Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key
DU MPhil Phd in Operational Research
Topic: OR MPHIL S2N
1) Let the feasible region of a linear programming problem be given by a polyhedral set
. Then the problem has a bounded feasible region, if there exists________ such that for every
we have_______.
[Question ID = 11062]
1. a positive constant
,
[Option ID = 44242]
2. a positive constant
,
[Option ID = 44243]
3. a negative constant
,
[Option ID = 44244]
4. a negative constant
,
[Option ID = 44245]
Correct Answer :
a positive constant
,
[Option ID = 44242]
2) In
, a polytope has________ like shape.
[Question ID = 11063]
1. circle
[Option ID = 44246]
2. triangle
[Option ID = 44247]
3. prism
[Option ID = 44248]
4. ellipse
[Option ID = 44249]
Correct Answer :
prism
[Option ID = 44248]
3) The vertices of a bounded closed set may be_________.
[Question ID = 11064]
1. finite [Option ID = 44250]
2. infinite [Option ID = 44251]
3. indefinite [Option ID = 44252]
4. countable [Option ID = 44253]
Correct Answer :
infinite [Option ID = 44251]
4) The redundant constraint among the constraints
is
[Question ID = 11065]
1.
[Option ID = 44254]
2.
[Option ID = 44255]
3.
[Option ID = 44256]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 44257]
Correct Answer :
[Option ID = 44255]
5) The dual problem of the primal linear programming problem
has _________.
[Question ID = 11066]
1. a feasible solution
[Option ID = 44258]
2. no feasible solution
[Option ID = 44259]
3. a unique solution
[Option ID = 44260]
4. unbounded solution
[Option ID = 44261]
Correct Answer :
no feasible solution
[Option ID = 44259]
6) Applications of assignment problem may include
[Question ID = 11067]
1. matching personnel to jobs [Option ID = 44262]
2. assigning machines to tasks [Option ID = 44263]
3. designing buses routes [Option ID = 44264]
4. all of these [Option ID = 44265]
Correct Answer :
all of these [Option ID = 44265]
7) The transportation method assumes that___________.
[Question ID = 11068]
1. the number of occupied cells in any solution must be equal to the number of rows plus the number of columns plus 1 [Option ID = 44266]
2. the number of dummy sources equals the number of dummy destinations [Option ID = 44267]
3. there are no economies of scale if large quantities are shipped from one source to one destination [Option ID = 44268]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44269]
Correct Answer :
there are no economies of scale if large quantities are shipped from one source to one destination [Option ID = 44268]
8) In a balanced transportation problem with two sources and three destinations and availabilities 15 at each source and
demand 10 at each destination, the dual variables in the optimal table corresponding to sources and destinations are 1, 2
and 1, 1, 1, respectively. Then the optimal objective value of the transportation problem is
[Question ID = 11069]
1. 45 [Option ID = 44270]
2. 20 [Option ID = 44271]
3. 10 [Option ID = 44272]
4. 15 [Option ID = 44273]
Correct Answer :
15 [Option ID = 44273]
9) The linear programming problem
has
[Question ID = 11070]
1. alternate optimal solution
[Option ID = 44274]
2. unique optimal solution
[Option ID = 44275]
3. unbounded solution
[Option ID = 44276]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 44277]
Correct Answer :
unbounded solution
[Option ID = 44276]
10) The stationary point of the function
is ____________.
[Question ID = 11071]
1. local maximum
[Option ID = 44278]
2. local minimum
[Option ID = 44279]
3. neither a local maximum nor a local minimum
[Option ID = 44280]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 44281]
Correct Answer :
local maximum
[Option ID = 44278]
11) The function
is ____________.
[Question ID = 11072]
1. positive definite
[Option ID = 44282]
2. negative definite
[Option ID = 44283]
3. positive semidefinite
[Option ID = 44284]
4. negative semidefinite
[Option ID = 44285]
Correct Answer :
positive semidefinite
[Option ID = 44284]
12) The solution to the dual linear programming problem
[Question ID = 11073]
1. presents the marginal profits/costs of each additional unit of a resource
[Option ID = 44286]
2. can always be derived by examining the row of the primal problem's optimal simplex tableau
[Option ID = 44287]
3. is better than the solution to the primal problem
[Option ID = 44288]
4. all of these
[Option ID = 44289]
Correct Answer :
presents the marginal profits/costs of each additional unit of a resource
[Option ID = 44286]
13) Which of the following is not a direct inventory?
[Question ID = 11074]
1. Workinprocess inventories [Option ID = 44290]
2. Spare parts inventories [Option ID = 44291]
3. Waste inventories [Option ID = 44292]
4. Fluctuation inventories [Option ID = 44293]
Correct Answer :
Fluctuation inventories [Option ID = 44293]
14) Jessica Choi works in her bakery for 6 days a week for 49 weeks a year. Flour is delivered directly with a charge of Rs.
7.50 for each delivery. Jessica uses an average of 10 sacks of wholegrain flour a day, for which she pays Rs. 12 a sack. She
has an overdraft at the bank which costs 12 per cent a year, with spillage, storage, loss and insurance costing 6.75 per cent
a year. What size of delivery should Jessica use?
[Question ID = 11075]
1. 160 units [Option ID = 44294]
2. 140 units [Option ID = 44295]
3. 142 units [Option ID = 44296]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44297]
Correct Answer :
140 units [Option ID = 44295]
15) _________ are of the nature, if they are not available, they will not stop the system from working nor they reduce the
efficiency of the system.
[Question ID = 11076]
1. Vital items [Option ID = 44298]
2. Essential items [Option ID = 44299]
3. Important items [Option ID = 44300]
4. Desirable items [Option ID = 44301]
Correct Answer :
Desirable items [Option ID = 44301]
16) The ordering cost is Rs.10 per order for a certain type of commodity whose holding cost per unit is Rs. 2 per year. If
the annual demand is 4,000 units and the replacement is instantaneous and no shortages are allowed then the EOQ
is_________.
[Question ID = 11077]
1. 200 units [Option ID = 44302]
2. 800 units [Option ID = 44303]
3. 550 units [Option ID = 44304]
4. 450 units [Option ID = 44305]
Correct Answer :
200 units [Option ID = 44302]
17) A producer has to supply 12,000 units of a product per year to his customer. The demand is fixed and known and
shortages are not allowed. The inventory holding cost is Rs.0.20 per unit per month and the set up cost per run is Rs. 350.
The optimum scheduling period is _________.
[Question ID = 11078]
1. 1.87 month [Option ID = 44306]
2. 1.5 month [Option ID = 44307]
3. 2 month [Option ID = 44308]
4. 1 month [Option ID = 44309]
Correct Answer :
1.87 month [Option ID = 44306]
18) The common basic queuing models assume that arrival rate follows the ______ and that service times follow
__________.
[Question ID = 11079]
1. Poisson distribution, negative exponential distribution [Option ID = 44310]
2. normal distribution, Poisson distribution [Option ID = 44311]
3. Poisson distribution, exponential distribution [Option ID = 44312]
4. Beta distribution, normal distribution [Option ID = 44313]
Correct Answer :
Poisson distribution, negative exponential distribution [Option ID = 44310]
19) A product manufacturing plant at a city distributes its products by trucks, loaded at the factory warehouse. It has its
own fleet of trucks plus trucks of a private transport company. This transport company has complained that sometimes its
trucks have to wait in line and thus the company loses money paid for a truck and driver of waiting truck. The company has
asked the plant manager either to go in for a second warehouse or discount prices equivalent to the waiting time. The data
available is: Average arrival rate of all trucks = 3 per hour, Average service rate = 4 per hour. The transport company has
provided 40% of the total number of trucks. Assuming that these rates are random according to the Poisson distribution, the
expected waiting time of company trucks per day is_________.
[Question ID = 11080]
1. 7.2 hours per day [Option ID = 44314]
2. 5 hours per day [Option ID = 44315]
3. 3 hours per day [Option ID = 44316]
4. 7 hours per day [Option ID = 44317]
Correct Answer :
7.2 hours per day [Option ID = 44314]
20) A company has recorded the following list of service rates (customers/hour) for one of its servers as 5, 9, 4, 6, 5, 4, 8,
4, 3, 8. Then mean service time for this server is___.
[Question ID = 11081]
1. 0.22 minutes [Option ID = 44318]
2. 10.71 minutes [Option ID = 44319]
3. 11.33 minutes [Option ID = 44320]
4. 4.5 minutes [Option ID = 44321]
Correct Answer :
10.71 minutes [Option ID = 44319]
21) Consider the case when several customers may collaborate and only one of them may stand in the queue. Such a
customer behavior can be classified as___________.
[Question ID = 11082]
1. Balking [Option ID = 44322]
2. Jokeying [Option ID = 44323]
3. Collusion [Option ID = 44324]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44325]
Correct Answer :
Collusion [Option ID = 44324]
22)
[Question ID = 11083]
1. 41% [Option ID = 44326]
2. 40% [Option ID = 44327]
3. 50% [Option ID = 44328]
4. 51% [Option ID = 44329]
Correct Answer :
41% [Option ID = 44326]
23)
[Question ID = 11084]
1. 2 [Option ID = 44330]
2. 1 [Option ID = 44331]
3. 1.5 [Option ID = 44332]
4. 0 [Option ID = 44333]
Correct Answer :
2 [Option ID = 44330]
24) The constant part of the bathtub hazard rate called as the "useful period" begins just after the _______________
and ends just before the ___________.
[Question ID = 11085]
1. infant mortality period, wearout period [Option ID = 44334]
2. debugging period, breakin period [Option ID = 44335]
3. burnin period, debugging period [Option ID = 44336]
4. breakin period, wearout period [Option ID = 44337]
Correct Answer :
infant mortality period, wearout period [Option ID = 44334]
25)
[Question ID = 11086]
1.
[Option ID = 44338]
2.
[Option ID = 44339]
3.
[Option ID = 44340]
4.
[Option ID = 44341]
Correct Answer :
[Option ID = 44338]
26) The probability of Mr. X living 20 years more is 1/5 and that of Mr. Y is 1/7. Then the probability that at least one of
them will survive 20 years hence is________.
[Question ID = 11087]
1. 12/35 [Option ID = 44342]
2. 1/35 [Option ID = 44343]
3. 11/35 [Option ID = 44344]
4. 13/35 [Option ID = 44345]
Correct Answer :
11/35 [Option ID = 44344]
27) For the given mid values 25, 34, 43, 52, 61, 70, the first class of the distribution is_____.
[Question ID = 11088]
1. 24.534.5 [Option ID = 44346]
2. 2534 [Option ID = 44347]
3. 2030 [Option ID = 44348]
4. 20.529.5 [Option ID = 44349]
Correct Answer :
20.529.5 [Option ID = 44349]
28) Which of the following example does not constitute an infinite population?
[Question ID = 11089]
1. Population consisting of odd numbers [Option ID = 44350]
2. Population of weights of newly born babies [Option ID = 44351]
3. Population of heights of 15year old children [Option ID = 44352]
4. Population of heads and tails in tossing a coin successively [Option ID = 44353]
Correct Answer :
Population of heights of 15year old children [Option ID = 44352]
29) The mean produce of wheat of a sample of 100 fields is 200 lbs per acre with a standard deviation of 10 lbs. Another
sample of 150 fields gives the mean of 220 lbs with a standard deviation of 12 lbs. The two samples have been taken from
the same population whose standard deviation is 11 lbs. The test statistic z is___________.
[Question ID = 11090]
1. 14.08 [Option ID = 44354]
2. 14.08 [Option ID = 44355]
3. 14.52 [Option ID = 44356]
4. 14.52 [Option ID = 44357]
Correct Answer :
14.08 [Option ID = 44354]
30) The average score in an aptitude test administered at the national level is 80. To evaluate a state's education system,
the average score of 100 of the state's students selected on random basis was 75. The state wants to know if there is a
significant difference between the local scores and the national scores. In such a situation the null hypotheses may be
stated as under:
[Question ID = 11091]
1.
[Option ID = 44358]
2.
[Option ID = 44359]
3.
[Option ID = 44360]
4.
[Option ID = 44361]
Correct Answer :
[Option ID = 44361]
31) A market research survey in which 64 consumers were contacted states that 64 per cent of all consumers of a certain
product were motivated by the product's advertising. Then the lower confidence limit for the proportion of consumers
motivated by advertising in the population, given a confidence level equal to 0.95 (corresponding z = 1.96) is______.
[Question ID = 11092]
1. 52.24% [Option ID = 44362]
2. 75.76% [Option ID = 44363]
3. 50.42% [Option ID = 44364]
4. 45.21% [Option ID = 44365]
Correct Answer :
52.24% [Option ID = 44362]
32) In a random selection of 64 of the 2400 intersections in a small city, the mean number of scooter accidents per year is
3.2 and the sample standard deviation is 0.8. Then the standard error of mean for this finite population is___________.
[Question ID = 11093]
1. 0.097 [Option ID = 44366]
2. 0.08 [Option ID = 44367]
3. 0.064 [Option ID = 44368]
4. 0.001 [Option ID = 44369]
Correct Answer :
0.097 [Option ID = 44366]
33) In case of bivariate population, Correlation can be studied through_______.
[Question ID = 11094]
1. coefficient of correlation [Option ID = 44370]
2. coefficient of partial correlation [Option ID = 44371]
3. cross tabulation [Option ID = 44372]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44373]
Correct Answer :
cross tabulation [Option ID = 44372]
34) Kurtosis is the measure of ______of a curve.
[Question ID = 11095]
1. flattoppedness [Option ID = 44374]
2. skewness [Option ID = 44375]
3. symmetry [Option ID = 44376]
4. nonsymmetry [Option ID = 44377]
Correct Answer :
flattoppedness [Option ID = 44374]
35) If the marital status of individuals is recorded as a nominal data using numbers 1,2,3, or 4, then which of following
operations are valid for marital status?
[Question ID = 11096]
1. 4 > 2 or 3 < 4
[Option ID = 44378]
2. 31 = 42
[Option ID = 44379]
3. 4 2
[Option ID = 44380]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 44381]
Correct Answer :
none of these
[Option ID = 44381]
36)
[Question ID = 11097]
1. 20 and 10
[Option ID = 44382]
2. 9 and 21
[Option ID = 44383]
3. 27 and 3
[Option ID = 44384]
4. 15 and 15
[Option ID = 44385]
Correct Answer :
20 and 10
[Option ID = 44382]
37) ________are the random variations in the sample estimates around the true population parameters.
[Question ID = 11098]
1. Sampling errors [Option ID = 44386]
2. Sampling size [Option ID = 44387]
3. Sampling biases [Option ID = 44388]
4. Natural biases [Option ID = 44389]
Correct Answer :
Sampling errors [Option ID = 44386]
38) ___________concerns with the question of how many items are to be observed and how the information and data
gathered are to be analyzed.
[Question ID = 11099]
1. The statistical design [Option ID = 44390]
2. The observational design [Option ID = 44391]
3. The operational design [Option ID = 44392]
4. The sampling design [Option ID = 44393]
Correct Answer :
The statistical design [Option ID = 44390]
39) _______refers to consistency and authenticity in responses.
[Question ID = 11100]
1. Validity [Option ID = 44394]
2. Objectivity [Option ID = 44395]
3. Reliability [Option ID = 44396]
4. Generalization [Option ID = 44397]
Correct Answer :
Reliability [Option ID = 44396]
40) Most of the survey types of research designs are________.
[Question ID = 11101]
1. onetime research [Option ID = 44398]
2. simulation research [Option ID = 44399]
3. interventional research [Option ID = 44400]
4. analytical research [Option ID = 44401]
Correct Answer :
onetime research [Option ID = 44398]
41) The ethical issues involved in formulating a research problem include________.
[Question ID = 11102]
1. the study population may be adversely affected by some of the questions [Option ID = 44402]
2. the study population may expected to be simply experimental `guinea pigs' [Option ID = 44403]
3. the study population may expected to share sensitive and private information [Option ID = 44404]
4. all of these [Option ID = 44405]
Correct Answer :
all of these [Option ID = 44405]
42) For any investigation, the selection of an appropriate ________is crucial in enabling a researcher to arrive at valid
findings, comparisons and conclusions.
[Question ID = 11103]
1. research design [Option ID = 44406]
2. research methodology [Option ID = 44407]
3. research question [Option ID = 44408]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44409]
Correct Answer :
research design [Option ID = 44406]
43) Quantitative research focuses on __________.
[Question ID = 11104]
1. structured methodology [Option ID = 44410]
2. greater sample sizes [Option ID = 44411]
3. reliability and objectivity [Option ID = 44412]
4. all of these [Option ID = 44413]
Correct Answer :
all of these [Option ID = 44413]
44) From the view point of application, the research can be broadly categorized as____.
[Question ID = 11105]
1. pure and applied [Option ID = 44414]
2. qualitative and quantitative [Option ID = 44415]
3. descriptive and explanatory [Option ID = 44416]
4. exploratory and correlational [Option ID = 44417]
Correct Answer :
pure and applied [Option ID = 44414]
45) Which of the following is not a random sampling technique?
[Question ID = 11106]
1. Purposive sampling [Option ID = 44418]
2. Stratified sampling [Option ID = 44419]
3. Cluster sampling [Option ID = 44420]
4. Systematic sampling [Option ID = 44421]
Correct Answer :
Purposive sampling [Option ID = 44418]
46) If the standard error of the population is reduced by 50 per cent, then the sample size____________.
[Question ID = 11107]
1. becomes double
[Option ID = 44422]
2. increases 6 times
[Option ID = 44423]
3. increases 4 times
[Option ID = 44424]
4. increases 2 times
[Option ID = 44425]
Correct Answer :
increases 4 times
[Option ID = 44424]
47)
[Question ID = 11108]
1. not possible to determine [Option ID = 44426]
2. 30 [Option ID = 44427]
3. 40 [Option ID = 44428]
4. 25 [Option ID = 44429]
Correct Answer :
30 [Option ID = 44427]
48) When sample size increases, ___________.
[Question ID = 11109]
1. the standard error remains unchanged [Option ID = 44430]
2. the standard error increases [Option ID = 44431]
3. the standard error decreases [Option ID = 44432]
4. none of these [Option ID = 44433]
Correct Answer :
the standard error decreases [Option ID = 44432]
49) Original source from which a researcher directly collects the data that has not been previously collected is
___________.
[Question ID = 11110]
1. Secondary data
[Option ID = 44434]
2. Primary data
[Option ID = 44435]
3. Tertiary data
[Option ID = 44436]
4. none of these
[Option ID = 44437]
Correct Answer :
Primary data
[Option ID = 44435]
50) 7point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning is referred to as
____________.
[Question ID = 11111]
1. Semantic differential scale [Option ID = 44438]
2. Constant sum scale [Option ID = 44439]
3. Graphic rating scale [Option ID = 44440]
4. Likert scale [Option ID = 44441]
Correct Answer :
Semantic differential scale [Option ID = 44438]
This post was last modified on 27 December 2020