Download AIIMS PG 2009 Question paper with Answers

Download AIIMS PG 2009 Question paper with Answers (All India Institute of Medical Sciences Postgraduate)

This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

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AIIMS PG Last10 Years 2011-2021 Previous Question Papers with Answer Keys (Solved Question Papers)

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AIIMS PG 2009
(Memory Based)

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The ophthalmic division of fifth cranial nerve exits the skull through
1. Superior orbital fissure
2. Foramen ovale
3. Inferior orbital fissure
4. Foramen spinosum
Ans: A

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Which of the following is not true of oculomotor nerve
1. Enter orbit through the inferior orbital fissure
2. Parasympathetic ganglion placed in course of the oculomotor nerve
3. All the muscles of eye except superior oblique and lateral rectus are supplied by it
4. Causes constriction of pupil
Ans: A

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A typical cervical vertebra is differentiated from thoracic vertebra by
1. Shape of the body
2. By the presence of foramen transversarium
3. By the direction of facing of Superior articular facet
4. All of the above
Ans: B

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Which of the following are least involved in the Proprioception of the muscles of head and neck region
1. Facial nerve and trigeminal
2. Oculomotor and Trochlear
3. Spinal accessory nerve and vagus nerve
4. Facial nerve and glossopharyngeal
Ans: C

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Which of the following adaptation is well suited to increase the work capacity at high altitude
1. Decreasing workload and increasing duration of exercise
2. Decreasing workload as well as duration of exercise
3. Increase workload as well as duration of exercise
4. Increase workload and decreasing duration of exercise
Ans: A

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The muscle contraction is initiated by which of the following at synaptic junction
1. Release of acetyl choline at presynaptic channels
2. Opening of calcium channels at presynaptic channels
3. Opening of calcium channels at post synaptic channels
4. Release of acetyl choline at post synaptic junction
Ans: A

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Skeletal muscles
1. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
2. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
3. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
4. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin
Ans: A

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Broca's area is concerned with
1. Word formation
2. Comprehension
3. Repetition
4. Reading
Ans: A

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All of the following statements are true regarding cardiac muscle, except
1. Have multiple nuclei
2. Have gap junction
3. Have branching cell pattern
4. Functional syncitium
Ans: A

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Blood brain barrier is absent in all of the following areas except
1. Subfornical region
2. Habenuclear trigone
3. Area postrema
4. Neurohypophysis
Ans: B

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Which of the following is water soluble vitamin
1. Vitamin A and B
2. Vitamin B and C
3. Vitamin C and D
4. Vitamin D and E
Ans: B

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Which of the following enzymes is acid labile (stable at acidic pH)-
1. Pepsin
2. Trypsin
3. Chymotrypsin
4. Carboxypeptidase
Ans: A

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All of the following are true of HMP SHUNT except
1. HMP shunt is an alternative pathway for oxidation of glucose that occurs in the cytosol
2. It is characterised by the absence of production of ATP
3. It is active in adipose tissue, liver and gonads
4. The oxidative phase generates NADPH and the non oxidative phase generates pyruvate
Ans: D

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Protein that precipitates on heating to 40°C and redissolves on boiling is
1. Bence jones protein
2. Gamma globulin
3. Albumin
4. Myosin
Ans: A

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Benzodiazepine antagonist?
1. Flumazenil
2. Furazolidone
3. Naloxone
4. Naltrexone
Ans: A

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Drug not used in H. pylori:
1. Metronidazole
2. Omeprazole
3. Mosapride
4. Amoxicillin
Ans: C

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Which is a prodrug?
1. Enalapril
2. Clonidine
3. Salmeterol
4. Acetazolamide
Ans: A

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DOPA and 5-Hydroxytryptamine clinically significant because:
1. Both are acid-precursors of amine in the brain
2. Both are neuromodulators
3. Are metabolites of amines
4. Both can cross the blood brain barrier easily
Ans: B

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Which drug is not acetylated?
1. INH
2. Dapsone
1. Hydralazine
2. Metoclopropamide
Ans: D
Which is not a second generation antihistaminic?
1. Loratidine
2. Acrivastatine
3. Cyclizine
4. Terfenidine
Ans: C
A child having hemophilia can take all of the following drugs except
1. Gamma amino butyric acid
2. Penicillin
3. Phenobarbitone
4. Aspirin
Ans: D
All of the following drug is effective in methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection except
1. Cotrimoxazole
2. Vancomycin
3. Ciprofloxacin
4. Cefaclor
Ans: D
Which of the following Antiepileptics can be given safely in pregnant woman
1. Phenytoin
2. Valproate
3. Carbamazepine
4. Phenobarbitone
Ans: D
A patient presents with pustules on hand and back. The bacteriological smear show positive cocci on smear. Culture shows catalase negative and Beta hemolysis is produced. Which of the following test best identifies the organism as group A streptococci.
1. Bacitracin sensitivity
2. Optochin sensitivity
3. Coagulation test.
4. Bile solubility
Ans: A
A person working in a slaughter house developed a small pustule on hand, which turned into an ulcer with central black color. Which of the following can aid in diagnosis
1. Carbol Fuschin
2. Methylene blue
3. Niel-janssen stain
4. Acid fast stain
Ans: B
An old diabetic patient present with multiple skin ulcers on the of the leg. Culture shows gram positive cocci in chains and produces clear hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism
1. Catalase positive
2. Bacitracin
3. Optochin
4. Bile solubility
Ans: B
A n 60 years old debilitated male patient presented with fever, malaise, myalgia, anorexia, and/or headache. He has chest pain and dry cough. Sputum examination showed growth on charcoal yeast extract medium. The organism is likely
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Staphylococci aureus
4. Legionella pneumophila
Ans: D
All of the are true about vibrio cholera except
1. It is non halophilic motile vibrio
2. Grows on simple standard media media
3. Man is the only natural host
4. Cannot survive in extracellular environment
Ans: D
Which of the following contains mostly obligate anaerobe species
1. Pseudomonas'
2. Staphylococcus
3. Streptococcus
4. Bacteroides
Ans: D
Biological monitors for checking the efficacy of sterilization is checked by
1. Using spore formers
2. Using non pathogenic virus
3. Using yeasts
4. All of the above
Ans: A
Earliest transient change following tissue injury is
1. Neutropenia.
2. Neutrophilia.
3. Monocytosis.
4. Lymphocytosis.
5. Lymphocytosis.
Ans: B
The general anesthetic with antiemetic property
1. diazepam
2. propofol
3. Promethazine
4. Fentanyl
Ans: B
Which of the following is not a contraindication of Centrineural anesthesia is
1. Patient on aspirin therapy
2. Reduced cardiac output
3. Patient on oral anticoagulant therapy
4. Raised intracranial pressure
Ans: A
Air abrasive technique the abrasive particles used are
1. 50 micrometer aluminium oxide.
2. 27 micrometer aluminium oxide.
3. 30 microns calcium carbonate
4. 50 micrometer iron oxide.
Which of the following cysts is involved with non-vital teeth?
1. Naso-alveolar cyst
2. Lateral periodontal cyst
3. Radicular cyst
4. Stafne's bone cyst
Ans: C
Fordyce spots are
1. Fat tissues embedded in buccal mucosa
2. Red spots
3. Present on cheek mucosa lateral to the angle of mouth
4. All of the above
Ans: C
Fordyce's granules are seen on lip & buccal mucosa. It consists of
1. Ectopic Sebaceous glands
2. Ectopic Sweat glands
3. Mucous glands
4. Epithelium remnants
Ans: A
Pindborg tumor arise from
1. Cells rests of molassez
2. Cell rests of serrea
3. Dental Lamina
4. Stratum Intermedium
Ans: D
Which of the following is not a skin disease
1. Psoriasis
2. Erythema Multiforme
3. Erythema migrans
4. Pytriasis Rosea
Ans: C
A negative histopathology report of a highly suspicious oral lesion suggest?
1. No malignant potential of the lesion
2. Lesion should be stained with toluidine blue like stain.
3. Periodical recalls are necessary to assess the nature of the lesion
4. That another biopsy is necessary in view of the clinical impression
Ans: D
Which of the following is unlikely to cause enamel hypoplasia
1. Rickets
2. Fluoride
3. Congenital syphilis
4. Cleidocranial dysostosis
Ans: D
Tuberculous lymphadenitis of submaxillary and cervical lymph nodes is seen in
1. Scrofula
2. Miliary TB
3. Lupus vulgaris
4. Lues
Ans: A
The perception of a taste with Complete loss of all taste stimuli
1. Ageusia
2. Hypogeusia
3. Dysgeusia
4. Torqugesia
Ans: D
1. metastasis by way of Arteries
2. spreads by Lymphatics
3. spreads by Nerve sheaths
4. Direct extension and invasion
Ans: D
Anitschkow cells are present in all of the following except
1. Apthous ulcer.
2. Sickle cell disease.
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Herpes simplex
Ans: D
While using the Radio visiography, the best method of infection control for receptors is
1. Autoclave the receptors after each use
2. Immerse the receptors in disinfectant
3. Wipe the sensor with 5.25% hypochlorite solution
4. Cover with impervious plastic sheath
Difference between Digital and conventional radiography is that in Digital radiography
1. X-rays are not used
2. Hard copy can not be obtained
3. No radiation hazard to the patient
4. There is different radiation receptor
Ans: D
Investigation of choice for a bony lesion in temporal bone is
1. Pluridirectional tomography
2. CT scan
3. MRI scan
4. Ultra Sono Graphy
Ans: B
The extra oral radiograph that best demonstrates the subcondylar portion
1. AP mandible
2. Water's view
3. Reverse Towne's view
4. Submental vertex
Ans: C
Best radiographic film to detect incipient caries is
1. speed E film
2. speed D film
3. speed F film
4. speed C film
Ans: C
Radiographs of traumatised tooth is mainly necessary
1. To assess stage of root development
2. To rule out root fractures
1. To have a base line comparison with future radiograph
2. To rule out hylanisation of pulp
Ans: C

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Window like bone defect which do not involve marginal bone which are usually covered by periosteum and gingival are called
1. Dehiscence
2. Crater
3. Fenestration
4. Trough
Ans: C

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The best indication for bone fill procedures (osseous grafts for bone regeneration)
1. One walled infra bony pockets
2. One walled supra bony pockets
3. Two walled infra bony pockets
4. Three walled infra bony pockets
Ans: D

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Which of the following is untrue of LJP
1. more common in females
2. mirror image type of bone loss is seen bilaterally
3. amount of bone destruction is proportional to the amount of plaque
4. aggressive periodontal bone destruction compared to normal periodontitis
Ans: C

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Teeth least effected by periodontitis
1. Upper and lower first molar
2. Upper and lower incisors
3. Lower first molar and upper premolars
4. Upper canines and lower premolars
Ans: D

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Moility of teeth is measured by using
1. Perodontometer
2. Periotron
3. Spechtometer
4. densitometer
Ans: A

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The microorganism not associated with Periodontitis lesion is
1. Campylobacter rectus
2. Prevotella intermedia
3. Actinomyces viscosus
4. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Ans: C

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Which of the following cells are consistent with immunoglobulin levels in established gingivitis
1. Plasma cells
2. Neutrophils
1. Mast cells
2. Lymphocytes
Ans: A
Most periodontal damage occurs in the following conditions
1. intrusion
2. extrusion
3. infarction
4. Luxation
Ans: D
Specificity of a test is its ability to identify
1. True negative
2. False positive
3. False negative
4. True positive
Ans: A
Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI (expanded programme of immunization) schedule
1. OPV
2. BCG
3. MMR
4. DPT
Ans: C
All of the following are transmitted by lice except
1. Trench fever
2. Epidemic typhus
3. Relapsing fever
4. Q fever
Ans: D
Chronic carrier state is not a feature of which of the following diseases (another version of the question is which of the following does'nt has heriditical (chronic carrier state?) occurance
1. Measles
2. Dipthria
3. Tuberculosis
4. Hepatitis B
Ans: A
Which of the following is a contains highest amount of poly unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA)
1. Palm oil.
2. Soya bean oil.
3. Ground nut oil.
4. Olive oil.
Ans: B
In the lactobacillus count is 9500, the reading will be inferred as
1. Little or none
2. Slight
1. Moderate
2. Marked
Ans: C
Which of the following is not present in carislov
1. leucine
2. glutamic acid
3. glycine
4. lysine
Ans: C
Ledermix paste contains
1. Minocycline
2. Oxytetracycline
3. Demeclocycline
4. Doxycycline
Ans: C
Chlorohexidine is least effective against
1. Candida
2. Streptococcus mutans
3. Enterobacter
4. E. fecalis
Ans: C
Which of the following lasers is a WATERLASE system of laser
1. YAG
2. Neon
3. YSGG
4. Argon
Ans: C
Which of the following teeth are most effected in a child of five years of age if put on vigorous tetracycline therapy for one year duration
1. All primary teeth and first molars
2. Only permanent first molars
3. Permanent premolars and 2^nd molars
4. Permanent incisors and canines
Ans: C
Which of the following is a space maintainer?
1. Pendulum appliance
2. Willets appliance
3. Twin block
4. Tip edge
Ans: B
Catalan's appliance is used
1. space maintenance
2. correction of anterior crossbite
3. growth modulation of class II skeletal conditions
1. all of the above
Ans: B
Serial extraction is contra indicated in all of the following except
1. impactions and anodontia
2. Openbite and spaced dentition
3. Class II and class III skeletal pattern
4. flaring and crowding of the lower teeth
Ans: D
The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is into
1. Sphenoid sinus
2. Frontal sinus
3. Etmoidal sinus
4. maxillary sinus
Ans: C
Tertiary monoblock is used in
1. Orthograde MT A system
2. Acti V GP
3. Resilion monoblock obturation
4. Hydron
Ans: A
The recent modification of MTA used as a root canal irrigant is
1. MTA-A
2. MTA-B
3. MTA-C
4. MTA-D
Ans: D
Which of the following is a Tertiary monoblock system
1. Orthograde MT A system
2. Hydron
3. Resilion monoblock obturation
4. Acti V GP
Ans: D
Which of the following UDMA based sealer
1. Real seal
2. Endorez
3. AH 26
4. SEALAPEX
Ans: B
In fracture through mental foramen in mandible with less than 10mm of bone los treatment would be,
1. Champy's plate.
2. Lag screw
3. Non rigid fixation
4. Reconstruction plates
1. Symphysis
2. Body
3. Condyle
4. Angle
Ans: A
A transverse fracture of symphysis is treated by all of the following except
1. Two Compression plates. (2mm)
2. Two lag screws
3. Single Miniplate fixation (1.5mm)
4. 2.4 mm reconstruction plate.
Ans: C
Number of bones osteotised in Le – fort I osteotomy essentially are
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Ans:
Which of the following characterises Implant placement for overdentures in anterior maxilla
1. Two implants placed anterior to sinus in canine and premolar area on each side
2. Four implants placed in incisor region
3. Two implants placed in central incisor region
4. It is better to avoid implants anterior to sinus in overdenture construction
Ans: A
Which part of the central nervous system is mainly is infested by neuro cysticercosis.
1. cranial nerves
2. neurons
3. Brain parenchyma
4. Spinal cord
Ans: C

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This post was last modified on 30 July 2021

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