Download AIIMS PG 2005 Question paper with Answes

Download AIIMS PG 2005 Question paper with Answes (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

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AIIMS PG 2005
(Based on Memory)
1. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following
lung carcinoma's
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Epidermoid carcinoma
d. Oat cell carcinoma
2. By knowing the half life of a drug it would help in knowing the
a. Median lethal dose
b. Median effective dose
c. Potency of drug
d. Frequency of dosing
3. Which of the following types of human papiloma viruses is implicated in causation of
carcinoma cervix
a. 6
b. 11
c. 16
d. 42
4. The best way to visualize the corneoscleral angle is
a. Slit lamp microscopy
b. Gonioscopy
c. Opthalmoscope
d. Keratometer
5. Mebendzole is used for treatment of all of the following except
a. Intestinal ameobiasis
b. Trichuriasis
c. Ankylostoma
d. Round worm
6. Which of the following causes visceral larva migrane
a. Toxocara catis
b. Ankylostoma doudenale
c. Loa Loa
d. Trichuris trichura
7. Which of the following is content of littre's hernia
a. Sigmoid colon
b. Urinary bladder
c. Meckel's diverticulum
d. Ileus
8. Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to
a. The ratio of number of essential amino acids present in the given diet to reference protein
b. The ratio of number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet to reference protein

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c. The number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet
d. The number of essential amino acids present in the given diet
9. Most common tumor of the appendix is
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Carcinoid
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Metastasis
10. Formation of ammonium ions to remove the excess acid in urine is produced by which of the
following enzymes
a. Glutaminase
b. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase
c. Glutamate dehydrogenase
d. Carboxylase
11. The normal PR interval is in seconds
a. 0.05-0.08
b. 0.12-0.16
c. 0.8-1.6
d. 1.2-2.3
12. The normal sperm count is
a. 4-5 million/mm3
b. 60-120 million/mm
c. 60-120 lakhs/ml
d. 40-50 lakhs/mm3
13. To balance pressure natriuresis, the renel sodium excretion is
a. Increased with Increased arterial pressure
b. Decreased with Increased pressure
c. Decreased with decreased pressure
d. Increased with decreased pressure
14. The limiting amino acid in wheat is
a. Lysine
b. Threonine
c. Tryptophan
d. Cysteine
15. Chronic retropharyngeal abcess is formed due to
a. Acute cervical lymphadenitis
b. Caries spine
c. Tonsillitis
d. Trauma
16. Post cricoids malignancy is commonly in
a. Alcoholics
b. Smokers
c. Plummer vinsons syndrome
d. Reflux esophagitis

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17. The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring
a. The sodium potassium balance
b. The acid base balance
c. The kinetics of enzymatic reaction
d. Anion gap
18. All of the following are anabolic except
a. Growth hormone
b. Cortisol
c. Insulin
d. IGF ? 1
19. The right homonymous hemianopia the lesion is in
a. The right optic nerve
b. Optic chiasma
c. The left Optic tract
d. The Optic radiations in the left cortex
20. Osteochondritis of the lunate bone is known as
a. Friebergs
b. Keinbocks
c. Perthes
d. Kohlers
21. The incubation period of mumps is
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 18 days
d. 25 days
22. To differentiate between osmotic and secretary diarrhea it is best to measure
a. The stool osmolol gap
b. The stool anion gap
d. The water content of the stools
23. Cobble stone appearance is seen in
a. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Trachoma
d. Herpes infection
24. The difference between use a selective alpha 1 blocker to using a non selective alpha
blocker is
a. Less reflux tachycardia
b. Decreased postural hypotension
c. More vasodilation
d. Vasoconstriction
25. All of the following are epinephrine on beta receptors except
a. Tachycardia
b. Ventricular arrythmia's

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c. A-V block
d. Increased cardiac output
26. Symes amputation is of which of the following types
a. Provisional non end bearing
b. Provisional end bearing
c. Definitive non end bearing
d. Definitive end bearing
27. All of the following are true about amiodarone
a. It acts on fast sodium channels
b. Increase action potential
c. It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres
d. It increase refractory period on A-V node
28. The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteoclast
c. Undifferintiated cells
d. Giant cells
29. In vaginal prolapsed the cause for decubitus ulcer is
a. Friction
b. Congestion
c. Infection
d. Mechanical
30. DIC is seen in all of the following except
a. Intra uterine death
b. Extraamniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate
c. Blood loss
d. Amniotic fluid embolism
31. All of the following are conservative management used in ectopic pregnancy except
a. Salpingostomy
b. Salpingotomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Methotrexate
st
32. Hyperemisis Gravidarium in 1 tri mester is seen with increased frequency in all of the
following except
a. H.Mole
b. Twins
c. Preeclampsia
d. Primigravida
33. Volume of synovial fluid in knee joint is
a. 0.5-4 ml
b. 4-8 ml
c. 10-20 ml
d. 8-12 ml

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34. The increased production of vitamin D induced transport protein increases absorption of
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Zinc
35. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are
a. Directed against parietal cells
b. Prevents binding of IF and B12
c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex
d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
36. Most common site of urethral rupture is
a. Prostatic
b. Penile
c. Bulbar
d. Membranous
37. WHO day is celebrated all over the day on
a. April 10
b. April 7th st
c. May 31
d. Dec 1 st
38. Small Pox was declared globally aradicated on
th
a. 7 May 1977
b. 1975
th
c. 8 May 1980
th
d. 14 April 1977
39. The membranous separating the region between the feotal skull bones is called as
a. Fontanels
b. Wormian Bones
c. Sutures
d. Ostia
40. Bisphosphonates act by
a. Preventing calcium absorption in GIT
b. Inhibiting osteoclast mediated bone resorption
c. Preventing Ca excretion
41. Altering blood pH and preventing Ca resorption
a. Odd's ratio measures the strength of association and
b. The ratio of incidence of disease in exposed to nonexposed
c. The risk factors and outcome
d. The ratio between exposed to the incidence of disease in the total population
42. The structures marking the separation of the duodenum and the jejunum is
a. The superior mesenteric vein
b. The bile duct
c. The ligament of trietz

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d. The caudate lobe of liver
43. In an immunosupressed individual suffering from viral, opportunistic fungal and parasitic
infections is suffering mainly from a defect in
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Complement
d. Neutrophils
44. For contraception (post contraception) all of the following are used except
a. Mifepristone
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Levonorgestrol
d. Prostaglandins
45. All of the following are used in treatment of endometriosis except
a. Danazol
b. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
c. OCP's
d. Gonasotropin releasing hormone agonist
46. During a surgery ligation of which of the following small veins in the abdomen can lead to
death of the patient
a. IVC
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Coronary vein
d. Splenic vein
47. All of the following are associated with maculopapular rash except
a. Typhoid
b. Dengue
c. Chicken pox
d. Measles
48. Punctate basophilia is seen in
a. Erythrocytes
b. Nuetrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
49. The fibrous layer is missing in
a. Pars tensa
b. Pars flaccid
c. Umbo
d. Anullus of tympanic membrane
50. Myotonic dystrophy inheritance is by
a. Autosomal Dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Multifactorial

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51. X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in
a. Polycystic Kidney disease
b. Vitamin D resistant rickets
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Von willibrands disease
52. Von willibrands disease is transmitted as
a. Autosomal recessive
b. Autosomal Dominant
c. X-linked recessive
d. Y-linked recessive
53. Internal hordeolum is
a. Chronic granulomatous infection of Meibomian glands
b. Acute supperative infection of Meibomian glands
c. Acute infection of glands Zei's
d. Lacrimal gland infection
54. The protein content in breast milk is
a. 0.8 gm/100 ml
b. 0.9 gm/10 ml
c. 1 gm/10 ml
d. 2 gms/100 ml
55. Dysphagia lusoria is due to
a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery
b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
c. Compression by aortic arch
d. Obstruction due to foreign body
56. Sensitivity is written in the formula as
a. TP/FP+FN
b. TP/FN+TN
c. TP/TN+TP
d. TP/TN+FP
57. Annual parasite incidence measures
a. Number of confirmed cases due to malaria in 1 yr *1000 / population under surveillance
b. Number of cases of malaria due to falciparam in 1 yr *1000 / Total population
c. Number of slides examined *1000 / Total population
d. Number of faciparum malaria cases in 2-10 yr old children *1000 / Total population
58. As per WHO TB is said to be under control when
a. <1% population is tuberculin positive
b. <1% population is sputum positive
c. <1% infection children less then 14 years
d. <5% TB cases
59. Tullio Phenomenon refers to
a. Increased sensitivity to hearing
b. Better hearing in noisy surrounding

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c. Impedence matching
d. Vertigo on hearing high freq sounds
60. Thornwalds disease is infection of
a. Pharyngeal bursa
b. Space of gillete
c. Crypta magna
d. Subhyoid infection
61. All of the following are true regarding ulcerative colitis except
a. Decreased goblet cells
b. Crypt abcess
c. Destruction of crypts
d. Transmural infraction
62. Avoiding reflex is due to
a. Right frontal lobe disease
b. Dominant parietal lobe disease
c. Non dominant parietal lobe disease
d. Left Frontal lobe disease
63. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except
a. Hypotonia
b. Adiodokinesia
c. Resting tremors
d. Ataxia
64. Normal oxygen tension with decreased oxygen carrying capacity is seen in
a. Histotoxic hypoxia
b. Anemic hypoxia
c. Stagnant hypoxia
d. Hypoxic hypoxia
65. Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as
a. Dyslexia
b. Aphasia
c. Disconnection syndrome
d. Apraxia
66. Abelson oncogene is associated with which of the following leukemias
a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute leukemic leukemia
c. Chronic myeloid leukemia
d. Chronic leukemic leukemia
67. In CML the translocation occurring is
a. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 21
b. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 22
c. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21
d. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 22

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68. M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages
a. Promyelocytic
b. Monocytic
c. Myelomonocytic
d. Megakaryocytic
69. The m4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of
a. Megaloblasts
b. Myeloblasts
c. Both myeloblasts and megaloblasts
d. Promylocytes
70. KANAVEL's sign is seen in
a. Acute tenosynovitis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Appendicitis
d. Ectopic pregnancy
71. The most common cause of multiple strictures in the small intestine is
a. TB
b. Ischeamic enteritis
c. Crohns disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
72. In a post appendectomy patient the cause of an external fistula formation is
a. TB
b. Intussuception
c. Crohns disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
73. Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to
a. Patent urachus
b. Vescico intestinal diverticulum
c. Omphalocele
d. Infection
74. Most common cause of vescico vaginal fistula in developing countries is due to
a. Obstructed labour
b. Werthiems hysterectomy
c. Ceasarian section
d. Forceps delivery
75. All of the following operations are done in incontinence except
a. Kelleys stitch
b. Aldridge's operation
c. Marshal marchetti krantz operation
d. Shirodhkars sling operation
76. Most common type of incontinence seen in UTI is
a. False
b. Overflow

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c. Urge
d. True
77. Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of pelvis
a. Platypelloid
b. Android
c. Anthrapoid
d. Gyenecoid
78. Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitoposterior
position
a. Moderate size fetus
b. Gynecoid pelvis
c. Weak uterine contractions
79. Which of the following sinuses is commonly associated with development of osteomyelitis in
the face
a. Maxillary
b. Ethmoid
c. Frontal
d. Sphenoid
80. Atropine causes decrease salivation and bronchodilatation. These properties enable it to
used in as
a. Preaneasthetic medication
b. Hyertension
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. MI
81. All of the following are true about succinylcholine except
a. Causes persistent depolarizing block
b. Metabolized by psuedocholinesterase
c. Block can be reversed by neostigmine
d. Has a short half life
82. Maculopaular rash is seen is all of the following except
a. Typhoid
b. Varicella
c. Dengue
d. Measles
83. Diastomatomyelia is
a. Discontinuity in spinal cord
b. Spur in spinal cord
c. Absence of dorsal column
d. Dislocated disc
84. The weight of the body is transmitted through the axis of the vertebrae passing through
a. Lamina
b. vertebral Body
c. Pedicle

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d. Dorsal arch
85. All of the following are selective beta blockers except
a. Atenolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Bisoprlol
d. Propranolol
86. All of the following are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot except
a. VSD
b. Overiding aorta
c. Pulmonary stenosis
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
87. In most patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Normal
d. Absent
88. In Freidrichs type V hyperlipedemias the protein reised is
a. IDL
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. Chylomicronsii
89. Atoprine is used in treatment of all the following except
a. Iridocyclitis
b. Angle closure glaucoma
c. Corneal ulcer
d. Before refraction assessment
90. Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in
a. Psoriasis
b. Lichen planus
c. Pemphigus
d. Pemphigoid
91. Rhinitis sicca involves
a. Anterior nares
b. Septum
c. Posterior wall
d. Lateral wall
92. Acute pancreatitis is caused most commonly by
a. Gallstones
b. Alcohol
c. Trauma
d. Drugs
93. All of the following about meperidine are true except

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a. Has shorter half life then morphine
b. Greater spasmogenic action then morphine
c. Has dependency
d. Better oral availability
94. The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by
a. Lacunar ligament
b. Femoral ligament
c. Femoral vein
d. Femoral nerve
95. Posterior relation of Winslows foramen is
a. IVC
b. Liver
c. Doudenum
d. Pancreas
96. The death sentence given by a judicial officer has to be confirmed by
a. Sessions court
b. Additional sessions court
c. High court
d. Supreme court
97. The asbestos which of least likely pathogenic is
a. Crocodolite
b. Crysolite
c. Amsolyte
d. Trenolite
98. Most common surgical complication of typhoid is
a. Myocarditis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Hemorrhage
d. Ileal perforation
99. In a patient with highly selective protienuria the protein lost is
a. Transferrin
b. Albumin and fibrinogen
c. Transferrin and fibrinogen
d. Fibronogen
100. The immunologic response giving protection to Hepatitis A for long periods
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgD
101. In window period in Hepatitis B infection, the severly shows
a. HbsAg
b. Anti HbsAg
c. HbeAg

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d. Anti HbeAg
102. Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz Jeghers syndrome is
a. Freckles
b. Lentigenes
c. Caf? u-lait spots
d. Adenoma Sebacium
103. Characteristic lesion in tuberous sclerosis
a. Caf? u-lait
b. Adenoma sebaceum
c. Lentigenes
d. Melanoma
104. All of the following are common uses of blockers and calcium channel blockers except
a. Atrial arrhythmias
b. Hypertension
c. Variant angina
d. Migraine
105. Cardiac output is decreased by
a. Increased sympathetic activity
b. Tachycardia
c. Increased preload
d. Decreased venous return
106. The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes
a. Increased tidal volume
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Bronchodilatation
d. No effect
107. All of the following are true about cochlea except
a. Lesion in cochlea causes nerve deafness
b. Contains the tectorial membrane which is fine tuned
c. It contains the hearing sense organs
d. Lesion causes vertigo
108. Myopia is best corrected by
a. Convex lenses
b. Concave lenses
c. Astigmatic lenses
d. Prisms
109. All of the following are causes of complicated cataract except
a. Malignant Myopia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Retinitis Pigmentosa
d. Iridocyclitis
110. The most common causes of psuedohermaphroditism is
a. Ovarian dysgenesis

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b. Ovarian tumor
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. PCOD
111. The D/D of rectal prolapsed in a child is
a. Intusseception
b. Rectal polyp
c. Heamorrhoids
d. Tumor
112. Most common causes of stridor in newborn is
a. Subglottic stenosis
b. Laryngomalacia
c. Foreign Body
d. Infection
113. All of the following are functions of saliva except
a. Acts as lubricant for mastication
b. It helps in perception of taste by dissolving
c. It helps in digestion of carbohydrates
d. It helps in digestion of proteins
114. The blood supply of SA node is
a. Left coronary artery
b. Right coronary artery
c. Left circumflex artery
d. Anterior descending artery
115. The graph used to measure to unrelated variables like height and weight are
a. Scatter diagram
b. Bar chart
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram
116. Reverse intussuception occurs in
a. Ileocolic
b. Ileoceacal
c. Colocolic
d. Jejunogastric
117. Aspirin can be used in all of the following except
a. Dysmennorhes
b. Acute inflammation of joints
c. Post MI
d. Viral infection
118. All of the following are true about metropathia heamoragica except
a. Swiss cheese endometrium
b. Common nearing menopause
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Metrorhagia

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119. Savlon contains
a. Cetavlon + hibitane
b. Cetavlon + Chlorheximide
c. Hibitane + Chlorhexenol
d. Cetavlon + Chlorohexenol
120. Most common adverse effect of Ziduvudine is
a. Myopathy
b. Bone marrow toxicity
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Hepatitis
121. All of the following are advantages of using INH in anti TB treatment except
a. It reduces load of TB bacilli
b. It kills intracellular TB bacilli
c. It acts on dormant bacilli
d. It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy
122. The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is
a. Chlorpropamide
b. Thiazide
c. Desmopressin
d. Frusemide
123. All of the following are physiological cysts in the ovary except one which is a tumor
a. Theca cysts
b. Dermoid
c. Luteal cysts
d. Corpus luteum cysts
124. Development of testes is dependant upon which of the following
a. X chromosome
b. Y chromosome
c. XY chromosomes
d. XX chromosomes
125. Turners syndrome karyotype is
a. 45, XXY
b. 45 x 0
c. 45, XX
d. 45, XY
126. All of the following are indications of enucleation except
a. Malignant myopia
b. Pthysis bulbi
c. Panopthalmitis
d. Total anterior staphyloma
127. Purely ketogenic amino acid
a. Proline

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b. Tyrosine
c. Leucine
d. Phenylanine
128. Ponderal index is
a. Wt/Ht2
b. 100-ht in cms
c. Wt/cube root of Ht
d. Observed weight/Expected weight
129. WHO's definition of blindness is
a. <6/60
b. <3/60
c. <20/60
d. <1/60
130. All of the following are seen in abruption placenta except
a. Tenderness over the abdomen
b. Renal failure
c. Uterine inversion
d. DIC
131. PQLI includes
a.IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, economic growth product
b.IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, literacy
c. MMR, literacy economic growth product
d. IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge
132. Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what % of chlorine
a.66%
b.33%
c.50%
d.20%
133. Iodized salt at production level and at consumer level should be
a. 45 ppm and 15 ppm
b. 30 ppm and 15 ppm
c. 40 ppm and 20 ppm
d. 20 ppm and 10 ppm
134. The toxin implicated in lathyrism is
a. Pyrralizidone
b. BOAA
c. Sanguinarine
d. Aflatoxin
135. Chronic noise exposure above what level causes deafness
a. 100 Db
b. 85 Db
c. 70 Db
d. 140 Db

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136. All of the following are seen in horners syndrome except
a. Ptosis
b. Miosis
c. Proptosis
d. Anhydrosis
137. Antigen drift involving influenza indicates
a. Major shift in the structure of the antigens
b. Minor variations in the viral nucleocapsid
c. Minor antigenic variations in the heamagluttinin and neuroaminidase antigens
d. Recombination with host DNA
138. Skin contains which type of glands largely
a. Apocrine and sweat glands
b. Ecocrine and sweat glands
c. Holocrine and sweat glands
d. Sebacious and sweat glands
139. Acute flaccid paralysis is suddenly caused by
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypokalemia
140. In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from
abnormality involving
a. Aldosterone
b. ADH
c. Insulin
d. Growth hormone
141. Chlamydia is best treated by
a. Tetracycline
b. Ampicillin
c. Gentamycin
d. Cephalexin
142. True about competitive inhibitor is
a. Decrease in Km and Vmax
b. Decrease in Vmax and Km is same
c. Increase in Km and Vmax is same
d. Decrease in Km and Vmax is same
143. Best drug to potentiate DOPA is
a. Pyridoxine
b. Carbidopa
c. Pergolide
d. Amantadine
144. Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the
following except

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a. Air insufflations
b. Sonosalpingography
c. Hydterosalpingography
d. Laproscopic chromotubation
145. Kernicterus is caused by
a. Bilirubin monoglucoronide
b. Albumin bound bilirubin
d. Bilirubin diglucoronide
146. Mechanism of action of cluvalinic acid is
a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibits beta lactamase
c. Acts on protein synthesis
d. Causes miss reading of DNA
147. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by
a. Growth hormone
b. Stomatostatin
c. Dopamine
d. TSH
148. In increased stage of endometrial carcinoma treatment given is
a. Tamoxifen
b. Mrdroxyprogesesterone
c. Danazol
d. Methotrexate
149. Normal fluoride level for drinking purposes is in mgs/It
a. 0.08-0.5
b. 0.8-1.2
c. 1-1.75
d. 1.5-3.5
150. Epinephrine can be used in all of the following except
a. Anaphylactic shock
b. Chronic bronchial asthma
c. Cardiac resuscitation
d. To prevent local bleed
151. The most common nerve involved in leprosy is
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Lateral popliteal nerve
c. Sciatic nerve
d. Radial nerve
152. Dangerous area of face is
a. Olfactory bulb
b. Woodruffs area
c. Littles area
d. Inferior turbinate

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153. During surgery involving abdomen ligation of a small vein cause death of the patient
a. Coronary vein
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Splenic vein
d. IVC
154. The main blood supply of the small gut is
a. Celiac axis
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Inferior mesenteric vein
d. Middle colic vein
155. The external ear develops from which of the following
st
a. 1 branchial arch
nd
b. 2 branchial arch
st
c. 1 branchial cleft
nd
d. 2 branchial cleft
156. Division of nuclear material occurs in which of the following stages
a. Metaphase I
b. Prophase I
c. Anaphase
d. Prophase II
157. Rotation of radius occurring without extension and flexion at the elbow joint is caused by
a. Anconeus and supinator
b. Brachioradialis and Brachialis
c. Pronator quadrates and pronator teres
d. Triceps and Biceps brachii
158. Depression of mandible is caused by
a. Temporalis
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Masseter
159. Which of the following amino acids undergoes hydroxylation and is involved in the
formation of collagen
a. Proline
b. Tryptophan
c. Phenylalanine
d. Cystiene
160. Which of the following are true about action conduction
a. On activation there is influx of potassium and efflux of sodium
b. It is decremental in nature
c. It does not follow all or none law
d. It requires a threshold stimulus to be activated
161. The most physiological operation for chronic duodenal ulcer is

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a. Highly selective Vagotomy
b. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
c. Antrectomy and truncal vagotomy
d. Selective vagotomy
162. The least recurrence rate is seen in which of the following procedures for peptic ulcer
a. Trancal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
b. Highly selective Vagotomy
c. Trancal vagotomy and antectomy
d. Selective vagotomy
163. Most of the long bones in the body have which of the following type of joints
a. Synarthrosis
b. Dyarthrosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
d. Synostosis
164. The fungi present in the reticuloendothelial system is
a. Candida
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Sporothrix
d. Aspergillus
165. Alpha waves are which of the following frequencies
a. 7-13 Hz
b. 10-20 Hz
c. 15-25 Hz
d. 4-5 Hz
166. In a patient who is resting but is awake and has his closed will show which of the following
readings on EEG
a. Alpha waves
b. Beta waves
c. Theta waves
d. Delta waves
167. Which of the following are true about neutrophils
a. Constitute 5-10% of leucocytes
b. Are phagocytic cells
d. Are increased in chronic inflammation
d. Are present mainly in extravascular regions
168. In a patient suffering through trauma involving regions that are extra abdominal can still
cause death due to which of the following reasons
a. Splenic rupture
b. Acute dilatation of stomach
c. Fat embolism
d. Intedtinal infarction
169. All of the following are true regarding Angle closure glaucoma except
a. Vertically dilated pupil

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b. Deep AC
c. Ciliary congestion
d. Haloes may appear
170. All of the following are true about angle closure glaucoma except
a. Prodormal phase initially
b. Atrpoine is used in treatment
c. Gonioscopy is used to visualize angle
d. Iridotomy is required
171. Which of the following drugs cause photoxicity
a. Phenytoin
b. Amiodarone
c. Digoxin
d. Verapamil
172. Erythema Nodosum is caused by
a. Sulphonamides
b. Phenytoin
c. Phenylbutazone
d. Penecillin
173. Which of the following cytokines synthesized by the LOX enzyme is involved in chemotaxis
a. B4
b. C4
c. D4
d. E4
174. True about TxA2 synthesized by endothelium is
a. Inhibits platelet aggregation
b. Causes vasoconstriction
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
175. Benzathine penicillin is used in treatment of
a. Endocarditis
b. Septicemia
c. Primary syphilis
d. UTI
176. Most common cause of infection in surgical wound is
a. Staph epidermidis
b. Staph aureus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Streptococci
177. Chronic exposure with which of the following particle size causes chronic lung disease
a. 0.5-3 microns
b. 5-10 microns
c. 3-5 microns
d. 0.01-0-5 microns

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178. Which of the following is a common child affective viruses
a. Adenovirus
b. CMV
c. Para influenza
d. Herpes simplex
179. Narcolepsy is
a. Narcotic induced epilepsy
b. Narcotic induced depression
c. Attacks of sleep and paralysis
d. Narcotic withdrawal reaction
180. The best way to gauge the IQ of a child is by looking at
a. Gross motor development
b. Fine motor development
c. Psychosocial
d. Language
181. Cherry red spot is seen in
a. CRVO
b. CRAO
c. Branch retinal vein occlusion
d. Papillodema
182. Cherry red spot is commonly seen in
a. Gauchers disease
b. Taysachs disease
c. Hurlers syndrome
d. Von gierkes disease
183. Cubitus varus deformity occurs most commonly due to
a. Malunited lateral condyle #
b. Malunited supracondylar #
c. Medial epicondyle #
d. Elbow dislocation
184. Vibices is another term for
a. Subcutaneous hypostasis
b. Arboresent markings
c. Lichtenburgs markings
d. Joule burns
185. When permanent canine appears it correlates with the appearance of which of the
following ossification centers
a. Olecranon
b. Pissiform
c. Patella
d. Head of femur
186. In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except

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a. Antiandrogenic effect
b. Oral bioavailability when given along with food
c. Duration of action
d. Side effects
187. Posterior pituitary stores and releases which of the following hormones
a. TSH and GH
b. TSH and LG
c. ADH and Prolactin
d. Oxytocin and vasopressin
188. Invitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to
a. Oligospermia
b. Tubal abnormaities
c. Anovulation
d. Cord factor
189. Regarding water absorption in PCT all of the following are seen in except
a.60% reabsorbed
b. Depends on ADH
c. Passive
d. Active absorption of solutes
190. IV bicarbonate is given in
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Head injury
d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
191. Normal anion gap acidosis is seen in
a. Chronic renal failure
b. Diarrhea
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
d. Methanol poisoning
192. The endothelial cells have specialized receptors for which of following
a. HDL
b. LDL
c. Oxidized LDL
d. Oxidized VLDL
193. Most common parotid tumor is
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Warthins tumor
d. SCC
194. The toxin implicated in lathyrism is
a. Sanguinarine
b. Beta oxalyl amino acid
c. Pyrrazolidine

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d. Aflatoxin
195. The enzyme required for the generation of the ammonium ion in the kidney is
a. Glutamate dehydrogenase
b. Glutamate aspartate transaminase
c. Glutaminase
d. Glutamate carboxylase

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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021