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Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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Topic:- BOT MSC S2

Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics than Gram-positive bacteria because they possess [Question ID = 416]
1. Outer lipopolysaccharide layer [Option ID = 1658]
2. Thin peptidoglycan wall [Option ID = 1659]
3. Porin proteins [Option ID = 1660]
4. Teichoic acid [Option ID = 1661]
Correct Answer :-
- Outer lipopolysaccharide layer [Option ID = 1658]
The necessary free energy for flagellar rotation in bacteria is derived from [Question ID = 417]
1. ATP [Option ID = 1662]
2. proton gradient across the plasma membrane [Option ID = 1663]
3. breakdown of high energy molecules [Option ID = 1664]
4. electron gradient across the plasma membrane [Option ID = 1665]
Correct Answer :-
- proton gradient across the plasma membrane [Option ID = 1663]

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The organisms that derive energy from chemical oxidation, and use inorganic carbon as the carbon source are known as [Question ID = 418]
1. Photoautotrophs [Option ID = 1666]
2. Photoheterotrophs [Option ID = 1667]
3. Chemoautotrophs [Option ID = 1668]
4. Chemoheterotrophs [Option ID = 1669]
Correct Answer :-
- Chemoautotrophs [Option ID = 1668]
Microorganisms that are capable of growth and reproduction in low temperatures, ranging from -20°C to +10°C, are known as [Question ID = 419]
1. Mesophiles [Option ID = 1670]
2. Thermophiles [Option ID = 1671]
3. Psychrophiles [Option ID = 1672]
4. Barophiles [Option ID = 1673]
Correct Answer :-
- Psychrophiles [Option ID = 1672]
Which one of the following algae can survive in Dead sea? [Question ID = 420]
1. Batrachospermum [Option ID = 1674]
2. Dunaliella [Option ID = 1675]
3. Spirogyra [Option ID = 1676]
4. Pandorina [Option ID = 1677]
Correct Answer :-
- Dunaliella [Option ID = 1675]
Carrageenan is produced from [Question ID = 421]
1. Gracilaria verrucosa [Option ID = 1678]
2. Kappaphycus alvarezii [Option ID = 1680]
3. Sargassum natans [Option ID = 1681]
Correct Answer :-
- Kappaphycus alvarezii [Option ID = 1680]
Which one of the following is a parasitic alga? [Question ID = 422]
1. Chaetophora [Option ID = 1682]
2. Bulbochaete [Option ID = 1683]
3. Cephaleuros [Option ID = 1684]
4. Trentepohlia [Option ID = 1685]
Correct Answer :-
- Cephaleuros [Option ID = 1684]
The nucule of Chara is capped by [Question ID = 423]
1. Nodal cells [Option ID = 1686]
2. Internodal cells [Option ID = 1687]
3. Tube cells [Option ID = 1688]
4. Corona cells [Option ID = 1689]
Correct Answer :-
- Corona cells [Option ID = 1689]

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The enzymes that detect improperly folded proteins are located in [Question ID = 424]
1. Golgi complex [Option ID = 1690]
2. Endoplasmic reticulum [Option ID = 1691]
3. Cytoplasm [Option ID = 1692]
4. Proteasome [Option ID = 1693]
Correct Answer :-
- Endoplasmic reticulum [Option ID = 1691]
The movement of cargo from Endoplasmic reticulum to vesicular-tubular cluster (VTC) or the ER-Golgi intermediate compartment (ERGIC) occurs via [Question ID = 425]
1. Clathirin coated vesicle only [Option ID = 1694]
2. COP-I coated vesicle only [Option ID = 1695]
3. Both COP-I and Clathirin coated vesicles [Option ID = 1696]
4. COP-II coated vesicles only [Option ID = 1697]
Correct Answer :-
- COP-II coated vesicles only [Option ID = 1697]
The balance between which of the following proteins determines the progress of cells from G2 to M phase of cell cycle? [Question ID = 426]
1. Cdc25 phosphatase and Wee1 kinase [Option ID = 1698]
2. Cdc2 kinase and Cdc45 [Option ID = 1699]
3. Cdc2 kinase and G1 cyclin [Option ID = 1700]
4. Cdc2 kinase and APC [Option ID = 1701]
Correct Answer :-
- Cdc25 phosphatase and Wee1 kinase [Option ID = 1698]
Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis is a procedure used to separate large DNA molecules [Question ID = 427]
1. By cleaving the DNA molecules in pulsed manner. [Option ID = 1703]
2. By loading the nucleic acid mixture on the separating gel in pulsed manner. [Option ID = 1704]
3. By separating the DNA molecules in pulsed manner. [Option ID = 1705]
4. By alternating the direction of applied voltage across a semi-solid gel in pulsed manner. [Option ID = 1702]
Correct Answer :-
- By alternating the direction of applied voltage across a semi-solid gel in pulsed manner. [Option ID = 1702]
A disaccharide formed by linking two glucose molecules by B-1,4 glycosidic bond is [Question ID = 428]
1. Maltose [Option ID = 1706]
2. Cellobiose [Option ID = 1707]
3. Trehalose [Option ID = 1708]
4. Lactose [Option ID = 1709]
Correct Answer :-
- Cellobiose [Option ID = 1707]

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The concentration of H+ in a solution having pH 4.0 is [Question ID = 429]
1. 0.4 M [Option ID = 1710]
2. 4.0 M [Option ID = 1711]
3. 0.4 mM [Option ID = 1712]
4. 40 mM [Option ID = 1713]
Correct Answer :-
- 0.4 mM [Option ID = 1712]
Vacuum is maintained in the column of a transmission electron microscope to increase the [Question ID = 430]
1. focal length of the condenser, objective and projector lenses. [Option ID = 1714]
2. emission of electrons from the electron gun. [Option ID = 1715]
3. the resolution of the image. [Option ID = 1716]
4. mean free path of the electrons. [Option ID = 1717]
Correct Answer :-
- mean free path of the electrons. [Option ID = 1717]
The myosin head decoration experiment reveals that [Question ID = 431]
1. microfilaments are composed of G-actin and are polar in nature. [Option ID = 1718]
2. one end of microfilaments is favoured for addition of new G-actin monomers. [Option ID = 1719]
3. ATPase-binding cleft is exposed to the surrounding solution on one side of microfilaments. [Option ID = 1720]
4. microfilaments are involved in muscle contraction. [Option ID = 1721]
Correct Answer :-
- microfilaments are composed of G-actin and are polar in nature. [Option ID = 1718]
Asexual fruiting body consisting of conidiophores aggregated into parallel bundles is termed as [Question ID = 432]
1. Sporodochium [Option ID = 1722]
2. Pycnidium [Option ID = 1723]
3. Acervulus [Option ID = 1724]
4. Synnema [Option ID = 1725]
Correct Answer :-
- Synnema [Option ID = 1725]
Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT for Puccinia graminis f. sp. tritici - causal organism for black rust of wheat? [Question ID = 433]
1. It is a classic example of a heterothallic, macrocyclic and heteroecious rust fungus. [Option ID = 1726]
2. Urediniospores are dikaryotic, thick wall spores incapable of re-infecting wheat plant but infect the alternate host, barberry. [Option ID = 1727]
3. Teliospores are two-celled, thick-walled, initially diakaryotic, later becoming monokaryotic due to karyogamy resulting in the formation of diploid nucleus in each cell. [Option ID = 1728]
4. Basidiospores are halpoid spores and are responsible for infecting alternate host, barberry [Option ID = 1729]
Correct Answer :-
- Urediniospores are dikaryotic, thick wall spores incapable of re-infecting wheat plant but infect the alternate host, barberry. [Option ID = 1727]

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Plant pathogens Phytophthora, Albugo and Plasmopara belong to the kingdom [Question ID = 434]
1. Fungi [Option ID = 1730]
2. Protista [Option ID = 1731]
3. Straminipila [Option ID = 1732]
4. Monera [Option ID = 1733]
Correct Answer :-
- Straminipila [Option ID = 1732]
Which one of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched? [Question ID = 435]
1. Woronin bodies near septal pores - Ascomycota [Option ID = 1734]
2. Dolipore septa in the hyphae - Basidiomycota [Option ID = 1735]
3. Dikaryotic hyphae - Chytridiomycota [Option ID = 1736]
4. Cell wall made up of chitin and chitosan - Zygomycota [Option ID = 1737]
Correct Answer :-
- Dikaryotic hyphae - Chytridiomycota [Option ID = 1736]
In Myxomycetes, the diploid stage is represented by [Question ID = 436]
1. Myxamoebae and swarm cells [Option ID = 1738]
2. Swarm cells and plasmodium [Option ID = 1739]
3. Plasmodium and sporangium [Option ID = 1740]
4. Sporangium, myxamoebae and plasmodium [Option ID = 1741]
Correct Answer :-
- Plasmodium and sporangium [Option ID = 1740]
Which one of the following shows continuous spore production throughout the growing season due to the activity of basal meristem in the sporophyte? [Question ID = 437]
1. Funaria [Option ID = 1742]
2. Anthoceros [Option ID = 1743]
3. Sphagnum [Option ID = 1744]
4. Porella [Option ID = 1745]
Correct Answer :-
- Anthoceros [Option ID = 1743]
Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT? [Question ID = 438]
1. Sporophyte of Riccia lacks foot, seta and elaters. [Option ID = 1746]
2. Basal elatorophore is found in the sporophyte of Pellia. [Option ID = 1747]
3. In Funaria, extensively branched heterotrichus protonema is produced after spore germination. [Option ID = 1748]
4. In Sphagnum, spore dispersal is facilitated by the peristome. [Option ID = 1749]
Correct Answer :-
- In Sphagnum, spore dispersal is facilitated by the peristome. [Option ID = 1749]

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Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT about Marchantia? [Question ID = 439]
1. Multicellular rhizoids are present. [Option ID = 1750]
2. Thallus tissue consists of photosynthetic and storage zones. [Option ID = 1751]
3. Air pores are present on the upper epidermis, which facilitate gaseous exchange. [Option ID = 1752]
4. The groups of archegonia are surrounded by perichaetium. [Option ID = 1753]
Correct Answer :-
- Multicellular rhizoids are present. [Option ID = 1750]
One of the five evolutionary processes envisaged in Telome theory, the one that possibly led to origin and evolution of venation in leaves and the complex anastomosing vascular system in the stem is [Question ID = 440]
1. Overtopping [Option ID = 1754]
2. Planation [Option ID = 1755]
3. Incurvation [Option ID = 1756]
4. Syngenesis [Option ID = 1757]
Correct Answer :-
- Syngenesis [Option ID = 1757]
Which one of the following is mismatched? [Question ID = 441]
1. Rhizophore -a leafless root producing axial organ in Selaginella [Option ID = 1758]
2. Synangium a group of three fused sporangia in Psilotum [Option ID = 1759]
3. Stomium membranous covering of a sorus in Pteris [Option ID = 1760]
4. Vallecular canals- Schizogenous canals in the stem cortex of Equisetum [Option ID = 1761]
Correct Answer :-
- Stomium - membranous covering of a sorus in Pteris [Option ID = 1760]
Which one of the following is INCORRECT about Gnetum? [Question ID = 442]
1. Vessels are present in the secondary xylem. [Option ID = 1762]
2. Leaves show reticulate venation pattern. [Option ID = 1763]
3. There are no archegonia and some nuclei of female gametophyte function as eggs. [Option ID = 1764]
4. Development of female gametophyte is monosporic. [Option ID = 1765]
Correct Answer :-
- Development of female gametophyte is monosporic. [Option ID = 1765]
The type of stomata where the stoma is surrounded by three subsidiary cells, one of which is significantly smaller than the other two are termed as [Question ID = 443]
1. Anomocytic [Option ID = 1766]
2. Anisocytic [Option ID = 1767]
3. Diacytic [Option ID = 1768]
4. Paracytic [Option ID = 1769]
Correct Answer :-
- Anisocytic [Option ID = 1767]

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Which of the following is CORRECT for non-articulate laticifers? [Question ID = 444]
1. They originate from single cells. [Option ID = 1770]
2. They do not undergo fusion with other similar cells. [Option ID = 1771]
3. They typically arise in primary plant body. [Option ID = 1772]
4. Latex containing cells present in Hevea are examples of nonarticulated laticifers. [Option ID = 1773]
Correct Answer :-
- Latex containing cells present in Hevea are examples of nonarticulated laticifers. [Option ID = 1773]
According to Hanstein's 'Histogen theory', periblem, one of the three histogens, forms [Question ID = 445]
1. Cortex [Option ID = 1774]
2. Epidermis [Option ID = 1775]
3. primary vascular and associated ground tissue [Option ID = 1776]
4. Inter-fescicular region [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
- Cortex [Option ID = 1774]
Primary peripheral thickening meristems are the characteristic feature of [Question ID = 446]
1. Orchids [Option ID = 1778]
2. Brassicaceae [Option ID = 1779]
3. Basal angiosperms [Option ID = 1780]
4. Palms [Option ID = 1781]
Correct Answer :-
- Palms [Option ID = 1781]
Choose the INCORRECT statement about plants with ring porous woods. [Question ID = 447]
1. Such plants are deciduous type. [Option ID = 1782]
2. It is a plesiomorphic feature. [Option ID = 1783]
3. Such plants serve as ideal material for dendrochronology. [Option ID = 1784]
4. The lumen of vessels varies in different seasons of the year. [Option ID = 1785]
Correct Answer :-
- It is a plesiomorphic feature. [Option ID = 1783]
In bijugate plants with helical phyllotaxy, the angle of divergence (angle between radii drawn to the centre of successively produced primordia) is approximately [Question ID = 448]
1. 68.7 degrees [Option ID = 1786]
2. 78.7 degrees [Option ID = 1787]
3. 88.7 degrees [Option ID = 1788]
4. 98.7 degrees [Option ID = 1789]
Correct Answer :-
- 68.7 degrees [Option ID = 1786]

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Plastochron refers to [Question ID = 449]
1. the time interval between inception of two successive primordia. [Option ID = 1790]
2. the order in which leaves are borne around the stem axis. [Option ID = 1791]
3. pigmented plastids of the epidermal layer. [Option ID = 1792]
4. the order in which flowers are borne around the inflorescence axis. [Option ID = 1793]
Correct Answer :-
- the time interval between inception of two successive primordia. [Option ID = 1790]
Parenchyma surrounding the vessels and extending tangentially in wing-shaped masses is known as [Question ID = 450]
1. Confluent parenchyma [Option ID = 1794]
2. Aliform parenchyma [Option ID = 1795]
3. Paratracheal parenchyma [Option ID = 1796]
4. Terminal parenchyma [Option ID = 1797]
Correct Answer :-
- Aliform parenchyma [Option ID = 1795]
Clove is a [Question ID = 451]
1. vegetative bud. [Option ID = 1798]
2. axillary bud. [Option ID = 1799]
3. floral bud. [Option ID = 1800]
4. dried flower bud. [Option ID = 1801]
Correct Answer :-
- dried flower bud. [Option ID = 1801]
Which one of the following is NOT an oilseed crop? [Question ID = 452]
1. Brassica juncea [Option ID = 1802]
2. Carthamus tinctorius [Option ID = 1803]
3. Brassica campestris [Option ID = 1804]
4. Helianthus annuus [Option ID = 1805]
Correct Answer :-
- Brassica campestris [Option ID = 1804]
Which plant is commonly called "Indian Bay Leaf" plant: [Question ID = 453]
1. Cinnamomum verum [Option ID = 1806]
2. Commiphora wightii [Option ID = 1807]
3. Cinnamomum camphora [Option ID = 1808]
4. Cinnamomum tamala [Option ID = 1809]
Correct Answer :-
- Cinnamomum tamala [Option ID = 1809]

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Match the items mentioned in List I with those of List II:

List I Medicinal Plant	List II Bioactive compound
A. Strychnos-nux vomica	I. Lysergic acid
B. Atropa belladonna	II. Quinine
C. Cinchona ladgeriana	III. Hyoscyamine
D. Claviceps purpurea	IV. Strychnicine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [Question ID = 454]

A I, B II, C - III, D - IV [Option ID = 1810]
A IV, B I, C II, D - III [Option ID = 1811]
A IV, B III, C - II, D - I [Option ID = 1812]
A IV, B II, C - I, D - III [Option ID = 1813]

Correct Answer :-

A IV, B III, C - II, D - I [Option ID = 1812]

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Bast fibres are obtained from:
1. Corchorus capsularis
2. Bombax ceiba
3. Cannabis sativa
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [Question ID = 455]
1. B and C only [Option ID = 1814]
2. A, B, C and D [Option ID = 1815]
3. A, B and D only [Option ID = 1816]
4. B and D only [Option ID = 1817]
Correct Answer :-
- A, B and D only [Option ID = 1816]

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Match the items of Columns I, II & III and pick up the correct option given below:

Column I Column II Column III

p. IRRI a. Maize & wheat i. Shimla

q. CIMMYT b. Rice ii. Lucknow

r. CPRI c. Potato iii. Mexico

s. CIMAP d. Medicinal & aromatic plants iv. Philippines

[Question ID = 456]
1. p-a-i; q-b-ii; r-c-iii; s-d-iv [Option ID = 1818]
2. p-b-iv; q-a-iii; r-d-i; s-c-ii [Option ID = 1819]
3. p-b-iv; q-a-iii; r-c-i; s-d-ii [Option ID = 1820]
4. p-a-i; q-c-ii; r-b-iv; s-d-iii [Option ID = 1821]
Correct Answer :-
- p-b-iv; q-a-iii; r-c-i; s-d-ii [Option ID = 1820]
Which of the following is the centre of origin of Arachis hypogea? [Question ID = 457]
1. South America [Option ID = 1822]
2. South Africa [Option ID = 1823]
3. Southeast Asia [Option ID = 1824]
4. Central Asia [Option ID = 1825]
Correct Answer :-
- South America [Option ID = 1822]
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for the high-resolution map of T4 rII locus developed by Seymour Benzer? [Question ID = 458]
1. Two mutants having mutations in different regions of rII locus can produce recombinant wild-type phages when crossed. [Option ID = 1826]
2. The rII mutants used were virulent mutants. [Option ID = 1827]
3. The rII mutants used were conditional mutants. [Option ID = 1828]
4. His experiments showed that recombination can occur between genes and not within genes. [Option ID = 1829]
Correct Answer :-
- His experiments showed that recombination can occur between genes and not within genes. [Option ID = 1829]
Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE? [Question ID = 459]
1. Quantitative traits are polygenic in nature. [Option ID = 1830]
2. There can be multiple alleles of a locus, but a diploid individual can have a maximum of two alleles. [Option ID = 1831]
3. The two sister chromatids have different allelic configurations. [Option ID = 1832]
4. Genetic maps are generally collinear with physical maps. [Option ID = 1833]
Correct Answer :-
- The two sister chromatids have different allelic configurations. [Option ID = 1832]
The direction of coiling in a pond snail species, X exhibits maternal effect. Assuming that the coiling is governed by a single locus with two alleles where dextral coiling (to the right) is dominant over sinistral coiling (to the left), what will be the phenotype of F2 individuals, if a homozygous sinistral female is crossed with a homozygous dextral male? [Question ID = 460]
1. All dextral [Option ID = 1834]
2. All sinistral [Option ID = 1835]
3. Both dextral and sinistral in 3:1 ratio [Option ID = 1836]
4. Both sinistral and dextral in 3:1 ratio [Option ID = 1837]
Correct Answer :-
- All dextral [Option ID = 1834]

Column I	Column II	Column III
p. IRRI	a. Maize & wheat	i. Shimla
q. CIMMYT	b. Rice	ii. Lucknow
r. CPRI	c. Potato	iii. Mexico
s. CIMAP	d. Medicinal & aromatic plants	iv. Philippines

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Inheritance of MN blood types is controlled by codominant alleles M and N. In a population of 200 individuals, the blood types observed were; type M= 114, type MN=76 and type NN=10. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of alleles M and N will be [Question ID = 461]
1. 0.24 and 0.76, respectively. [Option ID = 1838]
2. 0.76 and 0.24, respectively. [Option ID = 1839]
3. 0.5
  This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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