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Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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Topic:- LLM S2

Match List I with List II
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List I
A. N. G. Dastane v S. Dastane, (1975)2 SCC 326
B. Court on its Own Motion (Lajja Devi) v. State, 2012 (193) DLT 61
C. Saroj Rani v. Sudharshan Kumar, AIR 1984 SC 1562
D. Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati, AIR 1957SC 176
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List II
I. Desertion as a ground for divorce
II. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 will prevail over personal law
III. S.23(1)(a) is not a bar to file a petition under S.13 (1-A)
IV. Cruelty as a ground for divorce
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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9055]
1. AIV, B III, CII, D-1 [Option ID = 36214]
2. A IV, BII, C - III, D - I [Option ID = 36215]
3. A III, BIV, C - II, D-1 [Option ID = 36216]
4. A III, BIV, CI, D - II [Option ID = 36217]
Correct Answer :-
•A IV, BII, C- III, D-1 [Option ID = 36215]
Which of the following statements are correct?
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.....
A. Does not permit polygamy
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B. Permits conversion to Islam and to take a second wife
C. Does not permit Sagotra marriage
D. Does not permit marriage within prohibited relationship
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9056]
1. A, B, C and D [Option ID = 36218]
2. A, C and D only [Option ID = 36219]
3. A and C only [Option ID = 36220]
4. A and D only [Option ID = 36221]
Correct Answer :-
• A and D only [Option ID = 36221]

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Given below are two statements
Statement I: Two Hindus married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance.
Statement II: Two Muslims married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance.
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In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
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1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 36224]
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 36225]
Correct Answer :-
• Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 36225]
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the Special Marriage Act, 1954 A.
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A. A marriage shall be null and void if one of the parties to the marriage is impotent at the time of marriage and at the time of institution of suit
B. One of the conditions for marrying under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that the male must have completed the age of 21 years and the female the age of 18 years
C. Any marriage celebrated in other forms may be registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 and both the parties must have completed 21 years of age at the time of registration
D. A divorce petition may be filed if the respondent is undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for seven years or more for an offence under IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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[Question ID = 9058]
1. All the above are incorrect [Option ID = 36226]
2. All the above are correct [Option ID = 36227]
3. B and D are incorrect [Option ID = 36228]
4. C and D are incorrect [Option ID = 36229]
Correct Answer :-
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• All the above are correct [Option ID = 36227]
In case of judicial separation.....
A. The marital tie is severed by a judicial order
B. The marital obligations and rights are suspended
C. The husband has to pay maintenance to the wife
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D. They can re-unite after getting the order rescinded
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9059]
1. A, B, C and D only [Option ID = 36230]
2. None of these [Option ID = 36231]
3. B, C and D only [Option ID = 36232]
4. A, B and C only [Option ID = 36233]
Correct Answer :-
• B, C and D only [Option ID = 36232]
Which of the following classes of property of a female Hindu under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
[Question ID = 9060]
1. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of partition [Option ID = 36234]
2. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of maintenance [Option ID = 36235]
3. Property acquired by a female Hindu for arrears of maintenance [Option ID = 36236]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36237]
Correct Answer :-
• All of these [Option ID = 36237]

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Match List I with List II
List I
features
A. Children of the same father, but by different mothers
B. Children of the same mother, but by different fathers
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C. A person related to the propositus through one or more female links
D. A person related to the propositus through male links
List II
legal terms
I. Uterine
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II. Agnate
III. Consanguine
IV. Cognate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9061]
1. AII, BIV, C III, D-I [Option ID = 36238]
2. A III, BI, C - IV, D - II [Option ID = 36239]
3. A II, BIII, CIV, D-1 [Option ID = 36240]
4. AII, BI, C - IV, D - III [Option ID = 36241]
Correct Answer :-
AIII, BI, C - IV, D - II [Option ID = 36239]

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Match List I with List II
List I
decisions
A. Right to adopt a child is inherent in the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution
B. Right to adopt a child under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 would prevail over all other personal laws. However, the present is not an appropriate time where the right 'to adopt' and 'to be adopted' can be raised to the status of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India
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C. Innocent second wife, who is unaware of the first marriage of the husband, is entitled to maintenance under section 125 CrPC
D. Wife, for the purpose of section 125 CrPC, means only a legally wedded wife
List II
cases
I. Badshah v. Urmila Badshah
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II. Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya v. State of Gujarat
III. Philips Alfred Malvin v. Y.J. Gonsalvis
IV. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9062]
1. AIV, B III, CII, D-1 [Option ID = 36242]
2. AIV, BIII, CI, D - II [Option ID = 36243]
3. A III, BIV, CII, D-1 [Option ID = 36244]
4. A III, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 36245]
Correct Answer :-
•AIII, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 36245]

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Bigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 includes.....
[Question ID = 9063]
1. 1) Polygamy i.e. having more than one wife [Option ID = 36246]
2. 2) Polyandry i.e. having more than one husband [Option ID = 36247]
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36248]
4. 4) None of the above [Option ID = 36249]
Correct Answer :-
• 3) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36248]
Which of the following statements hold true regarding the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?
[Question ID = 9064]
1. 1) Daughters can now act as the Karta of a joint Hindu family [Option ID = 36250]
2. 2) Daughters can now become a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family [Option ID = 36251]
3. 3) 1 only [Option ID = 36252]
4. 4) 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36253]
Correct Answer :-
• 4) 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36253]
Islamic law provides for.....
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[Question ID = 9065]
1. monogamy [Option ID = 36254]
2. unlimited polygamy [Option ID = 36255]
3. bigamy [Option ID = 36256]
4. controlled polygamy [Option ID = 36257]
Correct Answer :-
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• controlled polygamy [Option ID = 36257]
The rule of Nemo dat quod non-habet is related to Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
[Question ID = 9066]
1. 28 [Option ID = 36258]
2. 23 [Option ID = 36259]
3. 6 [Option ID = 36260]
4. 20 [Option ID = 36261]
Correct Answer :-
• 23 [Option ID = 36259]
The intention of a mortgagee to deposit title deeds in equitable mortgage is to.....
[Question ID = 9067]
1. take an interest [Option ID = 36262]
2. take possession [Option ID = 36263]
3. create security [Option ID = 36264]
4. take consideration [Option ID = 36265]
Correct Answer :-
• create security

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A transfer of property occurring due to insolvency, forfeiture or sale in execution of a decree is called a.....
[Question ID = 9068]
1. transfer by will [Option ID = 36266]
2. transfer by operation of law [Option ID = 36267]
3. transfer by act of parties [Option ID = 36268]
4. None of these [Option ID = 36269]
Correct Answer :-
• transfer by operation of law [Option ID = 36267]
"A direct transfer of property in favour of an unborn person cannot be done". This sentence is.....
[Question ID = 9069]
1. partly false [Option ID = 36270]
2. absolutely true [Option ID = 36271]
3. absolutely false [Option ID = 36272]
4. partly true [Option ID = 36273]
Correct Answer :-
• absolutely true [Option ID = 36271]
Which among the following cannot be transferred as per section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
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[Question ID = 9070]
1. All interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally [Option ID = 36274]
2. A right to future maintenance [Option ID = 36275]
3. A public office [Option ID = 36276]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36277]
Correct Answer :-
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• All of these [Option ID = 36277]
A gift comprising of both existing and future property is.....
[Question ID = 9071]
1. void [Option ID = 36278]
2. valid [Option ID = 36279]
3. void only in respect of future property [Option ID = 36280]
4. void only in respect of existing property [Option ID = 36281]
Correct Answer :-
• void only in respect of future property [Option ID = 36280]
Which among the following cases is related to "curative petition"?
[Question ID = 9072]
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [Option ID = 36282]
2. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another [Option ID = 36283]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 36284]
4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India [Option ID = 36285]
Correct Answer :-
• Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another [Option ID = 36283]

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Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India 'to safeguard public property and to abjure violence'?
[Question ID = 9073]
1. 51 A (a) [Option ID = 36286]
2. 51 A (e) [Option ID = 36287]
3. 51 A (i) [Option ID = 36288]
4. 51 A (g) [Option ID = 36289]
Correct Answer :-
• 51 A (i) [Option ID = 36288]
Which of the following is called a revising chamber?
[Question ID = 9074]
1. 1) Lok Sabha [Option ID = 36290]
2. 2) Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 36291]
3. 3) President Office [Option ID = 36292]
4. 4) Option 1 and 3 [Option ID = 36293]
Correct Answer :-
• 2) Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 36291]
Originally the Constitution of India had.....
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[Question ID = 9075]
1. 395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36294]
2. 359 Articles 20 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36295]
3. 414 Articles 24 Parts 12 Schedules [Option ID = 36296]
4. 141 Articles 22 Parts 12 Schedules [Option ID = 36297]
Correct Answer :-
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• 395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36294]
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that "establishment of the egalitarian social order through rule of law is the basic structure of the Constitution"?
[Question ID = 9076]
1. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India [Option ID = 36298]
2. State of Bihar v. Subhash Singh [Option ID = 36299]
3. Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh [Option ID = 36300]
4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India [Option ID = 36301]
Correct Answer :-
• Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh [Option ID = 36300]
Which of the following is not true about the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[Question ID = 9077]
1. Contains the enacting clause [Option ID = 36302]
2. Declares the basic types of the Government [Option ID = 36303]
3. Provides the source of the Constitution [Option ID = 36304]
4. Provides powers to Courts [Option ID = 36305]
Correct Answer :-
• Provides powers to Courts [Option ID = 36305]

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The test of 'pith and substance of the subject matter' and of 'the object of the legislation' were irrelevant, to the question of infringement of fundamental rights 'the test of direct effect’
particular fundamental right". It was observed in the case of.....
[Question ID = 9078]
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [Option ID = 36306]
2. RC Cooper v. Union of India [Option ID = 36307]
3. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India [Option ID = 36308]
4. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India [Option ID = 36309]
Correct Answer :-
• Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India [Option ID = 36308]
Party system is not prescribed in the Constitution of India, but has become an established system to run the parliamentary democratic system. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India pointed out that for a strong vibrant democratic government, parliamentary system is necessary which can be best achieved by party system?
A. Rama Kant Pandey v. Union of India
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B. Rai Ramkrishna v. State of Bihar
C. S. Kodar v. State of Kerala
D. Kanhiyalal Omar v. R.K. Trivedi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9079]
1. A and B only [Option ID = 36310]
2. B and C only [Option ID = 36311]
3. A and D only [Option ID = 36312]
4. B, C and D only [Option ID = 36313]
Correct Answer :-
• A and D only [Option ID = 36312]

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'Supreme Court is not only a court of law but also a court of equity'. This was said in.....
[Question ID = 9080]
1. Engineering Mazdoor Sabha v. Hind Cycles Ltd. [Option ID = 36314]
2. Kihoto Hollahan v. Zachillhu [Option ID = 36315]
3. Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar [Option ID = 36316]
4. Arunachalam v. Sadhanantham [Option ID = 36317]
Correct Answer :-
• Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar [Option ID = 36316]
The doctrine of basic structure, till now, has not been used by a constitutional court to strike down.....
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1. constitutional amendment [Option ID = 36319]
2. executive actions [Option ID = 36320]
3. None of these [Option ID = 36321]
Correct Answer :-
• None of these [Option ID = 36321]
Who among the following does not hold an office of profit during the pleasure of the President?
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[Question ID = 9082]
1. Judge of the Supreme Court of India [Option ID = 36322]
2. Election Commissioner of India [Option ID = 36323]
3. Member of the Union Public Service Commission [Option ID = 36324]
4. None of these [Option ID = 36325]
Correct Answer :-
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• None of these [Option ID = 36325]
Which of the following Fundamental Rights is not enforceable against a non-state entity?
[Question ID = 9083]
1. Article 15(2) [Option ID = 36326]
2. Article 16(2) [Option ID = 36327]
3. Article 17 [Option ID = 36328]
4. Article 23 [Option ID = 36329]
Correct Answer :-
• Article 16(2) [Option ID = 36327]
The Supreme Court of India held that Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the principle of non-arbitrariness for the first time in.....
[Question ID = 9084]
1. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi [Option ID = 36330]
2. AK Roy v. Union of India [Option ID = 36331]
3. EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu [Option ID = 36332]
4. AK Kraipak v. Union of India [Option ID = 36333]
Correct Answer :-
• EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu [Option ID = 36332]

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The Supreme Court of India in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) held that transgender persons have the right to identify their gender as.....
[Question ID = 9085]
1. Female only [Option ID = 36334]
2. Either male or female [Option ID = 36335]
3. Third gender only [Option ID = 36336]
4. Either male or female or third gender [Option ID = 36337]
Correct Answer :-
• Either male or female or third gender [Option ID = 36337]
How many freedoms have been enumerated in the 'liberty' clause of the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[Question ID = 9086]
1. Three [Option ID = 36338]
2. Four [Option ID = 36339]
3. Five [Option ID = 36340]
4. Six [Option ID = 36341]
Correct Answer :-
• Five [Option ID = 36340]
No person can hold the office of the director in more than.....
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[Question ID = 9087]
1. 10 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36342]
2. 15 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36343]
3. 20 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36344]
4. 50 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36345]
Correct Answer :-
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• 10 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36342]
Which two types of business structures are created via a process of incorporation?
[Question ID = 9088]
1. Companies and sole proprietorships [Option ID = 36346]
2. Partnerships and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36347]
3. Companies and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36348]
4. Companies and partnerships [Option ID = 36349]
Correct Answer :-
• Companies and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36348]
On incorporation of a company, the Registrar of Companies, in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation, issues a unique identification number, namely....
[Question ID = 9089]
1. Unique corporate number [Option ID = 36350]
2. Corporate identification number [Option ID = 36351]
3. Company identification number [Option ID = 36352]
4. Unique identification number [Option ID = 36353]
Correct Answer :-
• Corporate identification number [Option ID = 36351]

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Starax Ltd. has the paid-up equity capital structure in the following proportion - Central Government: 38%; State Government: 10%; Subsidiary of a Government Company: 17.50%; and remaining shares by retail shareholders. Which of the following classes of companies would it belong to?
[Question ID = 9090]
1. government company [Option ID = 36354]
2. non-government company [Option ID = 36355]
3. deemed public company [Option ID = 36356]
4. deemed private company [Option ID = 36357]
Correct Answer :-
• government company [Option ID = 36354]
Contracts made after incorporation of a public company, but before issuing the certificate of commencement of business are....
[Question ID = 9091]
1. provisional contracts [Option ID = 36358]
2. post-incorporation contracts [Option ID = 36359]
3. preliminary contracts [Option ID = 36360]
4. contracts in the normal course of business [Option ID = 36361]
Correct Answer :-
• provisional contracts [Option ID = 36358]
Producer company is based on the principles of.....
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1. Collective Action [Option ID = 36362]
2. Mutual Assistance [Option ID = 36363]
3. Limited Return [Option ID = 36364]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36365]
Correct Answer :-
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• Mutual Assistance [Option ID = 36363]
Which among the following remedies is available for a person who acted upon a false prospectus?
[Question ID = 9093]
1. Damages for fraudulent misrepresentation [Option ID = 36366]
2. Compensation for untrue statement [Option ID = 36367]
3. Damages for non-compliance with the requirements of section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013 [Option ID = 36368]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36369]
Correct Answer :-
• All of these [Option ID = 36369]
Which among the following is regarded as the most important document of a company?
[Question ID = 9094]
1. Annual Report [Option ID = 36370]
2. Prospectus [Option ID = 36371]
3. Articles ofAssociation [Option ID = 36372]
4. Memorandum of Association [Option ID = 36373]
Correct Answer :-
• Memorandum of Association [Option ID = 36373]

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The responsibility of a finder of goods is the.....
[Question ID = 9095]
1. same responsibility as a trustee [Option ID = 36374]
2. same responsibility as a bailee [Option ID = 36375]
3. same responsibility as the owner [Option ID = 36376]
4. same responsibility as a pledgee [Option ID = 36377]
Correct Answer :-
• same responsibility as a bailee [Option ID = 36375]
An agreement made without consideration is void, unless it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do
[Question ID = 9096]
1. lawfully and willingly [Option ID = 36378]
2. under a mistake of fact [Option ID = 36379]
3. under a mistake of law [Option ID = 36380]
4. already voluntarily [Option ID = 36381]
Correct Answer :-
• already voluntarily [Option ID = 36381]
Which of the following act does not constitute fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
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[Question ID = 9097]
1. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true [Option ID = 36382]
2. the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact [Option ID = 36383]
3. where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions [Option ID = 36384]
4. a promise made without any intention of performing it
Correct Answer :-
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where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions [Option ID = 36384]
Which of the following agreement is void?
[Question ID = 9098]
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1. A owes B Rs 1000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt [Option ID = 36386]
2. A supports B's infant son. B promises in writing to pay A's expenses in so doing [Option ID = 36387]
3. A finds B's purse and gives it to him. B orally promises to give A Rs. 500 [Option ID = 36388]
4. A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour's son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing [Option ID = 36389]
Correct Answer :-
• A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour's son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing [Option ID = 36389]

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A owes money to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B and C, that B shall thenceforth accept C as his debtor, instead of A. This agreement is called as.....
[Question ID = 9099]
1. Alteration [Option ID = 36390]
2. Rescission [Option ID = 36391]
3. Novation [Option ID = 36392]
4. Extinction [Option ID = 36393]
Correct Answer :-
• Novation [Option ID = 36392]
Which of the following is/are exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract?
[Question ID = 9100]
1. Beneficiaries [Option ID = 36394]
2. Marriage settlement, partition or other family arrangements [Option ID = 36395]
3. Covenants running with land [Option ID = 36396]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36397]
Correct Answer :-
• All of these [Option ID = 36397]
A sells, by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound and A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness. Choose the correct option from the following
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[Question ID = 9101]
1. This amounts to fraud [Option ID = 36398]
2. This does not amount to fraud [Option ID = 36399]
3. This amounts to undue influence [Option ID = 36400]
4. This amounts to misrepresentation [Option ID = 36401]
Correct Answer :-
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• This does not amount to fraud [Option ID = 36399]
Where the proposal and acceptance are through letters, the contract is made at.....
[Question ID = 9102]
1. the place where the letter of acceptance is posted [Option ID = 36402]
2. the place where the letter of acceptance is received [Option ID = 36403]
3. the place where the letter of acceptance is addressed [Option ID = 36404]
4. All of these [Option ID = 36405]
Correct Answer :-
• the place where the letter

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This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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