Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key
DU PhD in Law
Topic: LAW PHD S2
1) Which of the following category of persons do not qualify as workmen under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
[Question ID = 6978]
1. A person engaged in technical work [Option ID = 27906]
2. A person engaged in clerical work [Option ID = 27907]
3. A person engaged in managerial work [Option ID = 27908]
4. A person engaged in operational work [Option ID = 27909]
Correct Answer :
A person engaged in managerial work [Option ID = 27908]
2) In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court of India hold that Government employees have no right to strike?
[Question ID = 6979]
1. Rangaswami v. Registrar of Trade Unions, Madras, AIR 1962 Mad. 231 [Option ID = 27910]
2. T.K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu & Ors, 2003 (6) SCALE 84 [Option ID = 27911]
3. Hindustan Antibiotics Ltd v. The Workmen, (1967) 1 SCR 652 [Option ID = 27912]
4. State of Madras v. C.P. Sarathy, (1953) 1 ILJ 174 (SC) [Option ID = 27913]
Correct Answer :
T.K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu & Ors, 2003 (6) SCALE 84 [Option ID = 27911]
3) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
i) The recently launched GI logo is to operate as a certification trademark.
ii) The GI logo can be used both on Indian and foreign origin GI products registered in India or abroad.
iii) The logo is aimed to make it easier for consumers to identify authentic GI products and thereby protect the interests of
genuine GI producers.
iv) The logo reads `Atulya Bharat ki Amulya Nidhi' in Hindi language.
[Question ID = 6980]
1. All are incorrect
[Option ID = 27914]
2. Only (ii) is incorrect
[Option ID = 27915]
3. Only (iii) is incorrect
[Option ID = 27916]
4. Only (iv) is incorrect
[Option ID = 27917]
Correct Answer :
Only (ii) is incorrect
[Option ID = 27915]
4) Which provision of the Constitution of India facilitated the Parliament of India to enact the Water (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
[Question ID = 6981]
1. Article 246 [Option ID = 27918]
2. Article 247 [Option ID = 27919]
3. Article 252 [Option ID = 27920]
4. Article 253 [Option ID = 27921]
Correct Answer :
Article 252 [Option ID = 27920]
5) The Trail Smelter Arbitration (Unites States/Canada), 3 Reports of International Arbitral Awards 1905 (1941) is relevant
in the context of ______.
[Question ID = 6982]
1. duty of states not to cause transboundary injury [Option ID = 27922]
2. duty of states to protect the ozone layer [Option ID = 27923]
3. duty of states to prevent pollution in outerspace [Option ID = 27924]
4. duty of states to protect endangered fishes [Option ID = 27925]
Correct Answer :
duty of states not to cause transboundary injury [Option ID = 27922]
6) Under Vicarious Liability, the law holds the master liable for the acts of his servants where ___________.
[Question ID = 6983]
1. the servant acts independently
[Option ID = 27926]
2. the servant hires an outsider
[Option ID = 27927]
3. the servant commits assault while not in employment
[Option ID = 27928]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 27929]
Correct Answer :
none of these
[Option ID = 27929]
7) On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriage is _____.
[Question ID = 6984]
1. Batil.
[Option ID = 27930]
2. Sahih.
[Option ID = 27931]
3. Fasid.
[Option ID = 27932]
4. Muta.
[Option ID = 27933]
Correct Answer :
Batil.
[Option ID = 27930]
8) Match the legal issues mentioned in ListI with cases mentioned in ListII and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List I
List II
A. Retrospective effect cannot be given to
I. Ganduri Koteswaramma
section 6 of Hindu succession (Amendment) Act v. Chakiri Yanadi, AIR
2005
2012 SC169
B. Children of void marriage are entitled to a
II. Sandhya Rani v. Union
share in the ancestral property in the hands of
of India, AIR 1998 Bom
father
228
III. Revana Siddappa v.
C. Right of a daughter to reopen the partition is Mallikarjun, (2011) 11
valid
SCC 1
D. A Hindu having a daughter cannot adopt
IV. Prakash v. Phulavati,
another daughter under Hindu Adoption and
AIR 2016 SC 769
Maintenance Act 1956
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 6985]
1. A II, B IV, C I, D III
[Option ID = 27934]
2. A III, B IV, C II, D I
[Option ID = 27935]
3. A III, B IV, C I, D II
[Option ID = 27936]
4. A IV, B III, C I, D II
[Option ID = 27937]
Correct Answer :
A IV, B III, C I, D II
[Option ID = 27937]
9) Match the offences mentioned in ListI with the state of mind in ListII and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List I
List II
A. Rape
I. Mens rea
B. Murder
II. Consent
C.Cheating
III. Dishonestly
D.Criminal Misappropriation
IV. Fradulently
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 6986]
1. A I, B II, C III, D IV
[Option ID = 27938]
2. A II, B I, C III, D IV
[Option ID = 27939]
3. A I, B II, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 27940]
4. A II, B I, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 27941]
Correct Answer :
A II, B I, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 27941]
10) Which among the following statements is correct?
[Question ID = 6987]
1. Mens rea may be dispensed with when the object of the Act will be frustrated by its inclusion. [Option ID = 27942]
2. Submission by the woman is an indication in all circumstances that the sexual intercourse was with her consent. [Option ID = 27943]
3. There can be no offence of kidnapping if the object of kidnapping is not illegal or immoral. [Option ID = 27944]
4. The person who picks up the gold ring he finds on the road and keeps it with them, commits the offence of theft. [Option ID = 27945]
Correct Answer :
Mens rea may be dispensed with when the object of the Act will be frustrated by its inclusion. [Option ID = 27942]
11) Match the items in column 1 with those in column2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Column I
Column II
A. Intention
I. Free and voluntary
B. Dishonestly
II. Foreseeability of consequences and desire for them
C. Fraudulently III. Wrongful gain or Wrongful loss
D. Consent
IV. By deception
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 6988]
1. A I, B II, C IV, D III
[Option ID = 27946]
2. A II, B III, C IV, D I
[Option ID = 27947]
3. A III, B II, C IV, D I
[Option ID = 27948]
4. A I, B IV, C III, D II
[Option ID = 27949]
Correct Answer :
A II, B III, C IV, D I
[Option ID = 27947]
12) Akshat places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells Rajat that they will fire at Rajat, if Rajat attempts
to leave the building. What offence is Akshat guilty of under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
[Question ID = 6989]
1. Wrongful restraint [Option ID = 27950]
2. Criminal intimidation [Option ID = 27951]
3. Wrongful confinement [Option ID = 27952]
4. Abduction [Option ID = 27953]
Correct Answer :
Wrongful confinement [Option ID = 27952]
13) Consider the following about the Biological Weapons Convention, 1972:
I. The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) is a legally binding treaty that prohibits biological arms.
II. India is party to Biological Weapons Convention.
III. China is not yet a party to Biological Weapons Convention.
IV. The Convention, inter alia, allows stateparties to lodge a complaint with the UN Security Council if they believe other
member states are violating the Convention.
[Question ID = 6990]
1. I is correct
[Option ID = 27954]
2. I & II are correct
[Option ID = 27955]
3. I, II & IV are correct
[Option ID = 27956]
4. I & III are correct
[Option ID = 27957]
Correct Answer :
I, II & IV are correct
[Option ID = 27956]
14) Under United Nations Charter, the primary responsibility to maintain international peace and security is conferred upon
the Security Council. Which article of the United Nations Charter incorporates this provision?
[Question ID = 6991]
1. Article 1(1), UN Charter [Option ID = 27958]
2. Article 24, UN Charter [Option ID = 27959]
3. Article 25, UN Charter [Option ID = 27960]
4. Article 27, UN Charter [Option ID = 27961]
Correct Answer :
Article 24, UN Charter [Option ID = 27959]
15) The principle of nonrefoulement signifies _______
[Question ID = 6992]
1. No state should send back the asylum seekers to a country where they would face torture, cruelty or inhuman treatment or punishment [Option ID =
27962]
2. A rule of exhaustion of local remedies in international human rights [Option ID = 27963]
3. The conduct of a State organ shall be considered an act of that State, even when this conduct was unauthorized by the state or ultra vires. [Option
ID = 27964]
4. Reparation may take only the form of pecuniary compensation, including the interest. [Option ID = 27965]
Correct Answer :
No state should send back the asylum seekers to a country where they would face torture, cruelty or inhuman treatment or punishment [Option ID =
27962]
16) The 262nd report of the Law Commission of India recommended the abolition of death penalty for_ _ _ _
[Question ID = 6993]
1. all crimes other than child sexual abuse
[Option ID = 27966]
2. all crimes
[Option ID = 27967]
3. all crimes other than terrorism related offences and waging war
[Option ID = 27968]
4. all offences other than crimes against women.
[Option ID = 27969]
Correct Answer :
all crimes other than terrorism related offences and waging war
[Option ID = 27968]
17) Which of the following is not a 'restorative justice' practice?
[Question ID = 6994]
1. Community policing [Option ID = 27970]
2. Probation [Option ID = 27971]
3. Compensation [Option ID = 27972]
4. Restitution [Option ID = 27973]
Correct Answer :
Probation [Option ID = 27971]
18) Match List I with List II: (AVT)
List I
List II
A. Justice K S Puttaswamy (Retd.) v.
I. Living Will
Union of India, 2017
B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, II. Compensation to Acid Attack
2018
victims
C. Parivartan Kendra v. Union of India,
III. Decriminalisation of all adult
2016
homosexual sex
D. Common Cause v. Union of India,
IV. Right to informational privacy
2018
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 6995]
1. A IV, B I, C III, D II
[Option ID = 27974]
2. A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 27975]
3. A II, B IV, C I, D III
[Option ID = 27976]
4. A IV, B II, C I, D III
[Option ID = 27977]
Correct Answer :
A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 27975]
19) Match the name of Authors given in ListI with their books given in ListII and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List I
List II
A. Betty Friedan
I. Sexual Politics
B. Kate Millet
II. The female Eunuch
C. Germane Greer
III. The Feminine Mystique
D. Simone de Beauvoir
IV. The Second Sex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 6996]
1. A I, B II, C III, D IV
[Option ID = 27978]
2. A II, B III, C I, D IV
[Option ID = 27979]
3. A III, B II, C I, D IV
[Option ID = 27980]
4. A IV, B III, C II, D I
[Option ID = 27981]
Correct Answer :
A III, B II, C I, D IV
[Option ID = 27980]
20) Which among the following is not correct:
[Question ID = 6997]
1. Copyright protects idea [Option ID = 27982]
2. Patents protect invention [Option ID = 27983]
3. A device could be a trademark [Option ID = 27984]
4. Geographical Indication (GI) is applicable only to goods [Option ID = 27985]
Correct Answer :
Copyright protects idea [Option ID = 27982]
21) "What is bad in theology is bad in law as well" is said in which of the following cases?
[Question ID = 6998]
1. Young Lawyers' Association v. State of Kerala, 2018 SCC OnLine SC 1690. [Option ID = 27986]
2. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1 [Option ID = 27987]
3. Shayara Bano v. Union of India, (2017) 9 SCC 1 [Option ID = 27988]
4. Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India, (2018) 1 SCC 791 [Option ID = 27989]
Correct Answer :
Shayara Bano v. Union of India, (2017) 9 SCC 1 [Option ID = 27988]
22) In which of the following judgments, the Supreme Court of India held that repeated promulgation of the same
Ordinance(s) was a fraud on the Constitution?
[Question ID = 6999]
1. Raja Ram Pal v. Hon'ble Speaker of Lok Sabha, (2007) 3 SCC 184 [Option ID = 27990]
2. State of Bihar v. Charusila Dasi, 1959 SCR Supl. (2) 601 [Option ID = 27991]
3. D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, 1987 SCR (1) 798 [Option ID = 27992]
4. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, (1994) 3 SCC 1 [Option ID = 27993]
Correct Answer :
D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, 1987 SCR (1) 798 [Option ID = 27992]
23) According to Article 164(4) of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is correct:
[Question ID = 7000]
1. A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State, shall at the expiration of that period,
cease to be a Minister. [Option ID = 27994]
2. A Minister who for any period of three consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall, at the expiration of that period,
cease to be a Minister. [Option ID = 27995]
3. A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall, at the expiration of that period,
cease to be a member of the House. [Option ID = 27996]
4. A Minister who for any period of three consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall, at the expiration of that period,
cease to be a member of the House. [Option ID = 27997]
Correct Answer :
A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State, shall at the expiration of that period,
cease to be a Minister. [Option ID = 27994]
24) Which one of the following Committees/Commissions dealt with the subject of Local self Government?
[Question ID = 7001]
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee [Option ID = 27998]
2. Kothari Commission [Option ID = 27999]
3. Veerappa Moily Committee [Option ID = 28000]
4. M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission [Option ID = 28001]
Correct Answer :
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee [Option ID = 27998]
25) Which law officer has the right to speak in both Houses of the Indian Parliament?
[Question ID = 7002]
1. Solicitor General
[Option ID = 28002]
2. Advocate General
[Option ID = 28003]
3. Attorney General
[Option ID = 28004]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 28005]
Correct Answer :
Attorney General
[Option ID = 28004]
26) Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
(i) A good sample must represent the entire population.
(ii) Sampling is not required if the universe itself is too limited.
(iii) A study population and target population are not necessarily the same.
(iv) The practice of Census and Sampling is one and the same thing
[Question ID = 7003]
1. (i) and (ii) are incorrect
[Option ID = 28006]
2. Only (iii) is incorrect
[Option ID = 28007]
3. Only (iv) is incorrect
[Option ID = 28008]
4. None of these
[Option ID = 28009]
Correct Answer :
Only (iv) is incorrect
[Option ID = 28008]
27) Find the odd one out from the following
[Question ID = 7004]
1. Null hypothesis [Option ID = 28010]
2. Independent and dependent variables [Option ID = 28011]
3. Pejorative technique [Option ID = 28012]
4. Alternative hypothesis [Option ID = 28013]
Correct Answer :
Pejorative technique [Option ID = 28012]
28) Find the odd one out from the following
[Question ID = 7005]
1. Purposive sampling [Option ID = 28014]
2. Cluster sampling [Option ID = 28015]
3. Snowball sampling [Option ID = 28016]
4. Quota sampling [Option ID = 28017]
Correct Answer :
Cluster sampling [Option ID = 28015]
29) `Controlled group' is a term used in which of the following research?
[Question ID = 7006]
1. Historical research [Option ID = 28018]
2. Survey research [Option ID = 28019]
3. Experimental research [Option ID = 28020]
4. Descriptive research [Option ID = 28021]
Correct Answer :
Experimental research [Option ID = 28020]
30) Unlike __________ researchers who seek causal determination, prediction and generalization of findings, _______
researchers seek illumination, understanding and extrapolation to similar situations.
(Fill in the blanks choosing appropriate terms given below)
[Question ID = 7007]
1. quantitative, qualitative [Option ID = 28022]
2. exploratory, descriptive [Option ID = 28023]
3. doctrinal, empirical [Option ID = 28024]
4. casual, professional [Option ID = 28025]
Correct Answer :
quantitative, qualitative [Option ID = 28022]
31) What is the theory which is developed by entering the fieldwork phase without a hypothesis, thereafter describing
what happens and, on the basis of observation, formulating explanations about why it happens?
[Question ID = 7008]
1. Descriptive theory [Option ID = 28026]
2. Relational theory [Option ID = 28027]
3. Correlational theory [Option ID = 28028]
4. Grounded theory [Option ID = 28029]
Correct Answer :
Grounded theory [Option ID = 28029]
32) Experimental hypothesistesting research is a research in which------
[Question ID = 7009]
1. the independent variable is manipulated. [Option ID = 28030]
2. the dependent variable is manipulated. [Option ID = 28031]
3. both the independent and dependent variables are manipulated. [Option ID = 28032]
4. no manipulations of the variables are done. [Option ID = 28033]
Correct Answer :
the independent variable is manipulated. [Option ID = 28030]
33) Doctrinal research __________
[Question ID = 7010]
1. 1) Is the theoretical study where mostly secondary sources of data are used to seek to answer one or two legal propositions or questions or
doctrines. [Option ID = 28034]
2. 2) Involves analysis of case laws, arranging, ordering and systematizing legal prepositions [Option ID = 28035]
3. 3) Is a way of gaining knowledge by means of direct and indirect observation or experience. [Option ID = 28036]
4. 4) Both (1) and (2) [Option ID = 28037]
Correct Answer :
4) Both (1) and (2) [Option ID = 28037]
34) Stratified sampling is _____________
[Question ID = 7011]
1. a probability method of sampling used when the population is heterogeneous. [Option ID = 28038]
2. sometimes referred to as selecting sample by `hit and miss' method. [Option ID = 28039]
3. a type of probability sampling in which sample members from a larger population are selected according to a random starting point and a fixed
periodic interval. [Option ID = 28040]
4. also known as referral sampling. [Option ID = 28041]
Correct Answer :
a probability method of sampling used when the population is heterogeneous. [Option ID = 28038]
35) The most effective approach to conduct a study on the cause effect of climate change in the National Capital Region
would be through _________
[Question ID = 7012]
1. Experimental research [Option ID = 28042]
2. Historical research [Option ID = 28043]
3. Exploratory research [Option ID = 28044]
4. Descriptive research [Option ID = 28045]
Correct Answer :
Experimental research [Option ID = 28042]
36) Predetermined questions which allow only a few alternative ways of answering is called __________________
[Question ID = 7013]
1. Open ended Structured questions [Option ID = 28046]
2. Closed ended Unstructured questions [Option ID = 28047]
3. Closed ended Structured questions [Option ID = 28048]
4. Dichotomous questions [Option ID = 28049]
Correct Answer :
Closed ended Structured questions [Option ID = 28048]
37) Mr. Raj conducts a study in a residential colony. He divides the families living in that area into five mutually exclusive
groups in terms of annual income. From each group, he selects 20% of the sample who are accessible to him. Which
sampling technique has he used in this study?
[Question ID = 7014]
1. Stratified sampling [Option ID = 28050]
2. Stratified proportionate sampling [Option ID = 28051]
3. Quota sampling [Option ID = 28052]
4. Systematic sampling [Option ID = 28053]
Correct Answer :
Quota sampling [Option ID = 28052]
38) Match the terms in ListI with the most appropriate options in ListII and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List I
List II
A. R Studio
I. Hypothesis
B. Variables
II. Focus Group Discussion
C. Tool
III. Participant observation
D. Universe
IV. Data analysis
E. Qualitative research
V. Population
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[Question ID = 7015]
1. A II, B IV, C III, D V, E I
[Option ID = 28054]
2. A III, B IV, C II, D I, E V
[Option ID = 28055]
3. A IV, B I, C III, D V, E II
[Option ID = 28056]
4. A V, B I, C III, D II, E IV
[Option ID = 28057]
Correct Answer :
A IV, B I, C III, D V, E II
[Option ID = 28056]
39) Choose the odd one out.
[Question ID = 7016]
1. Nominal variable [Option ID = 28058]
2. Ordinal variable [Option ID = 28059]
3. Dichotomous variable [Option ID = 28060]
4. Continuous variable [Option ID = 28061]
Correct Answer :
Continuous variable [Option ID = 28061]
40) Statement A: Qualitative research may be done to understand the emic perspective.
Statement B: People or culture perceive a phenomenon from their perspective and ascribe their own `meanings' to such a
phenomenon.
Which of the following statements is correct about statements A and B above?
[Question ID = 7017]
1. Only statement A is correct.
[Option ID = 28062]
2. Only statement B is correct.
[Option ID = 28063]
3. Both statements are correct and statement B is the reason for statement A.
[Option ID = 28064]
4. Both statements are correct but statement A is and statement B are unrelated.
[Option ID = 28065]
Correct Answer :
Both statements are correct and statement B is the reason for statement A.
[Option ID = 28064]
41) Read the following statements:
a) Random sampling is the method of selecting sample that is easily/readily accessible/available for administering the data
collection tool.
b) Focus Group Discussion is used to gain insights into people's shared understanding of everyday life in a quantitative
research.
c) Observational method of study may be used both in quantitative and qualitative researches.
d) If a researcher wants to study the impact of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education, 2009 over a period
of time, he or she will conduct crosssectional study.
e) The conclusion that one draws from the tabulated data collected through fieldwork is called interpretation of data
Which of the above statements are true?
[Question ID = 7018]
1. (a), (b) and (e) are true
[Option ID = 28066]
2. (b), (c) and (d) are true
[Option ID = 28067]
3. Only (b) is true
[Option ID = 28068]
4. Only (c) is true
[Option ID = 28069]
Correct Answer :
Only (b) is true
[Option ID = 28068]
42) If you wish to conduct a research to find out why people in X city choose mediation over other alternative dispute
resolution mechanisms for resolving Y type of disputes, where you have no idea of the reason at all, what type of research
will you do?
Choose from amongst the following, the most suitable scientific research method.
[Question ID = 7019]
1. Nondoctrinal quantitative research, wherein the universe will be people in X city who chose mediation, Sampling Technique: simple random
sampling, Tool: Questionnaire with structured close ended questions.
[Option ID = 28070]
2. Nondoctrinal qualitative research, wherein the universe will be people who chose mediation for Y type of disputes; Sampling technique: judgmental
sampling, Tool: interview schedule.
[Option ID = 28071]
3. Empirical quantitative research, Universe: people in X city who have Y type of disputes, Sampling Technique: two sets of samples to be selected,
one set consisting of those who use mediation and another who didn't, through purposive sampling, Tool: observational study.
[Option ID = 28072]
4. Empirical qualitative research, wherein the universe will be people in X city who chose mediation for Y type of disputes, Sampling technique: simple
random sampling, Tool: interview, using semistructured questions.
[Option ID = 28073]
Correct Answer :
Empirical qualitative research, wherein the universe will be people in X city who chose mediation for Y type of disputes, Sampling technique: simple
random sampling, Tool: interview, using semistructured questions.
[Option ID = 28073]
43) Which of the following is a nonprobability sampling?
[Question ID = 7020]
1. Judgmental sampling [Option ID = 28074]
2. Random sampling [Option ID = 28075]
3. Cluster sampling [Option ID = 28076]
4. Stratified sampling [Option ID = 28077]
Correct Answer :
Judgmental sampling [Option ID = 28074]
44) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) Review of literature is a form of exploratory research.
(ii) Both the alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis of a research has to be either proved or disproved at the same time.
(iii) In an aptitude test, scaling is a very significant part of research.
(iv) Every empirical research must necessarily have a hypothesis.
Choose one of the options given below
[Question ID = 7021]
1. (i) & (ii) are incorrect
[Option ID = 28078]
2. (ii) & (iii) are incorrect
[Option ID = 28079]
3. (ii) & (iv) are incorrect
[Option ID = 28080]
4. Only (iv) is incorrect
[Option ID = 28081]
Correct Answer :
(ii) & (iv) are incorrect
[Option ID = 28080]
45) Match A with most appropriate options in B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
B
a) used when sample can be divided into non overlapping 1. Cluster
heterogeneous groups
Sampling
b) used by news reporters
2. SPSS
3. Test of
c) L.H.C. Tippet
independence
4. Random
d) Chi square
sampling
5. convenient
e) data analysis
sampling
Codes::
[Question ID = 7022]
1. a ? 1, b ? 2, c ? 3, d 4, e 5
[Option ID = 28082]
2. a 5, b 2, c 4, d 3, e 1
[Option ID = 28083]
3. a 1, b 5, c 4, d 3, e 2
[Option ID = 28084]
4. a 5, b 4, c ? 3, d 1, e 2
[Option ID = 28085]
Correct Answer :
a 1, b 5, c 4, d 3, e 2
[Option ID = 28084]
46) What does the term `mixed research method' generally refer to?
[Question ID = 7023]
1. Combination of two data collection methods. [Option ID = 28086]
2. Combination of qualitative and quantitative research methods [Option ID = 28087]
3. Combination of exploratory and analytical research [Option ID = 28088]
4. Combination of two or more sampling methods [Option ID = 28089]
Correct Answer :
Combination of qualitative and quantitative research methods [Option ID = 28087]
47) What is multiple regression analysis?
[Question ID = 7024]
1. 1) Analysis adopted when researcher has two dependent variables which are presumed to be function of one independent variable. [Option ID =
28090]
2. 2) Analysis adopted when the researcher has single dependent variable that cannot be measured, but can be classified into two or more groups on
the basis of some attribute. [Option ID = 28091]
3. 3) Analysis used in case of both measurable and nonmeasureable variables for the purpose of simultaneously predicting a set of dependent
variables from their joint covariance with a set of independent variables. [Option ID = 28092]
4. 4) Both 1 and 3 [Option ID = 28093]
Correct Answer :
1) Analysis adopted when researcher has two dependent variables which are presumed to be function of one independent variable. [Option ID =
28090]
48) Match Table A with Table B and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Table ? A
Table ? B
a) Arranging in some kind of concise and logical order 1) Class intervals
b) Classification of data
2) Graphs
c) Checking for completeness and interviewing quality 3) Data Cleaning
d) Help in easily understanding the data
4) Tabulation
e) Consistency checks
5) Questionnaire
[Question ID = 7025]
1. a 5, b 4, c 3, d 1, e 2
[Option ID = 28094]
2. a 5, b 4, c 3, d 2, e 1
[Option ID = 28095]
3. a 4, b 1, c 5, d 3, e 2
[Option ID = 28096]
4. a 4, b 1, c 5, d 2, e 3
[Option ID = 28097]
Correct Answer :
a 4, b 1, c 5, d 2, e 3
[Option ID = 28097]
49) The process of assigning numerals or other symbols to answers so that responses can be put into a limited number of
categories or classes for efficient analysis is called ________
[Question ID = 7026]
1. Coding [Option ID = 28098]
2. Standardization [Option ID = 28099]
3. Systematization [Option ID = 28100]
4. Grouping [Option ID = 28101]
Correct Answer :
Coding [Option ID = 28098]
50) The process of examining the collected raw data (specially in surveys) to detect errors and omissions and to correct
these when possible is called _____
[Question ID = 7027]
1. Editing of data [Option ID = 28102]
2. Data tabulation [Option ID = 28103]
3. Data analysis [Option ID = 28104]
4. Assessment of data [Option ID = 28105]
Correct Answer :
Editing of data [Option ID = 28102]
This post was last modified on 27 December 2020