Download DUET Master 2018 DU MSc Biochemistry Question Paper With Answer Key

Download DUET (Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA) 2018 DU MSc Biochemistry Question Paper With Solution Key

This post was last modified on 29 January 2020

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DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

DU MSc Biochemistry

Topic:- DU_J18_MSC_BIOCHEM

Which of the following organism is exploited for transfer of genes in plants? [Question ID = 51640]
1. Clostridium perfringens [Option ID = 86555]
2. Staphylococcus aureus [Option ID = 86553]
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens [Option ID = 86552]
4. Escherichia coli [Option ID = 86554]
Correct Answer :-
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens [Option ID = 86552]

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Which of the following defects in the adrenal cortex leads to lack of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids? [Question ID = 51616]
1. Testosterone deficiency [Option ID = 86458]
2. Androstenedione deficiency [Option ID = 86457]
3. Estrone deficiency [Option ID = 86459]
4. C 21 hydroxylase deficiency [Option ID = 86456]
Correct Answer :-
- C 21 hydroxylase deficiency [Option ID = 86456]
Which of the following is true for allosteric inhibition of an enzyme? [Question ID = 51585]
1. It always leads to a reduced binding of substrate [Option ID = 86335]
2. The inhibitor binds to some other site than the active site of the enzyme [Option ID = 86332]
3. The inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme [Option ID = 86333]
4. It causes the enzyme to work faster [Option ID = 86334]
Correct Answer :-
- The inhibitor binds to some other site than the active site of the enzyme [Option ID = 86332]
Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics? [Question ID = 51571]
1. It assumes that covalent binding occurs between enzyme and substrate [Option ID = 86279]
2. Km, the Michaelis constant, is defined as that concentration of substrate at which enzyme is working at maximum velocity [Option ID = 86276]
3. Km, the Michaelis constant is defined as the dissociation constant of the enzyme-substrate complex [Option ID = 86278]
4. It describes single substrate enzymes [Option ID = 86277]
Correct Answer :-
- It describes single substrate enzymes [Option ID = 86277]
Which of the following increases Ca+2 release from ER [Question ID = 51609]
1. Diacylglycerol (DAG) [Option ID = 86431]
2. Parathyroid hormone [Option ID = 86429]
3. Calcitonin [Option ID = 86430]
4. Inositol triphosphate [Option ID = 86428]
Correct Answer :-
- Inositol triphosphate [Option ID = 86428]
Intrinsic fluorescence of GFP is contributed by: [Question ID = 51644]
1. Cyclization and oxidation of residues: Ser-Tyr-Gly [Option ID = 86568]
2. Cyclization and oxidation of residues: Ser-Tyr-Pro [Option ID = 86571]
3. Cyclization and oxidation of residues: Ser-Pro-Gly [Option ID = 86569]
4. Cyclization and oxidation of residues: Tyr-Gly-Pro [Option ID = 86570]
Correct Answer :-
- Cyclization and oxidation of residues: Ser-Tyr-Gly [Option ID = 86568]

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Intrinsic fluorescence of proteins is primarily contributed by: [Question ID = 51633]
1. Histidine [Option ID = 86526]
2. Proline [Option ID = 86527]
3. Cysteine [Option ID = 86524]
4. Tryptophan [Option ID = 86525]
Correct Answer :-
- Tryptophan [Option ID = 86525]
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor are used to treat [Question ID = 51580]
1. Diabetes [Option ID = 86312]
2. Obesity [Option ID = 86315]
3. Hypertension [Option ID = 86313]
4. Hyperthyroidism [Option ID = 86314]
Correct Answer :-
- Hypertension [Option ID = 86313]
Hashimoto's disease is [Question ID = 51599]
1. a viral disease [Option ID = 86391]
2. an autoimmune disorder that causes hypoglycemia [Option ID = 86390]
3. an autoimmune disorder that causes hypothyroidism [Option ID = 86389]
4. an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism [Option ID = 86388]
Correct Answer :-
- an autoimmune disorder that causes hypothyroidism [Option ID = 86389]
Lovastatin is a [Question ID = 51667]
1. Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA synthetase [Option ID = 86661]
2. Non-competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase [Option ID = 86662]
3. Competitive inhibitor of acetyl CoA carboxylase [Option ID = 86660]
4. Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase [Option ID = 86663]
Correct Answer :-
- Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase [Option ID = 86663]
FACS is used to measure two types of scatters, namely forward and side. What physical properties are determined by these parameters? [Question ID = 51572]
1. Forward- Granularity of the cell; Side-Size of the cell [Option ID = 86281]
2. Forward- Volume of the cell; Side-Size of the cell [Option ID = 86283]
3. Forward- Size of the cell; Side- Granularity of the cell [Option ID = 86280]
4. Forward- Size of the cell; Side-Volume of the cell [Option ID = 86282]
Correct Answer :-
- Forward- Size of the cell; Side- Granularity of the cell [Option ID = 86280]

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Snake venom phosphodiesterase is a: [Question ID = 51601]
1. Restriction endonuclease [Option ID = 86398]
2. Lipase [Option ID = 86399]
3. Endonuclease [Option ID = 86397]
4. Exonuclease [Option ID = 86396]
Correct Answer :-
- Exonuclease [Option ID = 86396]
The active site of chymotrypsin consists of a catalytic triad composed of which of the following amino acid residues? [Question ID = 51603]
1. Serine, histidine and aspartate [Option ID = 86404]
2. Serine, histidine and glutamate [Option ID = 86405]
3. Threonine, histidine and aspartate [Option ID = 86406]
4. Methionine, histidine and aspartate [Option ID = 86407]
Correct Answer :-
- Serine, histidine and aspartate [Option ID = 86404]
Passive administration of antibodies is employed as a mechanism for providing immediate protection against several toxins and pathogens. Which of the following are treated by passive immunization? [Question ID = 51648]
1. Tuberculosis [Option ID = 86584]
2. Botulism [Option ID = 86585]
3. Typhoid [Option ID = 86586]
4. Leprosy [Option ID = 86587]
Correct Answer :-
- Botulism [Option ID = 86585]
Folic acid is important for [Question ID = 51606]
1. Fatty acid oxidation [Option ID = 86418]
2. Fatty acid synthesis [Option ID = 86417]
3. Gluconeogenesis [Option ID = 86419]
4. One carbon metabolism [Option ID = 86416]
Correct Answer :-
- One carbon metabolism [Option ID = 86416]
Patients with cystic fibrosis have mutation in the gene that codes for a [Question ID = 51577]
1. Chloride ion channel [Option ID = 86302]
2. Toll like receptor [Option ID = 86303]
3. IFN-y receptor [Option ID = 86301]
4. Potassium channel [Option ID = 86300]
Correct Answer :-
- Chloride ion channel [Option ID = 86302]

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Dolly sheep was created by: [Question ID = 51639]
1. Artificial insemination [Option ID = 86548]
2. Somatic cell nuclear transfer [Option ID = 86549]
3. Embryonic stem cell mediated gene transfer [Option ID = 86550]
4. Pronuclear microinjection [Option ID = 86551]
Correct Answer :-
- Somatic cell nuclear transfer [Option ID = 86549]
On exposure to a pathogen, diagnostic tests showed increase in neutrophil count. What kind of pathogen is the patient most likely to be affected with ? [Question ID = 51634]
1. Influenza [Option ID = 86529]
2. Staphylococcus aureus [Option ID = 86528]
3. Plasmodium [Option ID = 86530]
4. HIV [Option ID = 86531]
Correct Answer :-
- Staphylococcus aureus [Option ID = 86528]
AB is a substrate for enzyme D which converts AB to AC. In the presence of an competitive inhibitor E in place of substrate AB, the enzyme's, [Question ID = 51604]
1. Km increases and Vmax remains same [Option ID = 86409]
2. Km increases and Vmax decreases [Option ID = 86410]
3. Km decreases and Vmax increases [Option ID = 86408]
4. Km and Vmax both remains same [Option ID = 86411]
Correct Answer :-
- Km increases and Vmax remains same [Option ID = 86409]
In the liver gluconeogenesis is induced in response to which of the following molecules? [Question ID = 51660]
1. Insulin [Option ID = 86633]
2. cAMP [Option ID = 86632]
3. cGMP [Option ID = 86634]
4. ATP [Option ID = 86635]
Correct Answer :-
- CAMP [Option ID = 86632]
The rate limiting step of urea cycle is mediated by [Question ID = 51593]
1. Arginase [Option ID = 86367]
2. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I [Option ID = 86365]
3. Arginosuccinate synthetase [Option ID = 86366]
4. Ornithine transcarbamoylase [Option ID = 86364]
Correct Answer :-
- Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I [Option ID = 86365]

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How many ATP molecules are produced by one glucose in aerobic respiration? [Question ID = 51589]
1. 38 [Option ID = 86349]
2. 28 [Option ID = 86351]
3. 42 [Option ID = 86350]
4. 40 [Option ID = 86348]
Correct Answer :-
- 38 [Option ID = 86349]
A 32 year old man is fasting for religious purpose for several days. Which of the following will be utilized by the brain as an alternative source of energy? [Question ID = 51613]
1. Alanine [Option ID = 86446]
2. Beta-hydroxy butyrate [Option ID = 86447]
3. Fatty acids [Option ID = 86444]
4. Glycerol [Option ID = 86445]
Correct Answer :-
- Beta-hydroxy butyrate [Option ID = 86447]
Individuals with familial hypercholesterolemia have mutations in the: [Question ID = 51612]
1. LDL receptor [Option ID = 86442]
2. Ferritin receptor [Option ID = 86441]
3. HDL receptor [Option ID = 86443]
4. Insulin receptor [Option ID = 86440]
Correct Answer :-
- LDL receptor [Option ID = 86442]
The process by which an amino acid catabolizes its carbon chain into acetoacetyl CoA is considered to be [Question ID = 51586]
1. Glycogenic [Option ID = 86336]
2. Both glycogenic and ketogenic [Option ID = 86338]
3. Neither glycogenic nor ketogenic [Option ID = 86339]
4. Ketogenic [Option ID = 86337]
Correct Answer :-
- Ketogenic [Option ID = 86337]
A human enzyme contains 4 disulphide bonds, essential for its folding. The enzyme was expressed in the oxidising environment of periplasm of E. coli host BL21 (DE3) RIL and was found to be inactive. However, the expression of the same enzyme in the oxidising environment of cytosol of E. coli Shuffle strain led to fully active enzyme. Which of the following is the likely reason for this observation? [Question ID = 51631]
1. Cytosol of E. coli Shuffle provides cofactor required for enzyme's activity [Option ID = 86517]
2. Cytosol of E. coli Shuffle provides more space for enzyme to fold. [Option ID = 86516]
3. Periplasm is rich in proteases that inactivate the enzyme. [Option ID = 86519]
4. The enzyme for disulphide bond formation is only present in E. coli cytosol. [Option ID = 86518]
Correct Answer :-
- Cytosol of E. coli Shuffle provides cofactor required for enzyme's activity [Option ID = 86517]

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An unknown bacteriophage has a base composition of 23% A, 36% T, 21% G, and 20% C. Its genome is likely to be: [Question ID = 51627]
1. Double stranded RNA [Option ID = 86502]
2. Double stranded DNA [Option ID = 86503]
3. Single stranded DNA [Option ID = 86501]
4. Single stranded RNA [Option ID = 86500]
Correct Answer :-
- Double stranded DNA [Option ID = 86503]
Deficiency of iodine will cause which of the following? [Question ID = 51614]
1. Decreased secretion of TSH [Option ID = 86450]
2. Increased basal metabolic rate [Option ID = 86451]
3. Increased secretion of TSH [Option ID = 86449]
4. Directly affect the synthesis of thyroglobin [Option ID = 86448]
Correct Answer :-
- Increased secretion of TSH [Option ID = 86449]
If enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, then AG° equals to [Question ID = 51669]
1. Inkeq [Option ID = 86671]
2. -?° [Option ID = 86670]
3. -TAS° [Option ID = 86668]
4. TAS° [Option ID = 86669]
Correct Answer :-
- -TAS° [Option ID = 86668]
Peptides get loaded on the MHC-Class I molecules in which part of the cell? [Question ID = 51596]
1. Lysosome [Option ID = 86378]
2. Mitochondria [Option ID = 86376]
3. Endoplasmic Reticulum [Option ID = 86379]
4. Cytosol [Option ID = 86377]
Correct Answer :-
- Endoplasmic Reticulum [Option ID = 86379]
Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully competent but not activated T-cells? [Question ID = 51576]
1. The thyroid gland [Option ID = 86298]
2. The thymus gland [Option ID = 86296]
3. The bone marrow [Option ID = 86299]
4. The lymph nodes [Option ID = 86297]
Correct Answer :-
- The thymus gland [Option ID = 86296]

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Lactose deficiency is characterized by the inability to hydrolyze: [Question ID = 51664]
1. Alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds [Option ID = 86648]
2. Beta-1,6-galactosidic bonds [Option ID = 86649]
3. Beta-1,4-glucosidic bonds [Option ID = 86650]
4. Beta-1,4-galactosidic bonds [Option ID = 86651]
Correct Answer :-
- Beta-1,4-galactosidic bonds [Option ID = 86651]
DNA polymerase I does not contain the following activity: [Question ID = 51598]
1. 5'-3' exonuclease activity [Option ID = 86386]
2. 3'-5' exonuclease activity [Option ID = 86385]
3. 5'-3' polymerase activity [Option ID = 86384]
4. 5'-3' endonuclease activity [Option ID = 86387]
Correct Answer :-
- 5'-3' endonuclease activity [Option ID = 86387]
If taken in equal amount, which of the following antibodies would be most efficient in causing agglutination of RBCs? [Question ID = 51625]
1. IgE [Option ID = 86495]
2. IgM [Option ID = 86492]
3. IgD [Option ID = 86493]
4. IgG [Option ID = 86494]
Correct Answer :-
- IgM [Option ID = 86492]
In bacteriophage A life cycle high levels of CII protein leads to [Question ID = 51595]
1. High levels of C1 repressor and subsequent lytic cycle [Option ID = 86374]
2. High levels of C1 repressor and subsequent lysogeny [Option ID = 86375]
3. Low levels of C1 repressor and subsequent lysogeny [Option ID = 86373]
4. Low levels of C1 repressor and subsequent lytic cycle [Option ID = 86372]
Correct Answer :-
- Low levels of C1 repressor and subsequent lytic cycle [Option ID = 86372]
What happens if citrate concenteration is increased during glycolysis ? [Question ID = 51602]
1. Inhibits triose phosphate isomerase and increase glycolysis [Option ID = 86401]
2. Inhibits phosphoglyceratekinase and slows down glycolysis [Option ID = 86402]
3. Inhibits phosphofructokinase and slows down glycolysis [Option ID = 86400]
4. Inhibits phosphofructokinase and increases glycolysis [Option ID = 86403]
Correct Answer :-
- Inhibits phosphofructokinase and slows down glycolysis [Option ID = 86400]

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A student performed immuno-precipitation with anti-J chain antibodies. Which of the following class of antibodies are expected to be immuno-precipitated predominantly? [Question ID = 51624]
1. IgG [Option ID = 86488]
2. IgM [Option ID = 86489]
3. IgE [Option ID = 86491]
4. IgD [Option ID = 86490]
Correct Answer :-
- IgM [Option ID = 86489]
A researcher wants to clone a PCR amplified insert (1 kb) into a PCR amplified vector backbone (4 kb) using blunt end ligation. The PCR was performed with Pfu DNA polymerase to reduce error rate. For successful cloning, the PCR amplified insert should be treated with which of the following enzymes before setting up the ligation reaction? [Question ID = 51575]
1. T4 DNA polymerase [Option ID = 86292]
2. Klenow fragment exo [Option ID – 86293]
3. Terminal transferase [Option ID = 86295]
4. T4 polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 86294]
Correct Answer :-
- T4 polynucleotide kinase [Option ID = 86294]
A researcher was trying to express a highly toxic protein cloned under T7 promoter in BL21 (DE3) host. However, the culture OD was insufficient for induction of expression and culture showed lysis. Which of the following strains is better suited for such an application? [Question ID = 51626]
1. BL21 (DE3) pLysS [Option ID = 86498]
2. BL21 (DE3) Shuffle [Option ID = 86499]
3. BL21 (DE3) Origami [Option ID = 86497]
4. BL21 (DE3) RIL [Option ID = 86496]
Correct Answer :-
- BL21 (DE3) pLysS [Option ID = 86498]
Secretion of progesterone from corpus luteum is stimulated by: [Question ID = 51655]
1. Thyroid stimulating hormone [Option ID = 86612]
2. Follicle stimulating hormone [Option ID = 86613]
3. Luteinizing hormone [Option ID = 86615]
4. Prolactin [Option ID = 86614]
Correct Answer :-
- Luteinizing hormone [Option ID = 86615]
In case of pET expression systems, the host strain can be transformed with pLysE plasmids, which allow expression of T7 Lysozyme. Which of the following properties of this enzyme are correct? [Question ID = 51600]
1. It promotes cell lysis and reduces the division time of host cells [Option ID = 86394]
2. It promotes cell lysis and inhibits transcription by T7 RNA polymerase [Option ID = 86392]
3. It promotes cell lysis and facilitates folding of expressed protein [Option ID = 86395]
4. It promotes cell lysis and promotes transcription by T7 RNA polymerase [Option ID = 86393]
Correct Answer :-
- It promotes cell lysis and inhibits transcription by T7 RNA polymerase [Option ID = 86392]

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S-Adenosyl methionine is required for the synthesis of which of the following? [Question ID = 51617]
1. Serotonin [Option ID = 86462]
2. Melanin [Option ID = 86461]
3. Thyroid hormone [Option ID = 86460]
4. Epinephrine [Option ID = 86463]
Correct Answer :-
- Serotonin [Option ID = 86462]
The cells that tear down and remodel bone are the [Question ID = 51605]
1. Osteocytes [Option ID = 86413]
2. Macrophages [Option ID = 86415]
3. Osteoclasts [Option ID = 86414]
4. Osteoblasts [Option ID = 86412]
Correct Answer :-
- Osteoclasts [Option ID = 86414]
In which type of chromatography, solvents of increasing polarity are passed through a column of silica gel? [Question ID = 51574]
1. Thin layer chromatography [Option ID = 86289]
2. Gas-liquid chromatography [Option ID = 86291]
3. Adsorption chromatography [Option ID = 86290]
4. Lectin affinity chromatography [Option ID = 86288]
Correct Answer :-
- Adsorption chromatography [Option ID = 86290]
An Indian student applied for post doctorate fellowship in Singapore and was asked to undergo test for Tuberculosis. He went to AIIMS, New Delhi for testing. The Tuberculin skin test (1st test) turned out to be positive, however, culture-based confirmation test (2nd test) revealed that he was negative for tuberculosis. What is the most likely reason for this observation? [Question ID = 51630]
1. The student was vaccinated with BCG. [Option ID = 86513]
2. The student had autoimmune antibodies [Option ID = 86512]
3. The 1st test was not performed correctly [Option ID = 86514]
4. The 2nd test was not performed correctly. [Option ID = 86515]
Correct Answer :-
- The student was vaccinated with BCG. [Option ID = 86513]
Melt curve analysis is routinely performed during real time PCR. It is used for: [Question ID = 51636]
1. Specificity of the reaction [Option ID = 86538]
2. Quantification of the amplicon. [Option ID = 86536]
3. Quantification of the amplicon. [Option ID = 86537]
4. Melting temperature of primers [Option ID = 86539]
Correct Answer :-
- Specificity of the reaction [Option ID = 86538]

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What is the action of sildenafil? [Question ID = 51656]
1. Phosphodiesterase activator [Option ID = 86617]
2. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor [Option ID = 86616]
3. Phospholipase inhibitor [Option ID = 86618]
4. Phospholipase activator [Option ID = 86619]
Correct Answer :-
- Phosphodiesterase inhibitor [Option ID = 86616]
What is cas9 in CRISPR-Cas9-based DNA editing tool? [Question ID = 51646]
1. It is a RNA molecule that provides specificity to the editing process [Option ID = 86576]
2. It is a RNA molecule that cleaves target DNA. [Option ID = 86578]
3. It is a protein molecule that cleaves the target DNA [Option ID = 86577]
4. It is a protein molecule that cleaves the guide RNA. [Option ID = 86579]
Correct Answer :-
- It is a protein molecule that cleaves the target DNA [Option ID = 86577]
What is the phenotypic effect of Sam7 mutation on lambda bacteriophage? [Question ID = 51629]

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This post was last modified on 29 January 2020

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