Firstranker's choice
AP
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Q.1 The normal PR interval is:
a) 0.20-0.24 seconds
c) 0.08-0,20 seconds
d) 0.04-0.12 seconds
Q.3 Nephrotic syndrome has all except:
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a) proteinuria
b) hyperlipidemia
c) swelling
d) hyperuricemia
Q.4 Genetically transmitted kidney disease is:
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a) hypertensive nephropathy
b) diabetic nephropathy
c) chronic glomerulonephritis
d) autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Q.5 Calcitonin secreting C cells are found in:
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a) thyroid gland
b) parathyroid gland
c) endocrine pancrease
d) renal tubular cells
Q.6 Festinating gait is found in:
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a) Cerebellar disease
b) parkinson's disease
c) hemiparesis
d) lower motor neuron paresis
Q.7 Waddling gait is feature of:
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a) pelvic girdle muscular weakness
b) UMN paresis
c) LMN paresis
d) cerebellar disease
Q.8 Romberg's sign is a test of:
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a) cerebellar disease
b) sensory ataxia
c) motor ataxia
d) raised intracranial pressure
Q.9 Extensor planter response is observed in:
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a) LMN paresis
b) sensory neuropathy
c) spinal shock
d) children below age of 1 year
Q.10 Root value for supinator jerk is:
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a) cervical spinal 5&6
Q.12 Microcytic anaemia is:
a) MCV<80 fl
b) MCV >80 fl
c) MCV>100 fl
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d) MCV 80-100 fl
Q.13 For Liver biopsy, contraindication is:
a) pyrexia of unknown origin
b) diagnosis of liver mass
c) suspected hemangioma/Vascular tumour
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d) following liver transplant
Q.14 Charcot's triad is:
a) fever, headache and neck rigidity
b) fever, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice
c) fever, suprapubic pain and dysuria
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d) fever, lumbar pain and dysuria
Q.15 Hemochromatosis is:
a) excess iron deposition in body
b) decrease in total body iron.
c) reduced hepatic iron
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d) functional iron deficiency
Q.16 notable clinical sign of Pleural effusion is:
a) impaired note on percussion
b) dull note on percussion
c) Gallium-67 DTPA scan
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d) stony dull note on percussion
Q.17 'Pink puffer' has been used in:
a) chronic bronchitis
b) bronchial asthma
c) emphysema
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d) pleural effusion
Q.18 Which of the following is least likely to cause Hypoxemia:
a) pleural effusion
b) congestive heart failure
c) metabolic acidosis
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d) pneumothorax
Q.19 Least likely cause of Papilloedema is:
a) post fossa tumour
b) CO2 narcosis
c) raised intracranial pressure
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d) glaucoma
Q.20 Magnesium sulfate is used in treatment of:
a) Aluminium phosphide poisoning
b) organophosphorus poisoning
c) opium poisoning
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d) methanol poisoning
Q.21 Body mass index is:
a) weight in Kg/height in meters
b) weight in Kg/height in meters²
c) weight in Kg/body surface area
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d) weight in Kg/height in meters³
Q.22 Unlikely cause of systolic murmur:
a) anaemia
b) mitral regurgitation
c) tricuspid regurgitation
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d) aortic regurgitation
Q.23 Osteoporosis is:
a) decreased amount of bone with increased risk of fractures
b) defective bone minerelisation
c) increased osteiod formation
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d) increased bone turnover
Q.24 Kwashiorkor’best describing words are:
a) state of protein malnutrition
b) state of energy malnutrition
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c) mineral deficiency
d) vitamine deficiency
Q.25 sleeping sickness is caused by:
a) Trypanosoma species
b) Leishmania species
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c) Pasmodium species
d) Wuchereria species
Q.26 Unlikely feature of Horner's syndrome is:
a) ptosis
b) miosis
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c) anhidrosis
d) exophthalmos
Q.27 Maximum possible score on Glassgow coma scale is:
a) 12
b) 15
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c) 18
d) 9
Q.28 Paraneoplastic syndrome, unlikeky condition is:
a) distant/indirect effect of malignancy
b) may have endocrine manifestation
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c) may have neurological manifestation
d) occur after malignancy is treated
Q.29 Which is a DNA virus disease:
a) Hepatitis B
b) Hepatitis C
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c) HIV disease
d) Hepatitis A
Q.30 Pernicious anaemia is due to:
a) Iron deficiency
b) vit B12 deficiency
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c) folic acid deficiency
d) erythropoietin deficiency
a) cause of folic acid deficiency
b) cause of Iron deficiency
c) cause of vitamin B12 deficiency
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d) cause of Iron deficiency