Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key
DU LLM
Topic: LLM S2
1) Match List I with List II
List I
List II
A. N. G. Dastane v S. Dastane, 19752 SCC 326
I. Desertion as a ground for divorce
B. Court on its Own Motion Lajja Devi) v. State, 2012 193 DLT II. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 will prevail over personal
61
law
C. Saroj Rani v. Sudharshan Kumar, AIR 1984 SC 1562
III. S.231a is not a bar to file a petition under S.13 1A
D. Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati, AIR 1957SC 176
IV. Cruelty as a ground for divorce
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9055]
1. A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 36214]
2. A IV, B II, C III, D I
[Option ID = 36215]
3. A III, B IV, C II, D I
[Option ID = 36216]
4. A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 36217]
Correct Answer :
A IV, B II, C III, D I
[Option ID = 36215]
2) Which of the following statements are correct?
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.....
A. Does not permit polygamy
B. Permits conversion to Islam and to take a second wife
C. Does not permit Sagotra marriage
D. Does not permit marriage within prohibited relationship
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9056]
1. A, B, C and D
[Option ID = 36218]
2. A, C and D only
[Option ID = 36219]
3. A and C only
[Option ID = 36220]
4. A and D only
[Option ID = 36221]
Correct Answer :
A and D only
[Option ID = 36221]
3) Given below are two statements
Statement I: Two Hindus married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in
matters of inheritance.
Statement II: Two Muslims married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925
in matters of inheritance.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
[Question ID = 9057]
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
[Option ID = 36222]
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[Option ID = 36223]
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
[Option ID = 36224]
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
[Option ID = 36225]
Correct Answer :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
[Option ID = 36225]
4) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the Special Marriage Act, 1954 A.
A. A marriage shall be null and void if one of the parties to the marriage is impotent at the time of marriage and at the time
of institution of suit
B. One of the conditions for marrying under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that the male must have completed the age
of 21 years and the female the age of 18 years
C. Any marriage celebrated in other forms may be registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 and both the parties
must have completed 21 years of age at the time of registration
D. A divorce petition may be filed if the respondent is undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for seven years or more for
an offence under IPC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9058]
1. All the above are incorrect
[Option ID = 36226]
2. All the above are correct
[Option ID = 36227]
3. B and D are incorrect
[Option ID = 36228]
4. C and D are incorrect
[Option ID = 36229]
Correct Answer :
All the above are correct
[Option ID = 36227]
5) In case of judicial separation.....
A. The marital tie is severed by a judicial order
B. The marital obligations and rights are suspended
C. The husband has to pay maintenance to the wife
D. They can reunite after getting the order rescinded
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9059]
1. A, B, C and D only
[Option ID = 36230]
2. None of these
[Option ID = 36231]
3. B, C and D only
[Option ID = 36232]
4. A, B and C only
[Option ID = 36233]
Correct Answer :
B, C and D only
[Option ID = 36232]
6) Which among the following may be an absolute property of a female Hindu under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
[Question ID = 9060]
1. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of partition
[Option ID = 36234]
2. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of maintenance
[Option ID = 36235]
3. Property acquired by a female Hindu for arrears of maintenance
[Option ID = 36236]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36237]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36237]
7) Match List I with List II
List II
List I
features
legal terms
A. Children of the same father, but by different mothers
I. Uterine
B. Children of the same mother, but by different fathers
II. Agnate
C. A person related to the propositus through one or more
III. Consanguine
female links
D. A person related to the propositus through male links
IV. Cognate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9061]
1. A II, B IV, C III, D I
[Option ID = 36238]
2. A III, B I, C IV, D II
[Option ID = 36239]
3. A II, B III, C IV, D I
[Option ID = 36240]
4. A II, B I, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 36241]
Correct Answer :
A III, B I, C IV, D II
[Option ID = 36239]
8) Match List I with List II
List I
List II
decisions
cases
A. Right to adopt a child is inherent in the right to life under
I. Badshah v. Urmila Badshah
Article 21 of the Constitution
B. Right to adopt a child under the Juvenile Justice Care and
II. Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya v. State of Gujarat
Protection of Children Act, 2015 would prevail over all other
personal laws. However, the present is not an appropriate time
where the right `to adopt' and `to be adopted' can be raised to
the status of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the
Constitution of India
C. Innocent second wife, who is unaware of the first marriage of III. Philips Alfred Malvin v. Y.J. Gonsalvis
the husband, is entitled to maintenance under section 125 CrPC
D. Wife, for the purpose of section 125 CrPC, means only a
IV. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
legally wedded wife
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9062]
1. A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 36242]
2. A IV, B III, C I, D II
[Option ID = 36243]
3. A III, B IV, C II, D I
[Option ID = 36244]
4. A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 36245]
Correct Answer :
A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 36245]
9) Bigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 includes.....
[Question ID = 9063]
1. 1) Polygamy i.e. having more than one wife [Option ID = 36246]
2. 2) Polyandry i.e. having more than one husband [Option ID = 36247]
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36248]
4. 4) None of the above [Option ID = 36249]
Correct Answer :
3) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36248]
10) Which of the following statements hold true regarding the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?
[Question ID = 9064]
1. 1) Daughters can now act as the Karta of a joint Hindu family
[Option ID = 36250]
2. 2) Daughters can now become a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family
[Option ID = 36251]
3. 3) 1 only
[Option ID = 36252]
4. 4) 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36253]
Correct Answer :
4) 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36253]
11) Islamic law provides for.....
[Question ID = 9065]
1. monogamy [Option ID = 36254]
2. unlimited polygamy [Option ID = 36255]
3. bigamy [Option ID = 36256]
4. controlled polygamy [Option ID = 36257]
Correct Answer :
controlled polygamy [Option ID = 36257]
12) The rule of Nemo dat quod nonhabet is related to Section _______ of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
[Question ID = 9066]
1. 28
[Option ID = 36258]
2. 23
[Option ID = 36259]
3. 6
[Option ID = 36260]
4. 20
[Option ID = 36261]
Correct Answer :
23
[Option ID = 36259]
13) The intention of a mortgagee to deposit title deeds in equitable mortgage is to.....
[Question ID = 9067]
1. take an interest [Option ID = 36262]
2. take possession [Option ID = 36263]
3. create security [Option ID = 36264]
4. take consideration [Option ID = 36265]
Correct Answer :
create security [Option ID = 36264]
14) A transfer of property occurring due to insolvency, forfeiture or sale in execution of a decree is called a.....
[Question ID = 9068]
1. transfer by will
[Option ID = 36266]
2. transfer by operation of law
[Option ID = 36267]
3. transfer by act of parties
[Option ID = 36268]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36269]
Correct Answer :
transfer by operation of law
[Option ID = 36267]
15) "A direct transfer of property in favour of an unborn person cannot be done". This sentence is.....
[Question ID = 9069]
1. partly false [Option ID = 36270]
2. absolutely true [Option ID = 36271]
3. absolutely false [Option ID = 36272]
4. partly true [Option ID = 36273]
Correct Answer :
absolutely true [Option ID = 36271]
16) Which among the following cannot be transferred as per section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
[Question ID = 9070]
1. All interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally
[Option ID = 36274]
2. A right to future maintenance
[Option ID = 36275]
3. A public office
[Option ID = 36276]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36277]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36277]
17) A gift comprising of both existing and future property is.....
[Question ID = 9071]
1. void [Option ID = 36278]
2. valid [Option ID = 36279]
3. void only in respect of future property [Option ID = 36280]
4. void only in respect of existing property [Option ID = 36281]
Correct Answer :
void only in respect of future property [Option ID = 36280]
18) Which among the following cases is related to "curative petition"?
[Question ID = 9072]
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36282]
2. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another
[Option ID = 36283]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36284]
4. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36285]
Correct Answer :
Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another
[Option ID = 36283]
19) Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of
India `to safeguard public property and to abjure violence'?
[Question ID = 9073]
1. 51 A (a) [Option ID = 36286]
2. 51 A (e) [Option ID = 36287]
3. 51 A (i) [Option ID = 36288]
4. 51 A (g) [Option ID = 36289]
Correct Answer :
51 A (i) [Option ID = 36288]
20) Which of the following is called a revising chamber?
[Question ID = 9074]
1. 1) Lok Sabha
[Option ID = 36290]
2. 2) Rajya Sabha
[Option ID = 36291]
3. 3) President Office
[Option ID = 36292]
4. 4) Option 1 and 3
[Option ID = 36293]
Correct Answer :
2) Rajya Sabha
[Option ID = 36291]
21) Originally the Constitution of India had.....
[Question ID = 9075]
1. 395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36294]
2. 359 Articles 20 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36295]
3. 414 Articles 24 Parts 12 Schedules [Option ID = 36296]
4. 141 Articles 22 Parts 12 Schedules [Option ID = 36297]
Correct Answer :
395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules [Option ID = 36294]
22) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that "establishment of the egalitarian social order
through rule of law is the basic structure of the Constitution"?
[Question ID = 9076]
1. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36298]
2. State of Bihar v. Subhash Singh
[Option ID = 36299]
3. Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
[Option ID = 36300]
4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36301]
Correct Answer :
Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
[Option ID = 36300]
23) Which of the following is not true about the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[Question ID = 9077]
1. Contains the enacting clause [Option ID = 36302]
2. Declares the basic types of the Government [Option ID = 36303]
3. Provides the source of the Constitution [Option ID = 36304]
4. Provides powers to Courts [Option ID = 36305]
Correct Answer :
Provides powers to Courts [Option ID = 36305]
24) "The test of `pith and substance of the subject matter' and of `the object of the legislation' were irrelevant, to the
question of infringement of fundamental rights and the true test was the `direct effect' of the impugned action on a
particular fundamental right". It was observed in the case of.....
[Question ID = 9078]
1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36306]
2. R C Cooper v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36307]
3. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36308]
4. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36309]
Correct Answer :
Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36308]
25) Party system is not prescribed in the Constitution of India, but has become an established system to run the
parliamentary democratic system. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India pointed out that for a strong
vibrant democratic government, parliamentary system is necessary which can be best achieved by party system?
A. Rama Kant Pandey v. Union of India
B. Rai Ramkrishna v. State of Bihar
C. S. Kodar v. State of Kerala
D. Kanhiyalal Omar v. R.K. Trivedi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9079]
1. A and B only
[Option ID = 36310]
2. B and C only
[Option ID = 36311]
3. A and D only
[Option ID = 36312]
4. B, C and D only
[Option ID = 36313]
Correct Answer :
A and D only
[Option ID = 36312]
26) `Supreme Court is not only a court of law but also a court of equity'. This was said in.....
[Question ID = 9080]
1. Engineering Mazdoor Sabha v. Hind Cycles Ltd.
[Option ID = 36314]
2. Kihoto Hollahan v. Zachillhu
[Option ID = 36315]
3. Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar
[Option ID = 36316]
4. Arunachalam v. Sadhanantham
[Option ID = 36317]
Correct Answer :
Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar
[Option ID = 36316]
27) The doctrine of basic structure, till now, has not been used by a constitutional court to strike down.....
[Question ID = 9081]
1. enactments by legislator
[Option ID = 36318]
2. constitutional amendments
[Option ID = 36319]
3. executive actions
[Option ID = 36320]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36321]
Correct Answer :
None of these
[Option ID = 36321]
28) Who among the following does not hold an office of profit during the pleasure of the President?
[Question ID = 9082]
1. Judge of the Supreme Court of India
[Option ID = 36322]
2. Election Commissioner of India
[Option ID = 36323]
3. Member of the Union Public Service Commission
[Option ID = 36324]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36325]
Correct Answer :
None of these
[Option ID = 36325]
29) Which of the following Fundamental Rights is not enforceable against a nonstate entity?
[Question ID = 9083]
1. Article 15(2) [Option ID = 36326]
2. Article 16(2) [Option ID = 36327]
3. Article 17 [Option ID = 36328]
4. Article 23 [Option ID = 36329]
Correct Answer :
Article 16(2) [Option ID = 36327]
30) The Supreme Court of India held that Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the principle of nonarbitrariness
for the first time in.....
[Question ID = 9084]
1. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi
[Option ID = 36330]
2. AK Roy v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36331]
3. EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
[Option ID = 36332]
4. AK Kraipak v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36333]
Correct Answer :
EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
[Option ID = 36332]
31) The Supreme Court of India in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) held that transgender
persons have the right to identify their gender as.....
[Question ID = 9085]
1. Female only
[Option ID = 36334]
2. Either male or female
[Option ID = 36335]
3. Third gender only
[Option ID = 36336]
4. Either male or female or third gender
[Option ID = 36337]
Correct Answer :
Either male or female or third gender
[Option ID = 36337]
32) How many freedoms have been enumerated in the `liberty' clause of the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
[Question ID = 9086]
1. Three [Option ID = 36338]
2. Four [Option ID = 36339]
3. Five [Option ID = 36340]
4. Six [Option ID = 36341]
Correct Answer :
Five [Option ID = 36340]
33) No person can hold the office of the director in more than.....
[Question ID = 9087]
1. 10 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36342]
2. 15 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36343]
3. 20 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36344]
4. 50 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36345]
Correct Answer :
10 Public companies at a time [Option ID = 36342]
34) Which two types of business structures are created via a process of incorporation?
[Question ID = 9088]
1. Companies and sole proprietorships [Option ID = 36346]
2. Partnerships and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36347]
3. Companies and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36348]
4. Companies and partnerships [Option ID = 36349]
Correct Answer :
Companies and limited liability partnerships [Option ID = 36348]
35) On incorporation of a company, the Registrar of Companies, in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation, issues a
unique identification number, namely....
[Question ID = 9089]
1. Unique corporate number [Option ID = 36350]
2. Corporate identification number [Option ID = 36351]
3. Company identification number [Option ID = 36352]
4. Unique identification number [Option ID = 36353]
Correct Answer :
Corporate identification number [Option ID = 36351]
36) Starax Ltd. has the paidup equity capital structure in the following proportion ? Central Government: 38%; State
Government: 10%; Subsidiary of a Government Company: 17.50%; and remaining shares by retail shareholders. Which of the
following classes of companies would it belong to?
[Question ID = 9090]
1. government company [Option ID = 36354]
2. nongovernment company [Option ID = 36355]
3. deemed public company [Option ID = 36356]
4. deemed private company [Option ID = 36357]
Correct Answer :
government company [Option ID = 36354]
37) Contracts made after incorporation of a public company, but before issuing the certificate of commencement of
business are....
[Question ID = 9091]
1. provisional contracts [Option ID = 36358]
2. postincorporation contracts [Option ID = 36359]
3. preliminary contracts [Option ID = 36360]
4. contracts in the normal course of business [Option ID = 36361]
Correct Answer :
provisional contracts [Option ID = 36358]
38) Producer company is based on the principles of.....
[Question ID = 9092]
1. Patronage
[Option ID = 36362]
2. Mutual Assistance
[Option ID = 36363]
3. Limited Return
[Option ID = 36364]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36365]
Correct Answer :
Mutual Assistance
[Option ID = 36363]
39) Which among the following remedies is available for a person who acted upon a false prospectus?
[Question ID = 9093]
1. Damages for fraudulent misrepresentation
[Option ID = 36366]
2. Compensation for untrue statement
[Option ID = 36367]
3. Damages for noncompliance with the requirements of section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013
[Option ID = 36368]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36369]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36369]
40) Which among the following is regarded as the most important document of a company?
[Question ID = 9094]
1. Annual Report [Option ID = 36370]
2. Prospectus [Option ID = 36371]
3. Articles of Association [Option ID = 36372]
4. Memorandum of Association [Option ID = 36373]
Correct Answer :
Memorandum of Association [Option ID = 36373]
41) The responsibility of a finder of goods is the.....
[Question ID = 9095]
1. same responsibility as a trustee [Option ID = 36374]
2. same responsibility as a bailee [Option ID = 36375]
3. same responsibility as the owner [Option ID = 36376]
4. same responsibility as a pledgee [Option ID = 36377]
Correct Answer :
same responsibility as a bailee [Option ID = 36375]
42) An agreement made without consideration is void, unless it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who
has ________________ done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do
[Question ID = 9096]
1. lawfully and willingly [Option ID = 36378]
2. under a mistake of fact [Option ID = 36379]
3. under a mistake of law [Option ID = 36380]
4. already voluntarily [Option ID = 36381]
Correct Answer :
already voluntarily [Option ID = 36381]
43) Which of the following act does not constitute fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
[Question ID = 9097]
1. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true [Option ID = 36382]
2. the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact [Option ID = 36383]
3. where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions [Option ID = 36384]
4. a promise made without any intention of performing it [Option ID = 36385]
Correct Answer :
where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions [Option ID = 36384]
44) Which of the following agreement is void?
[Question ID = 9098]
1. A owes B Rs 1000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt [Option ID =
36386]
2. A supports B's infant son. B promises in writing to pay A's expenses in so doing [Option ID = 36387]
3. A finds B's purse and gives it to him. B orally promises to give A Rs. 500 [Option ID = 36388]
4. A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour's son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing [Option ID = 36389]
Correct Answer :
A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour's son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing [Option ID = 36389]
45) A owes money to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B and C, that B shall thenceforth accept C as his debtor,
instead of A. This agreement is called as.....
[Question ID = 9099]
1. Alteration [Option ID = 36390]
2. Rescission [Option ID = 36391]
3. Novation [Option ID = 36392]
4. Extinction [Option ID = 36393]
Correct Answer :
Novation [Option ID = 36392]
46) Which of the following is/are exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract?
[Question ID = 9100]
1. Beneficiaries
[Option ID = 36394]
2. Marriage settlement, partition or other family arrangements
[Option ID = 36395]
3. Covenants running with land
[Option ID = 36396]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36397]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36397]
47) A sells, by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound and A says nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness.
Choose the correct option from the following
[Question ID = 9101]
1. This amounts to fraud [Option ID = 36398]
2. This does not amount to fraud [Option ID = 36399]
3. This amounts to undue influence [Option ID = 36400]
4. This amounts to misrepresentation [Option ID = 36401]
Correct Answer :
This does not amount to fraud [Option ID = 36399]
48) Where the proposal and acceptance are through letters, the contract is made at.....
[Question ID = 9102]
1. the place where the letter of acceptance is posted
[Option ID = 36402]
2. the place where the letter of acceptance is received
[Option ID = 36403]
3. the place where the letter of acceptance is addressed
[Option ID = 36404]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36405]
Correct Answer :
the place where the letter of acceptance is posted
[Option ID = 36402]
49) Agreement restraining legal proceeding is void only if restraint is.....
[Question ID = 9103]
1. partial
[Option ID = 36406]
2. absolute
[Option ID = 36407]
3. written
[Option ID = 36408]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36409]
Correct Answer :
absolute
[Option ID = 36407]
50) Section 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with unjust enrichment on account of.....
[Question ID = 9104]
1. 1) mistake [Option ID = 36410]
2. 2) coercion [Option ID = 36411]
3. 3) nongratuitous act [Option ID = 36412]
4. 4) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36413]
Correct Answer :
4) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36413]
51) Which of the following amendments were made in the Copyright Act, 1957 in the year 2012?
A. Section 65A Protection of Technological Measures
B. Section 65B Protection of Rights Management Information
C. Section 31B Compulsory License for benefit of disabled
D. Section 31C Statutory License for cover versions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9105]
1. C and D only
[Option ID = 36414]
2. A and B only
[Option ID = 36415]
3. A, B and C only
[Option ID = 36416]
4. A, B, C and D
[Option ID = 36417]
Correct Answer :
A, B, C and D
[Option ID = 36417]
52) What is the maximum term of a patent in India?
[Question ID = 9106]
1. 20 years [Option ID = 36418]
2. 25 years [Option ID = 36419]
3. 15 years [Option ID = 36420]
4. unlimited [Option ID = 36421]
Correct Answer :
20 years [Option ID = 36418]
53) In which year, did India accede to the Nice Agreement Concerning the International Classification of Goods and Services
for the Purposes of the Registration of Marks, Vienna Agreement Establishing an International Classification of the Figurative
Elements of Marks and the Locarno Agreement Establishing an International Classification for Industrial Designs?
[Question ID = 9107]
1. 2018 [Option ID = 36422]
2. 2019 [Option ID = 36423]
3. 2010 [Option ID = 36424]
4. 2013 [Option ID = 36425]
Correct Answer :
2019 [Option ID = 36423]
54) Who was nominated as the Director General of the World Intellectual Property Organization by the Coordination
Committee on March 4, 2020?
[Question ID = 9108]
1. Mr. Francis Gurry [Option ID = 36426]
2. Mr. Kamil Idris [Option ID = 36427]
3. Mr. Daren Tang [Option ID = 36428]
4. Ms. Wang Binying [Option ID = 36429]
Correct Answer :
Mr. Daren Tang [Option ID = 36428]
55) What is the concept of originality under the Designs Act, 2000?
[Question ID = 9109]
1. Novelty
[Option ID = 36430]
2. Originality in application
[Option ID = 36431]
3. Discovery
[Option ID = 36432]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36433]
Correct Answer :
Originality in application
[Option ID = 36431]
56) Which among the following is the oldest decision on issues relating to environment and ecological balance is?
[Question ID = 9110]
1. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP
[Option ID = 36434]
2. Pradeep Krishen v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36435]
3. People's Union of Democratic Rights & Ors v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36436]
4. Murli S Deora v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36437]
Correct Answer :
Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP
[Option ID = 36434]
57) Under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 which one of the following has power to constitute authorities?
[Question ID = 9111]
1. Central Pollution Control Board [Option ID = 36438]
2. State Government [Option ID = 36439]
3. State Pollution Control Board [Option ID = 36440]
4. Central Government [Option ID = 36441]
Correct Answer :
Central Government [Option ID = 36441]
58) Which among the following legal instruments is not related to climate change?
[Question ID = 9112]
1. Kyoto Protocol [Option ID = 36442]
2. Paris Agreement [Option ID = 36443]
3. Copenhagen Accord [Option ID = 36444]
4. Nagoya Protocol [Option ID = 36445]
Correct Answer :
Nagoya Protocol [Option ID = 36445]
59) The Public Trust Doctrine lays down that State is a trustee of natural resources so ........."
[Question ID = 9113]
1. the property subject to trust must be made available to public
[Option ID = 36446]
2. the property may not be sold
[Option ID = 36447]
3. the property must be maintained for particular use
[Option ID = 36448]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36449]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36449]
60) Who is considered as the founder of the "Uppsala school" of the modern Scandinavian realist movement?
[Question ID = 9114]
1. Karl Olivercrona [Option ID = 36450]
2. Vilhelm Lundstedt [Option ID = 36451]
3. Axel H?gerstr?m [Option ID = 36452]
4. Alf Ross [Option ID = 36453]
Correct Answer :
Axel H?gerstr?m [Option ID = 36452]
61) The Benthamite legislator who wishes to ensure happiness for the community must strive to attain four goals. What are
those goals?
[Question ID = 9115]
1. To grant liberty, to promote equality, to offer security; to ensure freedom
[Option ID = 36454]
2. To maintain harmony, to provide pleasure, to establish democracy; to ensure participation
[Option ID = 36455]
3. To provide subsistence; to produce abundance; to favour equality; to maintain security
[Option ID = 36456]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36457]
Correct Answer :
To provide subsistence; to produce abundance; to favour equality; to maintain security
[Option ID = 36456]
62) Cultural relativism logically implies tolerance for different cultures. In the context of human rights, cultural relativists
are generally supportive of.....
[Question ID = 9116]
1. Traditional, regional or indigenous approaches to human rights [Option ID = 36458]
2. Universal idea of human rights [Option ID = 36459]
3. Asian approach to human rights in contrast to the values of the rest of the civilisation [Option ID = 36460]
4. European and American approach to human rights and justice [Option ID = 36461]
Correct Answer :
Traditional, regional or indigenous approaches to human rights [Option ID = 36458]
63) Which one of the propositions mentioned below does not explain the character of Critical Legal Studies (CLS)?
[Question ID = 9117]
1. Law is just and stable [Option ID = 36462]
2. Law is politics [Option ID = 36463]
3. Law is the reflection of power and maintains the imperfect societal status quo [Option ID = 36464]
4. Law is indeterminate [Option ID = 36465]
Correct Answer :
Law is just and stable [Option ID = 36462]
64) Which of the following statements explain the feature of natural law?
[Question ID = 9118]
1. Law is natural to legal systems as they follow different divine principles [Option ID = 36466]
2. Law is a product of certain immutable principles intrinsic to human beings [Option ID = 36467]
3. Law, as a phenomenon, is natural to every civilisation and important for their survival [Option ID = 36468]
4. Law, as command of the sovereign, can be accepted only when it is in consonance with regionally accepted principles [Option ID = 36469]
Correct Answer :
Law is a product of certain immutable principles intrinsic to human beings [Option ID = 36467]
65) Which of the following elements is not present in Austin's definition of ownership?
[Question ID = 9119]
1. Indefinite Use [Option ID = 36470]
2. Absolute user [Option ID = 36471]
3. Unrestricted disposition [Option ID = 36472]
4. Unlimited duration [Option ID = 36473]
Correct Answer :
Absolute user [Option ID = 36471]
66) The KelloggBriand Pact of 1928.....
[Question ID = 9120]
1. Declared war as illegal and provided for compensation to state against which the war was waged [Option ID = 36474]
2. Prohibited use of force and threat of use of force by any state [Option ID = 36475]
3. Renounced war as an instrument of national policy [Option ID = 36476]
4. Laid down the conditions under which the States could legally use force [Option ID = 36477]
Correct Answer :
Renounced war as an instrument of national policy [Option ID = 36476]
67) Which of the following cases decided by the International Court of Justice is related to the right to remedial secession?
[Question ID = 9121]
1. Kosovo case
[Option ID = 36478]
2. Chagos Islands case
[Option ID = 36479]
3. Nicaragua case
[Option ID = 36480]
4. Jadhav case
[Option ID = 36481]
Correct Answer :
Kosovo case
[Option ID = 36478]
68) International law is regarded as a product of colonisation because.....
[Question ID = 9122]
1. European states justified colonisation with the help of international law
[Option ID = 36482]
2. European states used international law to institutionalise colonisation
[Option ID = 36483]
3. European states used international institutions to perpetuate colonisation
[Option ID = 36484]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36485]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36485]
69) Which of the following is false?
[Question ID = 9123]
1. 1) Hugo Grotius wrote his famous works to justify Dutch colonial and trade expansion [Option ID = 36486]
2. 2) Berlin Conference, 1885 was convened to divide African colonies among European powers amicably [Option ID = 36487]
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2 [Option ID = 36488]
4. 4) Neither option 1 nor 2 [Option ID = 36489]
Correct Answer :
4) Neither option 1 nor 2 [Option ID = 36489]
70) Which of the following is true?
[Question ID = 9124]
1. Individual is not a subject of international law [Option ID = 36490]
2. General Assembly resolutions are binding [Option ID = 36491]
3. General principles of law are also sources of international law [Option ID = 36492]
4. Decisions of the International Court of Justice have precedential value [Option ID = 36493]
Correct Answer :
General principles of law are also sources of international law [Option ID = 36492]
71) Which of the following theories is not connected with the relationship between international law and municipal law?
[Question ID = 9125]
1. Evidentiary theory [Option ID = 36494]
2. Theory of monism [Option ID = 36495]
3. Theory of dualism [Option ID = 36496]
4. Specific adoption theory [Option ID = 36497]
Correct Answer :
Evidentiary theory [Option ID = 36494]
72) The International Court of Justice (ICJ) may have jurisdiction based on forum prorogatum and such a jurisdiction may
result from.....
[Question ID = 9126]
1. Conduct of parties before court or with each other
[Option ID = 36498]
2. Agreement of the parties
[Option ID = 36499]
3. Declaration of acceptance under Article 36(2) of the Statute of ICJ
[Option ID = 36500]
4. Compromissory clause in a treaty
[Option ID = 36501]
Correct Answer :
Conduct of parties before court or with each other
[Option ID = 36498]
73) The rule of extradition that the requesting state is under a duty not to try or punish the offender for any other offence
than that for which he was extradited, is known as
[Question ID = 9127]
1. Rule of Double Criminality [Option ID = 36502]
2. Rule of Speciality [Option ID = 36503]
3. Rule of Reciprocity [Option ID = 36504]
4. Rule of Territoriality [Option ID = 36505]
Correct Answer :
Rule of Speciality [Option ID = 36503]
74) The International Law Commission was established by a.....
[Question ID = 9128]
1. General Assembly resolution in 1947 [Option ID = 36506]
2. Security Council resolution in 1947 [Option ID = 36507]
3. Judgment of the International Court of Justice in 1945 [Option ID = 36508]
4. Resolution of the UN Secretariat [Option ID = 36509]
Correct Answer :
General Assembly resolution in 1947 [Option ID = 36506]
75) The Universality Principle is one of the main general principles on which States claim a more or less extensive penal
jurisdiction at the present under International Law. Under this principle, the jurisdiction is determined by reference to....
[Question ID = 9129]
1. The place of commission of offence [Option ID = 36510]
2. The nationality or national character of the person who committed the offence [Option ID = 36511]
3. National interest injured by the offence [Option ID = 36512]
4. Custody of the person the person who committed the offence [Option ID = 36513]
Correct Answer :
Custody of the person the person who committed the offence [Option ID = 36513]
76) If the defendant has not been able to properly control the animal which he knew or ought to have known to be having
a tendency to do harm, he is liable. This forms part of.....
[Question ID = 9130]
1. the Bolam test
[Option ID = 36514]
2. the Scienter rule
[Option ID = 36515]
3. the Eggshell Skull Rule
[Option ID = 36516]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36517]
Correct Answer :
the Scienter rule
[Option ID = 36515]
77) A willful and unjustified dealing with the goods in such a manner that another person, who is entitled to immediate use
and possession of the same, is deprived of that is known as.....
[Question ID = 9131]
1. 1) Conversion
[Option ID = 36518]
2. 2) Trover
[Option ID = 36519]
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36520]
4. 4) None of these
[Option ID = 36521]
Correct Answer :
3) Both option 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36520]
78) Which among the following cases is related to the rule that causing death of a person is not a tort?
[Question ID = 9132]
1. Jackson v. Watson
[Option ID = 36522]
2. Rookes v. Barnard
[Option ID = 36523]
3. Baker v. Bolton
[Option ID = 36524]
4. Tillet v. Ward
[Option ID = 36525]
Correct Answer :
Baker v. Bolton
[Option ID = 36524]
79) Which of the following cases is not an example of a rescue case, that provides an exception to the doctrine of volenti
non fit injuria?
[Question ID = 9133]
1. Haynes v. Harwood
[Option ID = 36526]
2. Wagner v. International Railway
[Option ID = 36527]
3. Baker v. T.E. Hopkins & Sons
[Option ID = 36528]
4. Storey v. Ashton
[Option ID = 36529]
Correct Answer :
Storey v. Ashton
[Option ID = 36529]
80) Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Wagon Mound Case
I. Test of Reasonable Foreseeability
B. Polemis Case
II. Test of Directness
C. Smith v. Leech Brain & Co.
III. EggShell Skull Rule
D. Smith v. Charles Baker & Sons
IV. Volenti non fit Injuria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 9134]
1. A I, B II, C III, D IV
[Option ID = 36530]
2. A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 36531]
3. A I, B II, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 36532]
4. A II, B I, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 36533]
Correct Answer :
A I, B II, C III, D IV
[Option ID = 36530]
81) As per the judgment in the case of Indian Medical Association v. V. P. Shantha, which of the following statements is
incorrect?
[Question ID = 9135]
1. Service rendered free of charge by a medical practitioner attached to a hospital/nursing home or a medical officer employed in a hospital/nursing
home where such services are rendered free of charge to everybody, would not be `service' as defined in section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection
Act, 1986
[Option ID = 36534]
2. Service rendered at a nongovernment hospital/nursing home where charges are required to be paid by the persons availing of such services falls
within the purview of the expression `service' as defined in section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
[Option ID = 36535]
3. The service rendered by a medical officer to his employer under the contract of employment would be outside the purview of `service' as defined in
section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
[Option ID = 36536]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36537]
Correct Answer :
None of these
[Option ID = 36537]
82) A willful act done without just cause or excuse is called.....
[Question ID = 9136]
1. Malice in fact [Option ID = 36538]
2. Malice in law [Option ID = 36539]
3. Mistake of law [Option ID = 36540]
4. Mistake of fact [Option ID = 36541]
Correct Answer :
Malice in law [Option ID = 36539]
83) Which of the following statements is false in connection with the legal principle "volunti non fit injuria"?
[Question ID = 9137]
1. Knowledge regarding the danger is consent
[Option ID = 36542]
2. Consent must be free
[Option ID = 36543]
3. Rescue cases form an exception to the application of the maxim volunti non fit injuria
[Option ID = 36544]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36545]
Correct Answer :
Knowledge regarding the danger is consent
[Option ID = 36542]
84) Vis major stands as an exception to.....
[Question ID = 9138]
1. The rule of strict liability
[Option ID = 36546]
2. The rule of absolute liability
[Option ID = 36547]
3. Res ipsa loquitur
[Option ID = 36548]
4. None of the above
[Option ID = 36549]
Correct Answer :
The rule of strict liability
[Option ID = 36546]
85) When the negligence of two or more persons results in the same damage, there is said to be....
[Question ID = 9139]
1. Contributory negligence
[Option ID = 36550]
2. Composite negligence
[Option ID = 36551]
3. Joint liability
[Option ID = 36552]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 36553]
Correct Answer :
Composite negligence
[Option ID = 36551]
86) What is the meaning of the expression `felonious tort'?
[Question ID = 9140]
1. A tort which is actionable before civil courts only [Option ID = 36554]
2. A tort which is actionable before the criminal court only [Option ID = 36555]
3. A tort which is not at all actionable [Option ID = 36556]
4. A wrong which is both a crime as well as a tort [Option ID = 36557]
Correct Answer :
A wrong which is both a crime as well as a tort [Option ID = 36557]
87) Section 1(2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 states that
[Question ID = 9141]
1. It shall extend to the whole of India only [Option ID = 36558]
2. It shall extend to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir [Option ID = 36559]
3. It applies only to any offence or contravention committed outside India by any person [Option ID = 36560]
4. It shall extend to whole of India and it applies also to any offence or contravention thereunder committed outside India by any person [Option ID =
36561]
Correct Answer :
It shall extend to whole of India and it applies also to any offence or contravention thereunder committed outside India by any person [Option ID =
36561]
88) Public key under the Information Technology Act, 2000 means.....
[Question ID = 9142]
1. the key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature and listed in the Digital Signature Certificate
[Option ID = 36562]
2. the key pair as mentioned by state government
[Option ID = 36563]
3. the key used by group
[Option ID = 36564]
4. all of these
[Option ID = 36565]
Correct Answer :
the key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature and listed in the Digital Signature Certificate
[Option ID = 36562]
89) Power to make rules in respect of electronic signature under the Information Technology Act, 2000 lies with.....
[Question ID = 9143]
1. Respective state government [Option ID = 36566]
2. Central government [Option ID = 36567]
3. Controller of Certifying Authorities [Option ID = 36568]
4. The Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers [Option ID = 36569]
Correct Answer :
Central government [Option ID = 36567]
90) Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Certifying Authority may revoke a Digital Signature Certificate.....
[Question ID = 9144]
1. on request by the subscriber
[Option ID = 36570]
2. on death of the subscriber
[Option ID = 36571]
3. upon the dissolution of the firm or winding up of the company where the subscriber is a firm or a company
[Option ID = 36572]
4. all of these
[Option ID = 36573]
Correct Answer :
all of these
[Option ID = 36573]
91) Which of the following is an inchoate crime?
[Question ID = 9145]
1. Public nuisance [Option ID = 36574]
2. Criminal attempt [Option ID = 36575]
3. Unlawful Assembly [Option ID = 36576]
4. Riot [Option ID = 36577]
Correct Answer :
Criminal attempt [Option ID = 36575]
92) Causing of the death of a child in the mother's womb is not homicide as provided under.....
[Question ID = 9146]
1. Explanation 5 to section 300 [Option ID = 36578]
2. Explanation 1 to section 299 [Option ID = 36579]
3. Explanation 2 to section 299 [Option ID = 36580]
4. Explanation 3 to section 299 [Option ID = 36581]
Correct Answer :
Explanation 3 to section 299 [Option ID = 36581]
93) Men Rea can be excluded by
[Question ID = 9147]
1. 1) Express provisions of law
[Option ID = 36582]
2. 2) Necessary Implication
[Option ID = 36583]
3. 3) Both option 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36584]
4. 4) None of these
[Option ID = 36585]
Correct Answer :
3) Both option 1 and 2
[Option ID = 36584]
94) Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are not punishable with death?
[Question ID = 9148]
1. Rape on a woman under twelve years of age [Option ID = 36586]
2. Gang rape on woman under sixteen years of age [Option ID = 36587]
3. Inflicting an injury in the course of commission of rape which causes the woman to be in a persistent vegetative state [Option ID = 36588]
4. Kidnapping for ransom [Option ID = 36589]
Correct Answer :
Gang rape on woman under sixteen years of age [Option ID = 36587]
95) Which of the following statements is correct about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
[Question ID = 9149]
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable
[Option ID = 36590]
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable
[Option ID = 36591]
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable
[Option ID = 36592]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36593]
Correct Answer :
All of these
[Option ID = 36593]
96) In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court of India direct all States and Union Territories to take
appropriate steps for inclusion of acid attack victims under the disability list?
[Question ID = 9150]
1. Laxmi v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36594]
2. Parivartan Kendra v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36595]
3. Anuja Kapur v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36596]
4. Common Cause v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36597]
Correct Answer :
Parivartan Kendra v. Union of India
[Option ID = 36595]
97) Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was not amended/inserted by the Criminal Law
Amendment Act, 2018?
[Question ID = 9151]
1. Section 166A [Option ID = 36598]
2. Section 166B [Option ID = 36599]
3. Section 228A [Option ID = 36600]
4. Section 376E [Option ID = 36601]
Correct Answer :
Section 166B [Option ID = 36599]
98) Which of the following is not a gender neutral offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
[Question ID = 9152]
1. Trafficking
[Option ID = 36602]
2. Acid attack
[Option ID = 36603]
3. Voyeurism
[Option ID = 36604]
4. All of these
[Option ID = 36605]
Correct Answer :
Voyeurism
[Option ID = 36604]
99) Which of the following general exceptions in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 relates to the maxim "furiosi nulla voluntas
est"?
[Question ID = 9153]
1. Mistake of fact
[Option ID = 36606]
2. Act of child above seven and under twelve years of age
[Option ID = 36607]
3. Unsoundness of mind
[Option ID = 36608]
4. Private defence
[Option ID = 36609]
Correct Answer :
Unsoundness of mind
[Option ID = 36608]
100) In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the right of private defence is not available to
the extent of causing death?
[Question ID = 9154]
1. Acid attacks [Option ID = 36610]
2. Robbery [Option ID = 36611]
3. Dacoity [Option ID = 36612]
4. Extortion [Option ID = 36613]
Correct Answer :
Extortion [Option ID = 36613]
This post was last modified on 27 December 2020