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Download RGUHS MBBS 1st Year 1025 RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry Paper II RS4 2023 May Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) A Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) 1st Year (First Year) 1025 RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry Paper II RS4 2023 May Previous Question Paper || RGUHS MBBS first year question papers

This post was last modified on 18 November 2023

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QP CODE: 1025

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase- I(CBME) Degree Examination-06-May-2023

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Time: Three Hours

BIOCHEMISTRY- PAPERII(RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1025

(QP contains two pages)

Max. Marks: 100 Marks

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Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2x10=20Marks

  1. A patient who was suffering with pain abdomen and passing clay coloured stools came to medical OPD for treatment. On examination there was yellowish discoloration of sclera. Following investigations a diagnosis of obstructive jaundice was made.
    1. Explain the formation and fate of bilirubin
    2. Name two causes of obstructive jaundice
    3. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    4. Write the serum and urinary findings in obstructive jaundice
  2. What is semiconservative replication? In which phase of cell cycle replication takes place? Describe replication in prokaryotes with neatly labelled diagram.

SHORT ESSAYS 8x5=40 Marks

  1. A 7 year old boy presented with oedema and passing frothy urine. Investigation revealed severe proteinuria.
    1. What is the normal plasma level of total proteins and albumin?
    2. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

    3. Name two other disorders associated with hypoalbuminemia
    4. Mention the functions of albumin.
  2. A child was rushed to the emergency ward with altered sensorium. On examination, the child was found to be in semi comatose stage. Investigations revealed high blood ammonia levels and the case was suspected to be urea cycle disorder.
    1. Explain urea cycle
    2. Mention any two disorders of urea cycle with its enzyme defect
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  3. Explain tertiary structure of proteins. List the forces maintaining tertiary structure.
  4. What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? Describe the steps involved in PCR.
  5. Enumerate five transmethylation reactions and mention their significance.
  6. Describe the structure of immunoglobulins. Name any two classes of immunoglobulins and write their functions.
  7. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  8. What are nucleotides? Name any four biological important nucleotides and write their importance.
  9. List various reactive oxygen species. Describe the damages produced by reactive oxygen species.

SHORT ANSWERS 10x3=30 Marks

  1. Name blotting techniques. Write the applications of each technique.
  2. Draw purine ring and indicate the sources of carbon and nitrogen in the purine ring.
  3. --- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

  4. What are proto-oncogenes? How are they activated?
  5. Mention the vectors used in Recombinant DNA technology and write their importance.
  6. Write van den Bergh test and its interpretation in Hepatic Jaundice.
  7. What are growth factors? Give two examples.
  8. Write three detoxification reactions by conjugation mechanism.
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  10. Mention the advantages of automation in clinical biochemistry laboratory.
  11. Write three reactions of purine salvage pathway.
  12. What are Thalasemias? What are the defects in Alpha and Beta Thalasemias?

Multiple Choice Questions 10x1=10Marks

  1. i) Drug which inhibits xanthine oxidase is
    1. Allopurinol
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    3. Aspirin
    4. Colchicine
    5. Probenecid
  2. ii) Hypoalbuminemia is not seen in
    1. Chronic liver disease
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    3. Nephrotic syndrome
    4. Hemoconcentration
    5. Protein energy malnutrition
  3. iii) Which of the following is an inhibitor of RNA synthesis?
    1. Rifampicin
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    3. Ciprofloxacin
    4. Novobiocin
    5. Adriamycin
  4. iv) Which of the following is an example for sulphur containing amino acid?
    1. Phenylalanine
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    3. Glycine
    4. Threonine
    5. Cysteine
  5. v) Which of the following is purely Ketogenic amino acid?
    1. Proline
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    3. Glycine
    4. Alanine
    5. Leucine
  6. 22i) In DNA number of hydrogen bonds between Guanine and Cytosine is
    1. One
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    3. Two
    4. Three
    5. Four
  7. ii) Tumor marker for colorectal cancer is
    1. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
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    3. Alpha-fetoprotein
    4. Calcitonin
    5. β-HCG
  8. iii) Nitrogen atoms of urea are derived from ammonia and
    1. Aspartic acid
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    3. Alanine
    4. Histidine
    5. Valine
  9. iv) Normal value of plasma osmolality is
    1. 185 to 200 milliosm/kg
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    3. 285 to 300 milliosm/kg
    4. 385 to 400 milliosm/kg
    5. 485 to 500 milliosm/kg
  10. v) Reproducibility of results is best described as:
    1. Sensitivity
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    3. Specificity
    4. Precision
    5. Accuracy

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