(A)
Error
(B)
Expected (Correct Answer)
(C)
Evidence
(D)
ENTREZ
Question No.18 (Question Id - 145)
For analysis of a chromosomal DNA, Southern blot technique involves following major steps :
A. blotting
B. electrophoresis
C. autoradiography
D. cleavage
E. hybridization
Which would be the correct sequence of the steps ?
(A)
C, B, A, D, E
(B)
D, B, A, E, C (Correct Answer)
(C)
A, B, C, D, E
(D)
E, A, D, C, B
Question No.19 (Question Id - 156)
Which of the following are sequence databases ?
A. NCBI, GenBank and FASTA
B. FTP, FASTA, and NCBI
C. EMBL, DDBJ, and GenBank
D. EMBL, GenBank, and NCBI
E. FTP, GenBank, and NCBI
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
A and D only
(B)
B only
(C)
C only (Correct Answer)
(D)
A, D and E only
Question No.20 (Question Id - 141)
GATEWAY cloning system is based on :
(A)
Restriction digestion
(B)
Ligation reaction
(C)
Recombination reaction (Correct Answer)
(D)
Phosphorylation reaction
Question No.21 (Question Id - 160)
The most abundant secondary structure in a properly folded Myoglobin and haemoglobin is :
(A)
Parallel -sheets
(B)
Antiparallel -sheets
(C)
Left handed -helix
(D)
Right handed -helix (Correct Answer)
Question No.22 (Question Id - 134)
Non-sense mediated RNA decay in Eukaryotes :
(A)
detects and degrades RNA transcript containing non-sense mutation
(B)
regulates the expression of many genes carrying no non-sense mutation
(C)
both 1 and 2 (Correct Answer)
(D)
none of the above
Question No.23 (Question Id - 151)
Klenow fragment of E. coli DNA polymerase I possesses which of the following activities ?
(A)
5' - 3' exonuclease activity
(B)
Reverse transcriptase and nick - translation activity
(C)
Polymerase activity and 3'-5'-exonuclease activity (Correct Answer)
(D)
Polymerase and nick-translation activity
Question No.24 (Question Id - 139)
The rule that describes intron splicing is :
(A)
GU - AG (Correct Answer)
(B)
AU - AG
(C)
AU - GU
(D)
AG - AU
Question No.25 (Question Id - 158)
For Amplication of an Inronless gene which of the following template can be used ?
(A)
cDNA
(B)
Genomic DNA
(C)
None of the above
(D)
Both 1 and 2 (Correct Answer)
Question No.26 (Question Id - 153)
Helical structure of DNA is determined by which of the following ?
(A)
X-Ray diffraction measurement (Correct Answer)
(B)
Neutron diffraction measurement
(C)
Electron diffraction measurement
(D)
Diffraction of Visible light
Question No.27 (Question Id - 159)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
The Eukaryotic ribosome contains three species of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and ~50 different
ribosomal proteins (r-proteins).
Statement II :
The Prokaryotic ribosome is an assembly of four rRNA, ~80 r-proteins and more than 150 non-
ribosomal factors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)
Both Statement I and Statement II are false (Correct Answer)
(C)
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(D)
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Question No.28 (Question Id - 148)
Cleavage site of Type I restriction endonuclease is :
(A)
Same as recognition site
(B)
24 - 26 bp downstream of recognition site
(C)
Non-specific but at least 1000 bp away from the recognition site (Correct Answer)
(D)
Random
Question No.29 (Question Id - 137)
Which of the following are the most abundant DNA-based molecular markers in genome ?
(A)
Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)
(B)
Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)
(C)
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) (Correct Answer)
(D)
Simple Sequence Repeats (SSRs)
Question No.30 (Question Id - 133)
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion A :
Fire and Mello got the Noble prize for the discovery of RNA interference.
Reason R :
RNA interference is a novel gene silencing technique with tremendous applications in
biotechnology.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A)
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (Correct Answer)
(B)
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C)
A is correct but R is not correct.
(D)
A is not correct but R is correct.
SECTION 7 - Bioinformatics
Question No.1 (Question Id - 185)
Predicting RNA secondary structure from the primary sequence is a difficult task. One of the simplest
algorithm called "NUSSINOV" makes use of __________ approach to predict the same.
(A)
Fuzzy logic
(B)
Ensemble
(C)
Dynamic programming (Correct Answer)
(D)
Decision tree
Question No.2 (Question Id - 189)
Four stranded nucleic acid is found in :
(A)
3'-regions of chromosomal DNA (Correct Answer)
(B)
Translation initiation site of ribosome
(C)
Micro RNA precursors
(D)
Intron-Exon boundaries
Question No.3 (Question Id - 179)
Major and Minor groves are :
(A)
Drug binding locations of proteins
(B)
Sites of lipid bilayer where water can be trapped
(C)
Sites of specific interaction with DNA double helix (Correct Answer)
(D)
Communication channel of trans-membrane proteins
Question No.4 (Question Id - 182)
In the Eukaryotic Gene finder program called "Gen Scan" one of the following computational
framework is employed :
(A)
Markov Chain
(B)
Hidden Markov Model (Correct Answer)
(C)
Information theoretic
(D)
Game theoretic
Question No.5 (Question Id - 166)
One of the following method is not used in phylogenetic tree construction :
(A)
nearest neighbour
(B)
B-tree (Correct Answer)
(C)
UPGMA
(D)
Maximum likelihood
Question No.6 (Question Id - 171)
Minisequencing is performed to :
(A)
Determine unknown DNA sequences
(B)
Provide evidence of very specific and exactly defined mutations (Correct Answer)
(C)
Examine directly the base that is second-last to the 3'base of the primer
(D)
Investigate a small number of probes for a specific mutation
Question No.7 (Question Id - 169)
Which of the statement is false ?
(A)
Molecular clock hypothesis assumes uniform rate of mutation in the tree branches.
(B)
The number of substitutions in each branch of a phylogenetic tree is generally
assumed to vary according to Boltzmann distribution.
(Correct Answer)
(C)
Basal node represents a common ancestor of all the other sequences.
(D)
The sum of all the branched lengths in a tree is the tree length.
Question No.8 (Question Id - 175)
For assembly of sequence of total length `G', from `N' reads of equal length `L', the coverage a =
NL/G has to be :
(A)
> 1 (Correct Answer)
(B)
< 1
(C)
0
(D)
1
Question No.9 (Question Id - 187)
Splice variants of a protein is possible :
(A)
in prokaryotic and eukaryotic systems
(B)
for genes without any introns
(C)
for genes with many introns (Correct Answer)
(D)
for genes with single intron
Question No.10 (Question Id - 188)
Large scale gene expression are carried out with microarray technologies and values can be
expressed in n x m matrix form where n is the number of genes and m represents the conditions or
time. If we find gene transcripts with similar expression patterns this means :
(A)
under expression
(B)
co-expression (Correct Answer)
(C)
over-expression
(D)
no expression
Question No.11 (Question Id - 184)
The genome wide binding of protein or transcription factor is studied experimentally through CHIP-
SEQ. The Reads are aligned to the reference genome and one of the software tool is used to derive
common motif :
(A)
NGS-TOF
(B)
BOWTIE
(C)
MEME (Correct Answer)
(D)
Fast Q
Question No.12 (Question Id - 174)
One can use the following formula for calculation of melting temperature (Tm) of DNA double helix :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.13 (Question Id - 181)
Randomized sequences with same composition are constructed to :
(A)
construct SNP variants
(B)
determine promoter sequence
(C)
ascertain homology of two protein sequences having medium similarity (Correct
Answer)
(D)
determine histone binding sequences
Question No.14 (Question Id - 173)
The average multiplication factor per cycle in PCR is approximately :
(A)
2.1
(B)
1.1
(C)
1.6 (Correct Answer)
(D)
1
Question No.15 (Question Id - 186)
The first completed genome sequencing project was of :
(A)
E. coli
(B)
Haemophilus influenza
(C)
PhiX174 (Correct Answer)
(D)
Drosophila melanogaster
Question No.16 (Question Id - 162)
Which of the following structural motif occurs in RNA predicted structure only ?
(A)
Pleated sheet
(B)
Pseudknot (Correct Answer)
(C)
3.10 helix
(D)
Hairpin loop
Question No.17 (Question Id - 161)
Co-evolution can be tested by studying
A. Contact analysis
B. Secondary structure analysis
C. Sequence analysis
D. Topology analysis
Which combination is true ?
(A)
A and B
(B)
B and C
(C)
C and D
(D)
A and C (Correct Answer)
Question No.18 (Question Id - 190)
If we consider two gene expression profiles for the time series A = (0, 2, - 2, 3, - 3) and another time
series B = (0, 1, - 1, 10, - 10). It may be noted that the expression pattern looks similar. If we are
computing the Pearson Correlation Coefficient (PCC) for the time series A and B using the above
mentioned values yields :
(A)
0.66
(B)
0.88 (Correct Answer)
(C)
0.77
(D)
0.55
Question No.19 (Question Id - 180)
Which of the following sets of amino acids tend to remain conserved in a given family ?
(A)
Cys, His and Val
(B)
Asp, Glu and Gln
(C)
His, Pro and Phe
(D)
Cys, Gly and Pro (Correct Answer)
Question No.20 (Question Id - 183)
If we consider a typical Hidden Markov Model framework first a sequence of states visited denoted by
q1, q2, q3 ........... and second a sequence of emitted symbols o1, o2 .... Their generation can be
visualized as a two step process. What is the name of the algorithm in the HMM framework
determines the state path ?
(A)
Forward algorithm
(B)
Backward algorithm
(C)
Viterbi algorithm (Correct Answer)
(D)
Baum-Welsch algorithm
Question No.21 (Question Id - 168)
One of the following is not the usual axioms of distance :
(A)
non-negativity
(B)
symmetry
(C)
triangle property
(D)
degeneracy (Correct Answer)
Question No.22 (Question Id - 170)
(A)
A and B
(B)
B and C
(C)
C and D (Correct Answer)
(D)
D and A
Question No.23 (Question Id - 165)
Which one of the following method for multiple sequence alignment is faster ?
(A)
Dynamic programming
(B)
Progressive alignment (Correct Answer)
(C)
Gibbs sampling
(D)
Monte Carlo
Question No.24 (Question Id - 172)
Molarity of urea used in sequencing is :
(A)
1 M
(B)
3 M
(C)
5 M
(D)
7 M (Correct Answer)
Question No.25 (Question Id - 164)
In the progressive multiple alignment method, for the given set of sequences, the first step is to
order the sequences :
(A)
by length
(B)
by distances (Correct Answer)
(C)
by compositions
(D)
by k-mer
Question No.26 (Question Id - 177)
Ainfensin's experiment deals with :
A. Spontaneous folding
B. Denaturing of protein
C. Entropic trap
D. Misfolding
Which of the following is true ?
(A)
A and B (Correct Answer)
(B)
B and C
(C)
C and D
(D)
None
Question No.27 (Question Id - 178)
Vander Waals potential acts between :
(A)
Any types of pairs of atoms, including those of inert gas (Correct Answer)
(B)
C = O and H - N atoms of two peptides
(C)
Only between side chain atoms of proteins
(D)
Between negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA or RNA
Question No.28 (Question Id - 163)
The entries in the substitution matrices such as PAM, BLOSUM are nothing but :
(A)
odds ratio
(B)
log odds ratio (Correct Answer)
(C)
amino acid count
(D)
amino acid weights
Question No.29 (Question Id - 176)
Peptide bond between amino acids can be classified as :
(A)
a type of hydrogen bond
(B)
a covalent bond about which , torsional rotations are possible
(C)
a bond important for side chain rotameric states
(D)
a covalent bond with partial double bond character (Correct Answer)
Question No.30 (Question Id - 167)
There are several ways of building a tree with "n" species. In phylogenetic tree if one is interested in
only for possible rooted tree then the number is given by :
(A)
(B)
(Correct Answer)
(C)
n! (n - 2)!
(D)
n (n - 1)!
SECTION 8 - Electronics - Electrical Engineering
Question No.1 (Question Id - 205)
The coding efficiency is given by :
(A)
1 - Redundancy (Correct Answer)
(B)
1 + Redundancy
(C)
1/(1 - Redundancy)
(D)
1/(1 + Redundancy)
Question No.2 (Question Id - 208)
As the bandwidth approaches infinite, the channel capacity becomes (S is the average signal power
and is the spectral power density) :
(A)
Infinite
(B)
Zero
(C)
(Correct Answer)
(D)
1
Question No.3 (Question Id - 198)
Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A)
MESFETs and JFETs are always buried channel devices
(B)
MODFETs are surface channel devices
(C)
MOSFETs and MISFETs are mostly surface channel devices
(D)
In MOSFETs the source and drain are common formed by thermal oxidation process
(Correct Answer)
Question No.4 (Question Id - 192)
A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If values of all the resistor are doubled
then the voltage across each resistor is :
(A)
Halved
(B)
Doubled
(C)
Increased by four times
(D)
Remain unchanged (Correct Answer)
Question No.5 (Question Id - 215)
The radiation resistance of half-wave dipole is :
(A)
14.6 ohm
(B)
73 ohm (Correct Answer)
(C)
36.5 ohm
(D)
100 ohm
Question No.6 (Question Id - 195)
The LED (Light Emitting Diode) operates under :
(A)
Forward bias condition (Correct Answer)
(B)
Reverse bias condition
(C)
Independent of bias
(D)
Both forward and reverse bias
Question No.7 (Question Id - 200)
The voltage gain of an amplifier is 100 on applying negative feedback with = 0.03, its gain will be
reduced to :
(A)
70
(B)
99.97
(C)
25 (Correct Answer)
(D)
3
Question No.8 (Question Id - 212)
If the electric field intensity is given by E = xax + yay + zaz volt/meter, the potential difference between
X(2, 0, 0) and Y(1, 2, 3) is :
(A)
+ 1 Volt
(B)
- 1 Volt
(C)
+ 5 Volt (Correct Answer)
(D)
+ 6 Volt
Question No.9 (Question Id - 194)
Fourier transform of f (t) = e-|t| / is :
(A)
(Correct Answer)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Question No.10 (Question Id - 193)
Identify the signal e-5tu(t) is :
(A)
Periodic signal
(B)
Power signal
(C)
Energy signal (Correct Answer)
(D)
Neither an energy nor power signal
Question No.11 (Question Id - 204)
The output Q(t + 1) of a JK flip-flop is 1. It changes to 0, when a clock pulse is applied. The input J
and K are respectively :
(A)
X and 0
(B)
0 and 1
(C)
X and 1 (Correct Answer)
(D)
1 and X
Question No.12 (Question Id - 201)
The minimum number of bits requires to represent negative number in the range of - 1 to - 11 using
2's complements arithmetic is :
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5 (Correct Answer)
Question No.13 (Question Id - 220)
Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN ?
(A)
CDMA
(B)
CSMA/CA (Correct Answer)
(C)
ALOHA
(D)
CSMA/CD
Question No.14 (Question Id - 199)
The voltage divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to :
(A)
Limit the input ac signal going to the base
(B)
Make the operating point almost independent of (Correct Answer)
(C)
Reduced the dc base current
(D)
Reduced the cost of the circuit
Question No.15 (Question Id - 213)
While defining polarization of a wave, we consider :
(A)
The orientation of electric and magnetic field components
(B)
The orientation of electric field components (Correct Answer)
(C)
The orientation of magnetic field components
(D)
Neither the orientation of electric nor magnetic field components
Question No.16 (Question Id - 214)
A sphere of 2 meter radius has a point charge of 8 nC at its centre. Find the electric flux passing
through that part of the sphere between ? 60? latitude and ? 20? longitude. Note that latitude are
measured north and south of the equator but is measured from the north pole.
(A)
679 pC
(B)
769 pC (Correct Answer)
(C)
967 pC
(D)
470 pC
Question No.17 (Question Id - 203)
A 4-variables logic circuit can be designed using :
(A)
32 : 1 MUX
(B)
8 : 1 MUX and one inverter (Correct Answer)
(C)
2 : 1 MUX
(D)
64 : 1 MUX
Question No.18 (Question Id - 216)
The current amplitude of a uniform 4-element end-fire array having an element with spacing of /4
and a progressive shift = - /2 is :
(A)
1 : 3 : 3 : 1
(B)
1 : 4 : 4 : 1
(C)
1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (Correct Answer)
(D)
1 : 5 : 5 : 1
Question No.19 (Question Id - 206)
Four independent messages have bandwidth of 100 Hz, 100 Hz, 200 Hz and 400 Hz, respectively.
Each is sampled at Nyquist rate and transmitted sample rate (in Hz) is :
(A)
800
(B)
1600
(C)
400
(D)
3200 (Correct Answer)
Question No.20 (Question Id - 219)
Ethernet frame consists of :
(A)
MAC address (Correct Answer)
(B)
IP address
(C)
Default mask
(D)
Network address
Question No.21 (Question Id - 207)
A Quaternary source generates information with probabilities P1 = 0.1, P2 = 0.2, P3 = 0.3 and P4 =
0.4. The entropy (bits/message) of the system is :
(A)
1.8564
(B)
1.8569
(C)
1.8464 (Correct Answer)
(D)
2
Question No.22 (Question Id - 211)
Quarter wave-length line is a/an :
(A)
Impedance to resistance conversion line
(B)
Impedance transformer (Correct Answer)
(C)
Line to separate source and load
(D)
Stub matching line
Question No.23 (Question Id - 217)
Transmit antenna of 75 meter height radiates 35 kW at 90 MHz uniformly in horizontal plane, the
maximum line-of-sight range and strength of the signal at received antenna of 10 km at the distance
of 8 km is :
(A)
48.70 km (Correct Answer)
(B)
57.68 km
(C)
75.60 km
(D)
50.75 km
Question No.24 (Question Id - 218)
A lossless 100 ohm transmission line is terminated in 50 + j 75 , the voltage reflection coefficient
and VSWR are :
(A)
0.432 - 43?, 2
(B)
0.333 - 37?, 4.3
(C)
0.45 - 47?, 4
(D)
0.537 - 83?, 3.32 (Correct Answer)
Question No.25 (Question Id - 191)
In causal systems output at any time depends only :
(A)
On past input
(B)
On present input
(C)
On past and present input both (Correct Answer)
(D)
On future input
Question No.26 (Question Id - 197)
The MODFET (Modulation Doped Field Effect Transmitter) is also known as :
(A)
MOSFET
(B)
JBT
(C)
HEMT (Correct Answer)
(D)
IMPATT
Question No.27 (Question Id - 196)
In n-type semiconductor the Fermi energy level lies near to the :
(A)
Valance band level
(B)
Conduction band level (Correct Answer)
(C)
Centre of energy band gap
(D)
Neither conduction nor valance band
Question No.28 (Question Id - 202)
The dual of a Boolean expression is obtained by :
(A)
Interchanging all 0's and 1's
(B)
Interchanging all 0's, 1's, all ` + ' & `.' sign (Correct Answer)
(C)
Interchanging all 0's, 1's, all `+' & `.' sign and complementing all the variables
(D)
Interchanging all `+' & `.' sign and complementing all the variables
Question No.29 (Question Id - 209)
__________ is used in satellite communication.
(A)
High noise amplifier
(B)
Push-pull amplifier
(C)
Parametric amplifier
(D)
Low noise amplifier (Correct Answer)
Question No.30 (Question Id - 210)
Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A)
Geo-synchronous satellite remains practically stationary relative to earth antenna.
(B)
Geo-synchronous satellite means the samething as Geo-stationary satellite.
(C)
There is trade-off between the cost of a communication satellite and the cost of its
earth stations. (Correct Answer)
(D)
Three Geo-synchronous satellites cannot give 100% global coverage.
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This post was last modified on 21 January 2021